1401-1600 Flashcards
1
Q
What technique uses the separation of proteins on a gel electrophoresis?
A
Western blot
2
Q
Lack of what vitamin causes multiple carboxylase deficiency?
A
Biotin
3
Q
What enzyme makes hnRNA/mRNA?
A
RNA polymerase II
4
Q
What enzyme is deficient in cystathioninuria?
A
Cystathionase
5
Q
What enzyme is deficient in maple syrup urine disease?
A
Branched-chain keto acid dehydrogenase
6
Q
What type of mutation has the addition or deletion of a base?
A
Frameshift
7
Q
What is the site of action of puromycin?
A
Aminoacyl tRNA (A site)
8
Q
What translational factor is blocked by both diphtheria and Pseudomonas toxins?
A
Elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
9
Q
What substrate gets built up in Gaucher’s disease?
A
Glucosyl cerebroside
10
Q
What enzyme is deficient in homocystinuria?
A
Homocysteine methyl transferase or cystathionine synthetase
11
Q
What substrate is built up in Niemann-Pick disease?
A
Tyrosine kinase
12
Q
What is the second messenger system used by growth factors?
A
Sphingomyelin
13
Q
What is the name of the sequence on mRNA that precedes the start codon in prokaryotes?
A
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
14
Q
What amino acid undergoes N-glycosylation?
A
Asparagine
15
Q
What translational factor is blocked by tetracycline?
A
Elongation factor Tu (EF-Tu)
16
Q
What translational factor is blocked by streptomycin?
A
IF-2
17
Q
Which organisms have polycistronic mRNA?
A
Prokaryotes: Polycistonic and prokaryotes both start with P.
18
Q
In what disease are lysosomal enzymes released into the extracellular space where an accumulation of inclusion bodies compromises the cell’s function?
A
I-cell disease
19
Q
What is the site of action of chloramphenicol?
A
Peptidyl transferase (50s)
20
Q
What is needed to initiate translation?
A
IF and GTP (OF for eukaryotes)
21
Q
What is the name of the process of going from DNA to mRNA?
A
Transcription
22
Q
Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3’ or the 5’ end?
A
3’ end. Phosphate (P04) is at the 5’ end.
23
Q
What is the only factor of enzyme kinetics that the enzyme affects?
A
Ea (activation energy)
24
Q
What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell from entering S phase when no growth factors are present?
A
Rb gene
25
What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell with damaged DNA from entering the S phase?
p53 gene
26
What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?
EF-Tu or EF-is and GTP
27
What factors are needed for translocation in eukaryotes?
EF-2 and GTP
28
What type of inheritance involves carriers, affects only males, and skips generations?
X-linked recessive
29
What type of separation technique uses RNA on an electrophoresis?
Northern blotting
30
What factors are needed for elongation in eukaryotes?
EF-1 and GTP
31
What factors are needed for translation in prokaryotes?
EF-G and GTP
32
What type of inheritance has no male-to-male transmission, and every daughter is affected from the father in every generation?
X-linked recessive
33
What virus is associated with intranuclear inclusions known as "owl's eye" inclusions?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
34
What virus is associated with Negri bodies?
Rabies virus
35
What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?
Variola virus -7-ox vtrcs
36
What virus causes small, pink, benign wart-like tumors and is associated with HIV-positive patients?
Molluscum contagiosum
37
What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?
Human papilloma viruses (HPVs) 16 and 18
38
What virus is associated with erythema infectiosum or fifth disease?
Parvovirus B-19
39
What virus binds to: CD4?
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
40
What virus binds to: Ã2-Microglobulin?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
41
What virus binds to: Complement factor C3?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Qp7_1
42
What virus binds to: ACh receptors?
Rabies virus
43
What is the only dsRNA virus?
Reovirus
44
What are the three non-enveloped RNA viruses?
1. Picornavirns 2. Calicivirns 3. Reovirns (PCR)
45
What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions?
Herpes virus I and II
46
What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?
Calicivirns
47
What virus affects the motor neurons in the anterior horn?
Poliovirus
48
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children?
Adenovirns /Ro.S.mftg
49
What virus lies dormant in the: Trigeminal ganglia?
Herpes I
50
What virus lies dormant in the: Dorsal root ganglia?
Varicella
51
What virus lies dormant in the: Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?
Herpes II
52
With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?
EBV
53
What are the four segmented RNA viruses?
1. Bunyavirns 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Reovirns 4. Arenavirus (BORA)
54
Koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear are indicative of what virus?
HPV
55
What bacteria constitute the most common cause of nosocomial infections in burn patients and in patients with cystic fibrosis?
Pseudomonas
56
What organism is associated with pneumonia acquired from air conditioners?
Legionella
57
What species of bacteria is associated with whooping cough?
Bordetella pertus,sis
58
What two bacteria are associated with drinking unpasteurized milk?
1. Brucella 2. Listeria (has tumbling motility)
59
What organism is associated with gastritis and ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori
60
What species of bacteria is associated with traveler's diarrhea?
Escherichia coli (enterotoxic)
61
With what organism is "currant jelly" sputum associated?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
62
What is the most common cause of enterocolitis?
Salmonella enteritidis
63
What organism is so infective that it takes only 1 to 10 organisms to cause an infection?
Shigella
64
What organism stains bipolar and causes buboes?
Yersinia pesos
65
Rice water stools are indicative of what organism?
Vibrio cholerae
66
With what organism are intracellular gram-negative inclusions in neutrophils associated?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
67
What organism is most likely to cause an infection if you are bitten by a dog or a cat?
Pasteurella
68
What organism needs factor X and NAD in order to grow on growth medium?
Haemophilu.s influenzae type B
69
What organism is associated with a rigid belly and rose spots on the belly?
Salnwnella typhi
70
What organism will cause an infection if undercooked or raw seafood is eaten?
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
71
What organism is likely to infect you if you get cut by a shell at the beach?
Vibrio vulnificus
72
What infective bacteria are found in undercooked hamburgers?
Escherichia coli strain 0157:H7ss
73
What organism is said to have a "spaghetti and meatball" arrangement under a microscope?
Malassezia furfur
74
What fungus is associated with rose gardener's disease?
Sporothrix schenckii
75
What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?
Chromomycosis
76
What fungus is found in soil with bird or bat feces?
Histoplasma cap.sulatum
77
Which organism causes San Joaquin fever?
Coccidioides immitis
78
What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?
Candida albicans
79
What fungus is found in pigeon droppings?
Cryptococcus neoformans
80
What fungus is seen as a yeast with broad-based buds and a double refractile cell wall?
Blastomyces dermatitidis
81
What fungus is stained positive with India ink?
Cryptococcus neoforrnans
82
What virus is the most common causative agent of the common cold in the summer and the fall?
Rhiuovirus
83
To what family of viruses do dengue, St. Louis, and yellow fever belong?
Flavivirus
84
What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?
Rhabdovirus
85
What virus is responsible for causing the croup and also the common cold in the young and the old?
Paraiuflueuza virus
86
What is the causative agent of orchitis, parotids, and pancreatitis?
Mumps virus
87
What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?
Vesicular stomatitis virus
88
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in children 1 year old or younger?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
89
What virus is the most common cause of the common cold in the winter and early spring?
Coronavinzs
90
What yeast is urease positive?
Cryptococcus neoformans
91
What fungus is a facultative intracellular parasite of the reticular endothelial system?
Histoplasma capsulatum
92
What virus is helical and has HN and F glycoprotein spikes?
Paramyxovirus
93
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in persons with underlying health problems?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
94
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in young children?
Mycoplasma
95
What virus causes epidemic keratoconjunetivitis?
Adenovirus
96
What is the most common cold virus?
Rhinovirus
97
What two viruses have neuraminidase activity?
1. Influenza 2. Mumps
98
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in infants?
Rotavirus
99
What is the reservoir for the togavirus?
Birds
100
What two viruses cause pancreatitis?
1. Mumps 2. Coxsackie B40
101
With what two viruses are Reye's syndrome associated?
1. Varicella virus 2. Influenza virus
102
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Children younger than 3 months of age?
Streptococcus agalactiae or Escherichia Coli
103
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Non-immunized children 12 months to 6 years old?
Haemophilus influenzae type b
104
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Immunized children 12 months to 6 years old?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
105
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Military recruits?
Neisseria meningitidis
106
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: HIV+/immunocompromised persons?
Cryptococcus neoformans
107
What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Adults?
Streptococcus pneunwniae
108
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in children?
RSV
109
What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?
Escherichia coli
110
Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mononucleosis?
1. CMV 2. Toxoplasma gondii 3. Listeria
111
What two genera are spore formers?
1. Clostridia 2. Bacillus
112
What bacteria are responsi- ble for woolsorters' disease?
Bacillus anthracis
113
What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
114
What bacteria cause subacute endocarditis and dental caries?
Streptococcus viridans
115
Which two organisms can cause sulfur granules in the pus?
1. Actinomyces 2. Nocardia
116
What species of bacteria is responsible for causing endocarditis in IV drug users?
Staphylococcus epidermidis
117
What bacteria are responsible for food poisoning from rice, fried rice, and reheated foods?
Bacillus cereus
118
Which bacteria present as a common cause of meningitis in renal transplant patients?
Listeria
119
What bacteria get inoculated into the body by a puncture wound in the skin and also inhibit glycine and GABA?
Clostridium tetani
120
What bacteria are found in poorly preserved canned food and cause flaccid paralysis?
Clostridium botulinum
121
What bacteria cause myonecrosis?
Clostridium perfringens
122
What bacteria cause pseudomembranous colitis?
Clostridium difficile
123
What bacteria are associated with food poisoning from ham, potato salad, and custards?
Staphylococcus aureus
124
What three bacteria are quellung reactive test positive?
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
125
Which organism causes a painful chancre?
Haemophilus ducreyi
126
What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
RSV
127
What is the predominant anaerobe in the colon?
Bacillus fragilis
128
Which organism causes trench mouth?
Fusobacterium
129
Which organism causes Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
130
Which organism causes Weil's disease?
Leptospira
131
What organism causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
132
Which agent causes pneumonia in college students and military recruits?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
133
What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
Rigors, leukopenia, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in temperature
134
Which spirochete causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
Rickettsia rickettsii (wrist to trunk rash)
135
Which organism causes trench fever?
Rochalimaea quintana
136
Which organism causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazekii (trunk to periphery rash)
137
Which organism causes pneumonia in bird owners?
Chlamydia psittaci
138
Which organism causes multiple infections by antigen switching?
Borrelia recurrentis
139
Which organism has protein A for an anti-opsonization defense?
Staphylococcus aureus
140
Which organism releases endotoxins PRIOR to cell death?
Neisseria meningitidis
141
What is the only ssDNA virus?
Parvovirus
142
What is the only DNA virus to replicate in the cytoplasm?
Poxvirus
143
What are the three naked DNA viruses?
1. Parvovirus 2. Adenovirus 3. Papovavirus (PAP)
144
What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase enzyme?
Hepadnavirus
145
Which hepatitis virus is an RNA viroid-like virus that needs hepatitis B to be infective?
Hepatitis D
146
Which hepatitis virus is an enveloped RNA flavivirus, which is known for postinfusional hepatitis?
Hepatitis C
147
What antigen is needed to diagnose an infectious patient with hepatitis B?
Hepatitis Be antigen
148
Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hepatitis B 4- C
149
Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?
Hepatitis E (enteric)
150
Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?
Hepatitis A (infectious)
151
What two antigens need to be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?
1. Hepatitis Bs 2. Hepatitis A antigen
152
In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which antibodies do you see?
Hepatitis Be and c antibodies; You see the antibodies c and e.
153
Which virus is found in the urine of rodents?
Arenavirus
154
Which virus is associated with hairy T cell leukemia?
HTLV-I and HTLV-II
155
What are the components of the rubella triad?
1. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) 2. Cataracts 3. Mental retardation
156
What is the drug of choice to treat: HSV encephalitis?
Vidarabine
157
What is the drug of choice to treat: RSV pneumonia?
Ribavirin
158
What is the drug of choice to treat: CMV retinitis/infection?
Ganciclovir
159
What is the drug of choice to treat: Influenza A?
Amantadine
160
What is the drug of choice to treat: HSV?
Acyclovir
161
What is the drug of choice to treat: HPV?
Interferon alpha
162
What does Candida albicana do that distinguishes it from other fungi?
It forms a germinal tube at 37°C.
163
Which organism, transmitted by sexual contact, is almost diagnostic by the foul-smelling, green discharge from the vagina and its associated itch?
Trichomonas vaginalis
164
Which organism is associated with a diffuse bilateral interstitial pneumonia and with HIV-positive patients with CD4 counts of 200 or lower?
Pneumocysti.s carinii
165
What three organs can be affected by Trypanoaoma cruzi?
1. Heart 2. Esophagus 3. Colon Remember-you get "megas:" 1. Cardiomegaly 2. Megaesophagus 3. Megacolon
166
What organism causes kala-azar, which is associated with hyperpigmentation of the skin, enlargement of the spleen, and decreased bone marrow activity?
Leishmania donovani
167
Which type of malaria is associated with dark urine?
Plasmodium falciparum (malignant)
168
What people are "protected" from malaria?
People with heterogenous sickle cell trait
169
What type of Plasmodium is banana or crescent shaped when stained with Giemsa stain?
Plasmodium falciparum
170
What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?
Plasmodium malarize; the others are tertian.
171
What types of Plasmodium produce latent hypnozoites in the liver, which can cause a relapse?
Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
172
What organism is associated with liver abscess, t ulcers, and perforated diaphragms?
Entamoeba histolytica
173
What type of Plasmodium affects: Only mature RBCs?
Plasmodium malariae
174
What type of Plasmodium affects: Only redculocytes?
Plasmodium vivax
175
What type of Plasmodium affects: RBCs of all ages?
Plasmodium falciparum
176
What three carcinomas are associated with EBV?
1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharvngeal 3. Thymic
177
What is the direction of the strand if a virus has infectious +RNA?
5' to 3' RNA
178
What two viruses do not get their envelope from budding but actually from coding?
HIV and poxvirus
179
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion?
GP41
180
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?
GP120
181
What protein of the HIV virus is used to detect if a patient is HIV-positive by ELISA?
P24
182
What two viruses cause progressive multifocal encephalitis?
1. Simian (SV40) virus 2. JC virus
183
With what virus do you see Koplik's spots and Worthin- Finkeldy cells, and possibly subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?
Rubeola (measles)
184
What are known as jumping genes?
Transposons
185
What is the most common viral cause of myocarditis?
Coxsackie B
186
What virus is associated with heterophil-positive mononucleosis?
EBV
187
What is the only virus to be eradicated?
Smallpox virus
188
What virus, which creates painful vesicular lesions, is a cause of aseptic meningitis?
Herpes simplex II
189
What virus attaches to fibroblastic growth factor?
Herpes simplex I
190
What is the most prevalent coral infection in the USA?
Varicella-zoster virus
191
What is the only herpes virus to cross the placenta?
CMV
192
Of what virus are Guarnieri bodies diagnostic?
Smallpox
193
What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear in a heterophil-positive mononucleosis?
T cells not the B cells
194
What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?
Hepatitis E
195
What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to be infective?
Hepatitis Bs antigen as its envelope
196
What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?
1. Hepatitis B 2. Hepatitis C
197
What are the only two viruses where naked dsDNA is NOT infectious?
1. Poxvirus 2. Hepatitis B virus
198
What is the only diploid virus?
Retrovirus
199
What types) of immune response is the body capable of making when presented with a live vaccine?
Humoral and cell mediated
200
What IIPV is the causative agent of anogenital warts?
HPV 6 and 11
