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1401-1600 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What technique uses the separation of proteins on a gel electrophoresis?

A

Western blot

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2
Q

Lack of what vitamin causes multiple carboxylase deficiency?

A

Biotin

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3
Q

What enzyme makes hnRNA/mRNA?

A

RNA polymerase II

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4
Q

What enzyme is deficient in cystathioninuria?

A

Cystathionase

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5
Q

What enzyme is deficient in maple syrup urine disease?

A

Branched-chain keto acid dehydrogenase

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6
Q

What type of mutation has the addition or deletion of a base?

A

Frameshift

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7
Q

What is the site of action of puromycin?

A

Aminoacyl tRNA (A site)

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8
Q

What translational factor is blocked by both diphtheria and Pseudomonas toxins?

A

Elongation factor 2 (EF-2)

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9
Q

What substrate gets built up in Gaucher’s disease?

A

Glucosyl cerebroside

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10
Q

What enzyme is deficient in homocystinuria?

A

Homocysteine methyl transferase or cystathionine synthetase

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11
Q

What substrate is built up in Niemann-Pick disease?

A

Tyrosine kinase

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12
Q

What is the second messenger system used by growth factors?

A

Sphingomyelin

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13
Q

What is the name of the sequence on mRNA that precedes the start codon in prokaryotes?

A

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

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14
Q

What amino acid undergoes N-glycosylation?

A

Asparagine

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15
Q

What translational factor is blocked by tetracycline?

A

Elongation factor Tu (EF-Tu)

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16
Q

What translational factor is blocked by streptomycin?

A

IF-2

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17
Q

Which organisms have polycistronic mRNA?

A

Prokaryotes: Polycistonic and prokaryotes both start with P.

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18
Q

In what disease are lysosomal enzymes released into the extracellular space where an accumulation of inclusion bodies compromises the cell’s function?

A

I-cell disease

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19
Q

What is the site of action of chloramphenicol?

A

Peptidyl transferase (50s)

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20
Q

What is needed to initiate translation?

A

IF and GTP (OF for eukaryotes)

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21
Q

What is the name of the process of going from DNA to mRNA?

A

Transcription

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22
Q

Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3’ or the 5’ end?

A

3’ end. Phosphate (P04) is at the 5’ end.

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23
Q

What is the only factor of enzyme kinetics that the enzyme affects?

A

Ea (activation energy)

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24
Q

What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell from entering S phase when no growth factors are present?

A

Rb gene

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25
Q

What tumor suppressor gene prevents a cell with damaged DNA from entering the S phase?

A

p53 gene

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26
Q

What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?

A

EF-Tu or EF-is and GTP

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27
Q

What factors are needed for translocation in eukaryotes?

A

EF-2 and GTP

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28
Q

What type of inheritance involves carriers, affects only males, and skips generations?

A

X-linked recessive

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29
Q

What type of separation technique uses RNA on an electrophoresis?

A

Northern blotting

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30
Q

What factors are needed for elongation in eukaryotes?

A

EF-1 and GTP

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31
Q

What factors are needed for translation in prokaryotes?

A

EF-G and GTP

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32
Q

What type of inheritance has no male-to-male transmission, and every daughter is affected from the father in every generation?

A

X-linked recessive

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33
Q

What virus is associated with intranuclear inclusions known as “owl’s eye” inclusions?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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34
Q

What virus is associated with Negri bodies?

A

Rabies virus

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35
Q

What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?

A

Variola virus -7-ox vtrcs

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36
Q

What virus causes small, pink, benign wart-like tumors and is associated with HIV-positive patients?

A

Molluscum contagiosum

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37
Q

What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?

A

Human papilloma viruses (HPVs) 16 and 18

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38
Q

What virus is associated with erythema infectiosum or fifth disease?

A

Parvovirus B-19

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39
Q

What virus binds to: CD4?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

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40
Q

What virus binds to: ß2-Microglobulin?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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41
Q

What virus binds to: Complement factor C3?

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) - Qp7_1

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42
Q

What virus binds to: ACh receptors?

A

Rabies virus

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43
Q

What is the only dsRNA virus?

A

Reovirus

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44
Q

What are the three non-enveloped RNA viruses?

A
  1. Picornavirns 2. Calicivirns 3. Reovirns (PCR)
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45
Q

What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions?

A

Herpes virus I and II

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46
Q

What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?

A

Calicivirns

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47
Q

What virus affects the motor neurons in the anterior horn?

A

Poliovirus

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48
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children?

A

Adenovirns /Ro.S.mftg

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49
Q

What virus lies dormant in the: Trigeminal ganglia?

A

Herpes I

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50
Q

What virus lies dormant in the: Dorsal root ganglia?

A

Varicella

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51
Q

What virus lies dormant in the: Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?

A

Herpes II

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52
Q

With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?

A

EBV

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53
Q

What are the four segmented RNA viruses?

A
  1. Bunyavirns 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Reovirns 4. Arenavirus (BORA)
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54
Q

Koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear are indicative of what virus?

A

HPV

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55
Q

What bacteria constitute the most common cause of nosocomial infections in burn patients and in patients with cystic fibrosis?

A

Pseudomonas

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56
Q

What organism is associated with pneumonia acquired from air conditioners?

A

Legionella

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57
Q

What species of bacteria is associated with whooping cough?

A

Bordetella pertus,sis

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58
Q

What two bacteria are associated with drinking unpasteurized milk?

A
  1. Brucella 2. Listeria (has tumbling motility)
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59
Q

What organism is associated with gastritis and ulcers?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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60
Q

What species of bacteria is associated with traveler’s diarrhea?

A

Escherichia coli (enterotoxic)

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61
Q

With what organism is “currant jelly” sputum associated?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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62
Q

What is the most common cause of enterocolitis?

A

Salmonella enteritidis

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63
Q

What organism is so infective that it takes only 1 to 10 organisms to cause an infection?

A

Shigella

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64
Q

What organism stains bipolar and causes buboes?

A

Yersinia pesos

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65
Q

Rice water stools are indicative of what organism?

A

Vibrio cholerae

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66
Q

With what organism are intracellular gram-negative inclusions in neutrophils associated?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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67
Q

What organism is most likely to cause an infection if you are bitten by a dog or a cat?

A

Pasteurella

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68
Q

What organism needs factor X and NAD in order to grow on growth medium?

A

Haemophilu.s influenzae type B

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69
Q

What organism is associated with a rigid belly and rose spots on the belly?

A

Salnwnella typhi

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70
Q

What organism will cause an infection if undercooked or raw seafood is eaten?

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

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71
Q

What organism is likely to infect you if you get cut by a shell at the beach?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

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72
Q

What infective bacteria are found in undercooked hamburgers?

A

Escherichia coli strain 0157:H7ss

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73
Q

What organism is said to have a “spaghetti and meatball” arrangement under a microscope?

A

Malassezia furfur

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74
Q

What fungus is associated with rose gardener’s disease?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

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75
Q

What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?

A

Chromomycosis

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76
Q

What fungus is found in soil with bird or bat feces?

A

Histoplasma cap.sulatum

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77
Q

Which organism causes San Joaquin fever?

A

Coccidioides immitis

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78
Q

What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?

A

Candida albicans

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79
Q

What fungus is found in pigeon droppings?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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80
Q

What fungus is seen as a yeast with broad-based buds and a double refractile cell wall?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

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81
Q

What fungus is stained positive with India ink?

A

Cryptococcus neoforrnans

82
Q

What virus is the most common causative agent of the common cold in the summer and the fall?

A

Rhiuovirus

83
Q

To what family of viruses do dengue, St. Louis, and yellow fever belong?

A

Flavivirus

84
Q

What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?

A

Rhabdovirus

85
Q

What virus is responsible for causing the croup and also the common cold in the young and the old?

A

Paraiuflueuza virus

86
Q

What is the causative agent of orchitis, parotids, and pancreatitis?

A

Mumps virus

87
Q

What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?

A

Vesicular stomatitis virus

88
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in children 1 year old or younger?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

89
Q

What virus is the most common cause of the common cold in the winter and early spring?

A

Coronavinzs

90
Q

What yeast is urease positive?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

91
Q

What fungus is a facultative intracellular parasite of the reticular endothelial system?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

92
Q

What virus is helical and has HN and F glycoprotein spikes?

A

Paramyxovirus

93
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in persons with underlying health problems?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

94
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in young children?

A

Mycoplasma

95
Q

What virus causes epidemic keratoconjunetivitis?

A

Adenovirus

96
Q

What is the most common cold virus?

A

Rhinovirus

97
Q

What two viruses have neuraminidase activity?

A
  1. Influenza 2. Mumps
98
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in infants?

A

Rotavirus

99
Q

What is the reservoir for the togavirus?

A

Birds

100
Q

What two viruses cause pancreatitis?

A
  1. Mumps 2. Coxsackie B40
101
Q

With what two viruses are Reye’s syndrome associated?

A
  1. Varicella virus 2. Influenza virus
102
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Children younger than 3 months of age?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae or Escherichia Coli

103
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Non-immunized children 12 months to 6 years old?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type b

104
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Immunized children 12 months to 6 years old?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

105
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Military recruits?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

106
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: HIV+/immunocompromised persons?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

107
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in: Adults?

A

Streptococcus pneunwniae

108
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in children?

A

RSV

109
Q

What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?

A

Escherichia coli

110
Q

Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mononucleosis?

A
  1. CMV 2. Toxoplasma gondii 3. Listeria
111
Q

What two genera are spore formers?

A
  1. Clostridia 2. Bacillus
112
Q

What bacteria are responsi- ble for woolsorters’ disease?

A

Bacillus anthracis

113
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

114
Q

What bacteria cause subacute endocarditis and dental caries?

A

Streptococcus viridans

115
Q

Which two organisms can cause sulfur granules in the pus?

A
  1. Actinomyces 2. Nocardia
116
Q

What species of bacteria is responsible for causing endocarditis in IV drug users?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

117
Q

What bacteria are responsible for food poisoning from rice, fried rice, and reheated foods?

A

Bacillus cereus

118
Q

Which bacteria present as a common cause of meningitis in renal transplant patients?

A

Listeria

119
Q

What bacteria get inoculated into the body by a puncture wound in the skin and also inhibit glycine and GABA?

A

Clostridium tetani

120
Q

What bacteria are found in poorly preserved canned food and cause flaccid paralysis?

A

Clostridium botulinum

121
Q

What bacteria cause myonecrosis?

A

Clostridium perfringens

122
Q

What bacteria cause pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Clostridium difficile

123
Q

What bacteria are associated with food poisoning from ham, potato salad, and custards?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

124
Q

What three bacteria are quellung reactive test positive?

A
  1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
125
Q

Which organism causes a painful chancre?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

126
Q

What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?

A

RSV

127
Q

What is the predominant anaerobe in the colon?

A

Bacillus fragilis

128
Q

Which organism causes trench mouth?

A

Fusobacterium

129
Q

Which organism causes Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

130
Q

Which organism causes Weil’s disease?

A

Leptospira

131
Q

What organism causes Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii

132
Q

Which agent causes pneumonia in college students and military recruits?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

133
Q

What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Rigors, leukopenia, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in temperature

134
Q

Which spirochete causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii (wrist to trunk rash)

135
Q

Which organism causes trench fever?

A

Rochalimaea quintana

136
Q

Which organism causes epidemic typhus?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii (trunk to periphery rash)

137
Q

Which organism causes pneumonia in bird owners?

A

Chlamydia psittaci

138
Q

Which organism causes multiple infections by antigen switching?

A

Borrelia recurrentis

139
Q

Which organism has protein A for an anti-opsonization defense?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

140
Q

Which organism releases endotoxins PRIOR to cell death?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

141
Q

What is the only ssDNA virus?

A

Parvovirus

142
Q

What is the only DNA virus to replicate in the cytoplasm?

A

Poxvirus

143
Q

What are the three naked DNA viruses?

A
  1. Parvovirus 2. Adenovirus 3. Papovavirus (PAP)
144
Q

What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase enzyme?

A

Hepadnavirus

145
Q

Which hepatitis virus is an RNA viroid-like virus that needs hepatitis B to be infective?

A

Hepatitis D

146
Q

Which hepatitis virus is an enveloped RNA flavivirus, which is known for postinfusional hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis C

147
Q

What antigen is needed to diagnose an infectious patient with hepatitis B?

A

Hepatitis Be antigen

148
Q

Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatitis B 4- C

149
Q

Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?

A

Hepatitis E (enteric)

150
Q

Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?

A

Hepatitis A (infectious)

151
Q

What two antigens need to be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?

A
  1. Hepatitis Bs 2. Hepatitis A antigen
152
Q

In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which antibodies do you see?

A

Hepatitis Be and c antibodies; You see the antibodies c and e.

153
Q

Which virus is found in the urine of rodents?

A

Arenavirus

154
Q

Which virus is associated with hairy T cell leukemia?

A

HTLV-I and HTLV-II

155
Q

What are the components of the rubella triad?

A
  1. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) 2. Cataracts 3. Mental retardation
156
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat: HSV encephalitis?

A

Vidarabine

157
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat: RSV pneumonia?

A

Ribavirin

158
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat: CMV retinitis/infection?

A

Ganciclovir

159
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat: Influenza A?

A

Amantadine

160
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat: HSV?

A

Acyclovir

161
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat: HPV?

A

Interferon alpha

162
Q

What does Candida albicana do that distinguishes it from other fungi?

A

It forms a germinal tube at 37°C.

163
Q

Which organism, transmitted by sexual contact, is almost diagnostic by the foul-smelling, green discharge from the vagina and its associated itch?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

164
Q

Which organism is associated with a diffuse bilateral interstitial pneumonia and with HIV-positive patients with CD4 counts of 200 or lower?

A

Pneumocysti.s carinii

165
Q

What three organs can be affected by Trypanoaoma cruzi?

A
  1. Heart 2. Esophagus 3. Colon Remember-you get “megas:” 1. Cardiomegaly 2. Megaesophagus 3. Megacolon
166
Q

What organism causes kala-azar, which is associated with hyperpigmentation of the skin, enlargement of the spleen, and decreased bone marrow activity?

A

Leishmania donovani

167
Q

Which type of malaria is associated with dark urine?

A

Plasmodium falciparum (malignant)

168
Q

What people are “protected” from malaria?

A

People with heterogenous sickle cell trait

169
Q

What type of Plasmodium is banana or crescent shaped when stained with Giemsa stain?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

170
Q

What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?

A

Plasmodium malarize; the others are tertian.

171
Q

What types of Plasmodium produce latent hypnozoites in the liver, which can cause a relapse?

A

Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale

172
Q

What organism is associated with liver abscess, t ulcers, and perforated diaphragms?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

173
Q

What type of Plasmodium affects: Only mature RBCs?

A

Plasmodium malariae

174
Q

What type of Plasmodium affects: Only redculocytes?

A

Plasmodium vivax

175
Q

What type of Plasmodium affects: RBCs of all ages?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

176
Q

What three carcinomas are associated with EBV?

A
  1. Burkitt’s lymphoma 2. Nasopharvngeal 3. Thymic
177
Q

What is the direction of the strand if a virus has infectious +RNA?

A

5’ to 3’ RNA

178
Q

What two viruses do not get their envelope from budding but actually from coding?

A

HIV and poxvirus

179
Q

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion?

A

GP41

180
Q

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?

A

GP120

181
Q

What protein of the HIV virus is used to detect if a patient is HIV-positive by ELISA?

A

P24

182
Q

What two viruses cause progressive multifocal encephalitis?

A
  1. Simian (SV40) virus 2. JC virus
183
Q

With what virus do you see Koplik’s spots and Worthin- Finkeldy cells, and possibly subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?

A

Rubeola (measles)

184
Q

What are known as jumping genes?

A

Transposons

185
Q

What is the most common viral cause of myocarditis?

A

Coxsackie B

186
Q

What virus is associated with heterophil-positive mononucleosis?

A

EBV

187
Q

What is the only virus to be eradicated?

A

Smallpox virus

188
Q

What virus, which creates painful vesicular lesions, is a cause of aseptic meningitis?

A

Herpes simplex II

189
Q

What virus attaches to fibroblastic growth factor?

A

Herpes simplex I

190
Q

What is the most prevalent coral infection in the USA?

A

Varicella-zoster virus

191
Q

What is the only herpes virus to cross the placenta?

A

CMV

192
Q

Of what virus are Guarnieri bodies diagnostic?

A

Smallpox

193
Q

What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear in a heterophil-positive mononucleosis?

A

T cells not the B cells

194
Q

What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?

A

Hepatitis E

195
Q

What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to be infective?

A

Hepatitis Bs antigen as its envelope

196
Q

What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
  1. Hepatitis B 2. Hepatitis C
197
Q

What are the only two viruses where naked dsDNA is NOT infectious?

A
  1. Poxvirus 2. Hepatitis B virus
198
Q

What is the only diploid virus?

A

Retrovirus

199
Q

What types) of immune response is the body capable of making when presented with a live vaccine?

A

Humoral and cell mediated

200
Q

What IIPV is the causative agent of anogenital warts?

A

HPV 6 and 11

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