Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USMLE Buzzwords > 1601-1800 > Flashcards

1601-1800 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What types) of immune response is the body capable of making when presented with a killed vaccine?

A

Humoral only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who are the “typical” women who present with endometrial carcinoma?

A

Older, non-sexually active women (whereas young, sexually active women present with cervical carcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of vaccine is the MMR vaccine?

A

Live, attenuated vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

With what virus is postauricular lymphadenopathy associated?

A

Measles (rubella) virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?

A

The first trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the order of the antibodies, from first to last, in an infected patient with hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis Be, e, s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the first antigen seen in an individual with hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis Bs antigen (incubation period)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What antibody is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis Be antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What antibody is an indication of recurrent disease for hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis Be antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antibodies to what hepatitis B antigen provide immunity?

A

Antibodies to hepatitis Bs antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three C’s of measles?

A
  1. Cough 2. Coryza 3. Conjunctivitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What vector is associated with malaria?

A

Anopheles mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the vector for yellow fever?

A

Aedes mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the only two picornaviruses that do NOT lead to aseptic meningitis?

A
  1. Rhinovirus 2. Hepatitis A virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a prion?

A

No. Prions are infectious proteins; thus, antibiotics are useless.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the only part of the virus that is “detectable” during the eclipse period of the viral growth cycle?

A

The viral nucleic acid .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the only virus to carry its own ribosomes?

A

Arenavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the term for the period from the onset of an infection to the appearance of the virus extracellularly?

A

Latent period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the leading cause of diarrhea in the USA?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What organism would cause a patient to present with constant diarrhea after drinking mountain stream water on a camping trip?

A

Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What parasite can cause vitamin B12 deficiencies?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What viral infection is associated with black vomit?

A

Yellow Fever (flavivirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the two nonspecific chemical defenses of the body?

A

Acidic pH and lysozymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the two nonspecific physical defenses of the body?

A

Skin and mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What immunoglobulin is the first antibody in an immune response?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the major antibody of external secretions?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the major antibody of internal secretions (blood, CSF, lymph)?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the valence of an immunoglobulin molecule equal to?

A

The number of antigens that the antibody can bind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What immunoglobulin is a marker for mature B cells and is the antigen receptor for B cells?

A

IgD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the only IgG that cannot bind to Staphylococcus protein A?

A

IgG3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

By which process do antibodies make microorganisms more easily ingested via phagocytosis?

A

Opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found as a pentamer and activates complement?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is synthesized by epithelial cells, protects IgA from degradation, and transports IgA across epithelial barriers?

A

Secretory component of IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which IgG cannot activate complement?

A

IgG4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What cell surface marker is used to distinguish different stages in the maturation of T cells?

A

CD3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What form of graft involves tissue or organ transplantation between genetically identical twins?

A

Isograft (isogenic graft, syngraft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True or false: antigen. antibody binding is irreversible?

A

False; it is reversible because the antigens and antibodies are not linked covalently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the term for a single isolated antigenic determinant?

A

Hapten (not immunogenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which chromosome is associated with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) genes?

A

Chromosome 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which region of the variable domain comprises the antigen-binding site of the antibody?

A

Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What form of transplantation crosses the species barrier?

A

Xenograft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What subdivision of MHC is found on all nucleated cells?

A

MHC class I (three subtypes: -A,-B,-C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What protein is used to differentiate MHC class I from MHC class II, and on what chromosome is it found?

A

ß2-Microglobulin, on chromosome 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What cell type recognizes MHC class I?

A

Cytotoxic T cell (CD8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the predominant antibody of a secondary immune response in the mucosal route?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What substance is secreted by activated helper T cells to induce T and B cell division?

A

IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of antigen do B cells recognize?

A

Free, unprocessed antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What type of antigen do T cells recognize?

A

Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which protein prevents internal binding of self proteins within an MHC class II cell?

A

Invariant chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In a binding of helper T cells and an antigen-presenting cell (APC), which is the first cell to secrete activating signals?

A

Helper T cells (cytokines to activate the APCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which type of cell is responsible for immunologic memory?

A

Memory B cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What region of the immunoglobulin does not change with class switching?

A

Hypervariable region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of cell does an antigen-stimulated B cell turn into if there is a continuous supply of antigen?

A

Plasma cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What three cells are essential for T cell differentiation in the thymus?

A
  1. Dendritic cells 2. Macrophages 3. Thymic epithelial cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What type of T cell leaves the bone marrow?

A

Pre-T cell (unable to recognize antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What cytokine stimulates stem cell differentiation?

A

IL-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What form of T cell binds to mature B cells?

A

Activated helper T cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What co-stimulatory molecules are necessary for effective T cell and B cell signaling?

A

B7 and CD28 (stimulatory signal for the T cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

At which site of the lymph node are B cells found?

A

The germinal centers (follicles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the two primary lymphoid organs?

A
  1. Bone marrow 2. Thymus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What cytokine, produced by stromal cells of the bone marrow, is important in myeloid development?

A

IL-3 A “ 3” on its side looks like an m for myeloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What immunoglobulins are found in an infant at birth?

A

Maternal IgG and fetal IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What cell surface marker is found on blood B cells?

A

CD19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What cell surface marker do all T cells have?

A

CD3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the major antigen-trapping site in the immune system?

A

The lymph node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What cells are the first to come into contact with soluble antigen in the lymph node?

A

Macrophages or dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In which region of the lymph node do plasma cells spend their lives secreting antibodies?

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What cell surface marker is found on activated helper T cells?

A

CD40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In which region of the lymph node are T cells found?

A

Paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Myeloperoxidase uses H202 and what to generate additional oxidants?

A

Halide cofactor (Cl-, I-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the main cell type of chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What aspect of the complement system is deficient if there are repeated gonococcal infections and recurrent episodes of meningococcal meningitis?

A

C5, 6 ,7, or 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A deficiency in C1 esterase (C1-INH) results in what disease?

A

Hereditary angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What form of immunity kills the host cell in order to recover from intracellular infections?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

With what area of the spleen are the T cells associated?

A

Periarteriolar Lymphatic Sheath (PALS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the three secondary lymphoid tissues?

A
  1. Lymph nodes 2. Spleen 3. Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What type of cell can never leave the lymph node?

A

Plasma cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the B cell-dependent area of the spleen?

A

The marginal zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen?

A

RBCs-that is why it is called red pulp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

At what stage of the immune response do you see an increase in serum specific antibody levels?

A

Log phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What cytokines do APCs secrete to activate helper T cells?

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a

82
Q

What immunoglobulin is responsible for antibody- dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) of parasites, has a high-affinity Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils, and is responsible for the allergic response?

A

IgE

83
Q

What immunoglobulin is responsible for activation of complement, opsonization, and ADCC, and is actively transported across the placenta?

A

IgG

84
Q

What immunoglobulin activates the alternate pathway, neutralizes bacterial endotoxins and viruses, and prevents bacterial adherence?

A

IgA

85
Q

What are defined by antigen-binding specificity?

A

Idiotypes

86
Q

What are the genetic variants of a molecule within members of the same species?

A

Allotypes

87
Q

What are different classes and subclasses of the same gene products known as?

A

Isotypes

88
Q

What are the four phases of immune system defense?

A
  1. Recognition 2. Amplification 3. Regulation 4. Elimination-Rare
89
Q

What is the term for a molecule that will trigger an immune response?

A

Immunogen (It must be foreign and have at least two antigenic determinants.)

90
Q

What MHC class does not participate in immune cell communication by direct contact?

A

MHC class III

91
Q

What types of T cell receptors (TCRs) comprise 95% of all TCRs?

A

Alpha and beta chains

92
Q

Which TCRs are found on the skin and mucosal surfaces?

A

Gamma and delta TCRs

93
Q

What type of graft transplants from one individual to another with a different genetic makeup (within the same species)?

A

Allograft

94
Q

What type of graft transplants from one site to another on the same person?

A

Autograft

95
Q

What is the term for the strength of association between multiple antibody-binding sites and multiple antigenic determinants?

A

Avidity (greater than one binding site)

96
Q

How is IgA found in secretions?

A

As a dimer; it is a monomer in the blood.

97
Q

What is the limited portion of a large antigen that will actually be recognized and bound to an antibody and contains approximately five to six amino acids or four to five hexose units?

A

Antigenic determinant (epitope) (Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)

98
Q

What would be the result if an antibody were cleaved with papain?

A

There would be two Fab and Fc regions.

99
Q

What would be the result if an antibody were cleaved with pepsin?

A

There would be a Fab’ region; thus, it would still be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.

100
Q

What type of binding is involved when there is binding of one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?

A

Affinity

101
Q

What cytokines are secreted by helper T cells to activate the APC?

A

INF-y and IL-4

102
Q

What acts as a target for elimination of abnormal host cells?

A

MHC class I

103
Q

At what stage of an immune response do we see stable levels of antibody in the serum?

A

Plateau phase

104
Q

At what stage of an immune response do we see catabolism without synthesis of antibody, causing a decline in the levels?

A

Antigen processing

105
Q

What stage of the immune response is involved from the time when we are first presented with an antigen to the first time that there are detectable levels of antibody in the serum?

A

Lag phase

106
Q

What response involves elevated levels of antibody and a short lag phase, and requires low levels of antigen to precipitate?

A

Secondary response

107
Q

Whose function is it to present exogenous peptides to helper T cells?

A

MHC class II

108
Q

What process is involved when an antigen is in the endocytic vacuole and there is fusion with lysosomes, which contain proteases that cleave the protein antigens into peptide fragments?

A

Antigen processing

109
Q

Which four helper T cell cytokines are involved in differentiation?

A

I. IL-4 2. IL-5 3. IL-6 4. IL-10

110
Q

Which co-stimulatory molecules are necessary for B cell differentiation (class switching)?

A

CD40 and CD40L (gp39)

111
Q

Which cytokine is chemotactic for neutrophils?

A

IL-8

112
Q

Which nondividing cells synthesize immunoglobulins in great amounts?

A

Plasma cells

113
Q

Which process is involved in rearranging the DNA that encodes for the constant region of the heavy chain?

A

Class switching

114
Q

What are the two functions of the thymus in T cell differentiation?

A
  1. Hormone secretion for T cell differentiation 2. T cell education to recognize self from nonself
115
Q

Which process is involved in rearranging one heavy chain gene to produce a functional gene product, while it shuts off the rearrangement and expression of the other alleles to ensure that one antibody type is made?

A

Allelic exclusion

116
Q

What are the three rules of clonal selection?

A
  1. One cell type 2. One antibody type 3. Random selection of hypervariable regions, and only cells with bound antigen undergo clonal expansion
117
Q

When is the last time that maternal IgG is seen in circulation?

A

Between 9 and 15 months

118
Q

What cytokine, produced by stromal cells of the bone marrow, is important in lymphoid development?

A

IL-7 A “7” upside down looks like an “L” (L for Lymphoid).

119
Q

Which region of the thymus contains the mature T cells?

A

The medulla (They mature in the cortex.)

120
Q

What are the cell surface markers of helper T cells?

A

CD28 and CD4

121
Q

What are the cell surface markers of cytotoxic T cells?

A

CD28 and CD8

122
Q

Which complement fragments cause lysis of cells?

A

C5b-9

123
Q

Which complement fragment is deficient if a patient presents with repeated infections, fever, rash, and arthralgia?

A

C3

124
Q

What three factors cause opsonization?

A

IgG, C3b, and mannose binding protein

125
Q

Which cell surface marker binds to C3d fragments?

A

CD21

126
Q

What disease is associated with an inherited deficiency in NADPH oxidase, in which the individual is likely to develop infections with catalase-positive organisms?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

127
Q

What cells are antigen-specific and have MHC restricted killing?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

128
Q

What large granular lymphocytes have CD16 and CD56 as cell surface markers, do not secrete immunoglobulins, and are not antigen specific?

A

NK cells

129
Q

What three complement fragments are also anaphylatoxins?

A
  1. C3a 2. C4a 3. C5a
130
Q

What pathology is associated with low levels of immunoglobulin that persist in children for up to 2 years?

A

Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of childhood

131
Q

What cell surface marker is found on pre-T cells?

A

Tdt

132
Q

What cell surface marker is required for class switching?

A

CD40

133
Q

What large granular lymphocytes are stimulated by IL-2 and INF-y and are activated by natural killer (NK) cells?

A

Lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) cells

134
Q

Which cells recognize the Fc region of IgG and carry out ADCC?

A

Killer cells

135
Q

What are the four chemotactic agents?

A
  1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides
136
Q

What are the five main oxidizing reactions that are used to kill ingested organisms?

A
  1. H202 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. Myeloperoxidase 5. Hypochlorous acid
137
Q

True or false-it is perfectly normal to have low levels of IgG from 3 to 12 months of age?

A

True; it is called physiologic hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy.

138
Q

What valve of the heart is most commonly affected in IV drug abusers?

A

Tricuspid valve

139
Q

What is the first sign of reversible cellular damage?

A

Ballooning or hydropic changes secondary to mitochondrial injury

140
Q

What is another name for isolated right-sided heartfailure?

A

Cor pulmonale

141
Q

What region of the aorta is affected in syphilitic (luetic) aneurysms?

A

Ascending arch or the root

142
Q

What organism is associated with hyaline membrane formation and cold agglutinins?

A

Mycoplasma

143
Q

What cell type is commonly elevated in asthma?

A

Eosinophils

144
Q

What enzyme level is commonly elevated in sarcoidosis?

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

145
Q

What form of lung cancer is commonly associated with asbestosis?

A

Malignant mesothelioma

146
Q

With what protein-losing enteropathy do you see hypertrophied gastric rugal folds?

A

Menetrier’s syndrome

147
Q

What region of the GI tract does Giardia lamblia most commonly affect?

A

Duodenum

148
Q

What organism is associated with “flask-shaped” ulcers?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

149
Q

What hepatic pathology is associated with ingestion of oral contraceptives?

A

Liver adenoma

150
Q

True or false alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency can lead to cirrhosis of the liver?

A

True; it is most commonly associated with panacinar emphysema of the lower lobes.

151
Q

What organism is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Clonorchis sinensis

152
Q

True or false-polycythemia is associated with renal cell carcinoma?

A

True, because there is an increase in erythropoietin

153
Q

What cancer of the male genitourinary system is associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?

A

Prostatic carcinoma

154
Q

What organism is commonly associated with IUD infections?

A

Actinomyces

155
Q

What female genitourinary pathology is associated with elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and has a “snowstorm” appearance on an ultrasound?

A

Hydatidiform mole

156
Q

What subset of leukemia involves gingival hypertrophy?

A

Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)-M5, also called acute myelogenous leukemia

157
Q

What chemical pathogen is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

A

Arsenic

158
Q

With what form of cancer is diethylstilbestrol (DES) associated?

A

Vaginal clear cell adenoma

159
Q

What form of cancer is most commonly associated with nitrosamines?

A

Gastric cancer

160
Q

What cellular process defines irreversible cellular injury?

A

Vacuolation of the mitochondria

161
Q

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-dSDNA, and smooth muscle antigen (Sm ag) are all used to diagnose what disease?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

162
Q

SS-A(Ro), SS-B(La), and R-ANA are diagnostic markers of what disease?

A

Sjogren’s disease

163
Q

What disease is characterized by decreased bone resorption due to defective osteoclast function?

A

Osteopetrosis (Albers- Schonberg disease)

164
Q

What metaplastic cellular change (from what cell type to what cell type) occurs in Barren’s esophagus?

A

Squamous to columnar cell (adenocarcinoma)

165
Q

Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and anti-SCL-70 antibodies are diagnostic of what disease?

A

Scleroderma

166
Q

What T cell defect is found in Graves’ disease?

A

Defect in antigen-specific suppressor T cells

167
Q

A gastric mucosal erosion caused by extensive burns to the body surface is known as what?

A

Curling’s ulcer (Burns

168
Q

A superficial gastric mucosal erosion causing an excessive secretion of pepsin, due to an increase in intracranial pressure from trauma or surgical injury to the CNS, is known as what?

A

Cushing’s ulcer

169
Q

What two antibodies are used to diagnose Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal antibodies

170
Q

What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson’s disease?

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings

171
Q

What is the triad of Meig’s syndrome?

A
  1. Right-sided hydrothorax 2. Ascites 3. Ovarian fibroma
172
Q

What is the triad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A
  1. Atrophic glossitis 2. Esophageal webs 3. Iron-deficiency anemia
173
Q

In multiple myeloma, what are the immunoglobulin protein droplets within plasma cells called?

A

Russell bodies

174
Q

Obstetric hemorrhage or shock to the anterior pituitary leads to what syndrome?

A

Sheehan’s syndrome (approximately 90% destruction of the pituitary)

175
Q

What is the term for a twisting of a loop of bowel leading to an obstruction?

A

Volvulus

176
Q

In what condition is a strawberry gallbladder seen?

A

Cholesterolosis

177
Q

What is the term for a palpable left supraclavicular lymph node?

A

Virchow’s node (due to metastatic gastric carcinoma)

178
Q

What pathology is associated with Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

Hepatic venous thrombus

179
Q

Cell fragments of hemolysis are known as what?

A

Helmet cells (schistocytes)

180
Q

What is the name given to the red blood cell that contains a peripheral rim of hemoglobin along with a dark central area containing hemoglobin?

A

Target cell

181
Q

What are the three causes of a microvesicular fatty change in the liver?

A
  1. Tetracycline toxicity 2. Reye’s syndrome 3. Fatty liver of pregnancy
182
Q

Abnormal, unstable RNA within a developing RBC is known as what?

A

Basophilic stippling

183
Q

What is the term for an RBC with inorganic iron-containing granules?

A

Siderocyte

184
Q

A patient presenting with dark urine, pale stools, and itchy skin has what form of jaundice?

A

Obstructive (direct) jaundice

185
Q

…

A

With what form of hepatitis do you see elevated levels of AST (SGOT) and GGT liver enzymes?

186
Q

In both alcoholic 2nd viral hepatitis, AST and ALT are elevated. SGOT > SGPT in alcoholic hepatitis, and SGPT > SGOT in viral hepatitis.

A

What region of the liver is affected during shock?

187
Q

Pericentral (necrotic) region

A

What drug can cause amyloidosis and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in the kidney?

188
Q

Heroin

A

What type of metal poisoning causes basophilic stippling?

189
Q

Lead

A

What drug causes a six- fold increase in schizophrenia, can impair motor activity, and can cause lung problems?

190
Q

Marijuana

A

…

191
Q

With what disease do you see dust-containing macrophages within a reticulin mesh?

A

Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis

192
Q

With what two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?

A
  1. Asbestosis 2. Silicosis
193
Q

What is Caplan’s syndrome?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis with silicosis

194
Q

What chemical can be potentially dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?

A

Beryllium

195
Q

What are the three causes of angiosarcoma of the liver?

A
  1. Vinyl chloride 2. Thorium dioxide 3. Arsenic
196
Q

What causes acellular fibrosis in the upper zone of the lung?

A

Silicosis

197
Q

What dye is a major cause of transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder?

A

Naphthalene

198
Q

Interstitial fibrosis of the lower lobe is pathognomonic of what?

A

Asbestosis

199
Q

With what is cherry red intoxication associated?

A

Acute carbon monoxide poisoning

200
Q

With what disease do you see Brushfield’s spots?

A

Down syndrome

USMLE Buzzwords (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions