401-600 Flashcards
1
Q
In females, meiosis is arrested twice - when and at what stages of meiosis?
A
- First, in utero at prophase I, 2. Second, at ovulation in metaphase II
2
Q
What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen-binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?
A
Sertoli cell
3
Q
What must occur for an egg to complete ovulation?
A
It needs to be fertilized by a sperm. If it is not, the egg is released in metaphase II and meiosis is incomplete.
4
Q
What is the chromosome number at the end of meiosis I?
A
23 (2n)-it is the reductive phase of meiosis.
5
Q
What is the major androgen released from the zona reticularis?
A
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
6
Q
What hormone causes an increase in the accumulation of adipose and collagenous tissue of the breast and an increase in the branching of the ducts of the breast?
A
Estrogen
7
Q
What promotes further prolactin and oxytocin release?
A
Suckling
8
Q
What part of the placenta is derived from the mother?
A
Decidua basalis
9
Q
What is the most common site of fertilization?
A
Ampulla of the fallopian tube
10
Q
What is the only cranial nerve that comes off the dorsal surface of the brain stem?
A
CN IV
11
Q
What type of fiber is carried in the dorsal root?
A
Sensory or motor. Sensory only
12
Q
How would a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion present?
A
Hyporeflexia, fasiculations and flaccid paralysis (always ipsilateral)
13
Q
What is the name of the brain stem tract in which the dorsal columns run?
A
Medial lemniscus
14
Q
What is the ability to tell what something is without looking at it and using only your hands?
A
Stereognosis
15
Q
In what tract do pain and temperature fibers run?
A
Spinothalamic tract
16
Q
What gyrus in the cerebral cortex receives information from fibers of the dorsal column tract?
A
Postcentral gyrus
17
Q
What area of the brain is responsible for contralateral gaze?
A
Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)
18
Q
What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the visual system?
A
Lateral geniculate body (LGB)
19
Q
What is the function of the ossicles?
A
They increase the intensity of sound
20
Q
What muscle in the eye is responsible for accommodation?
A
Ciliary muscle
21
Q
What area of the eye has the greatest visual acuity?
A
Fovea (it is made up soley of cones)
22
Q
What cell type in the eye is for color vision?
A
Cones (Cones and color)
23
Q
If there is macula sparing in a visual deficit, where is the lesion?
A
In the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex (optic radiations)
24
Q
…
A
Which way do the eyes drift in a frontal eye field lesion?
25
To the side of the lesion
What is the thalamic relay nucleus that CN V needs to "speak" to in order to pass its information on to the cerebral cortex?
26
Ventroposteromedial (VPM)
Cell bodies of what fibers are found in the mesencephalic nucleus of CN V?
27
Proprioception of the face (CN V) and motor (jaw jerk reflex)
If a patient presented with an LMN lesion in CN V, CN VII, or CN XII, what would you see?
28
Ipsilateral paresis
What is the motor relay nucleus of the thalamus?
29
Ventrolateral (VL) nucleus of thalamus
What is the only cell type to leave the cerebellum?
30
Purkinje (inhibitory) - GABA
If a patient presented with a right-sided cerebellar lesion, which way would the patient fall if he closed his eyes?
31
To the right
What is the function of the superior olivary nucleus?
32
To localize and detemine the nature of sounds (Sound and superior start with S.)
If a patient presents with a left nystagmus, where is the lesion?
33
On the right, because the nvstagmus is named for the fast component, and the fast component is to the unaffected side.
What region of the cerebellum is responsible for the planning of movements?
34
Cerebellar hemisphere
What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the limbic system?
35
Anterior nucleus
What fluid is found in the anterior chamber of the eye?
36
Aqueous humor
What is the dividing line between the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye?
37
The lens
If there is a total anopsia of the left eye, where is the lesion?
38
Optic nerve of the left eye
What is the center for ipsilateral gaze?
39
The paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF)
What fluid of the inner ear has an electrolyte content like that of the extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)?
40
Perilymph
What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory system?
41
MGB
What region of the cerebellum is responsible for balance and eye movement?
42
Flocculonodular lobe
What is the only cell in the cerebellum to have an excitatory neurotransmitter?
43
Granule cell
What does the nystagmus look like if cold water is placed in the right ear?
44
Slow drift to the right, fast drift to the left
COWS
45
Information from the cerebellum leaves via what?
Superior cerebellar peduncle
46
In what portion of the internal capsule are you if you can see the caudate nucleus?
Anterior limb
47
What type of memory is lost in a hippocampal lesion?
Long-term memory
48
In what region of the brain stem does the corticospinal tract cross over?
Medullary decussation
49
From what gyrus of the brain does the corticospinal tract originate?
Precentral gyrus
50
What type of fibers are carried in the ventral rami?
Both sensory and motor (from the spinal nerve on both sensory and motor fibers)
51
What are the hallmark signs of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
1. Hyperreflexia 2. Spastic paralysis 3. Positive Babinski sign
52
What tract carriers fibers for voluntary refined movements of the distal extremities?
Corticospinal tract
53
What is the name of the tract in which the dorsal columns from the lower extremities run?
Fasciculus gracilis (It is medial of the two tracts on a cross-section of the spinal cord; the lateral tract is the fasciculus cuneatus.) Remember: Lower extremities dancing-graceful-gracilis.
54
What is the function of the superior colliculi?
Cell bodies that are to be relayed to the thalamus for sight are found there. (Sight and superior start with S.)
55
In order for sensory information from the dorsal columns and the spinothalamic tract to get to the cerebral cortex, they must use what thalamic relay nucleus?
Ventroposterolateral (VPL)
56
In which region of the spinal cord does the spinothalamic tract cross over?
Ventral white commissure (VWC)
57
Sensory information from the spinothalamic tract sends its information to what region of the cerebral cortex?
Postcentral gyrus
58
In which region of the brain stem do the dorsal columns cross over?
Lower medulla (synapse on nucleus gracilis or cuneatus)
59
What tract carries conscious proprioception,fine touch, two-point discrimination, and vibratory sense?
Dorsal column tract (all senses except pain and temperature)
60
What tract of the spinal cord carries dorsal column information from the upper extremities?
Fasciculus cuneatus
61
If the right side of the corticobulbar tract to the muscles of facial expression were damaged, where would the deficit be seen?
In the contralateral lower face (left)
62
If the corticobulbar tract for CN V and CN XII were cut on the right side, where would the lesion be?
There would be no deficit, because the corticobulbar tract receives bilateral input.
63
What type of fibers are carried in the ventral root?
Motor only
64
What peduncle(s) carry information into the cerebellum?
Inferior and middle cerebellar peduncles
65
Cell bodies of what fibers are found in the trigeminal ganglion?
Touch, pain, and temperature
66
When the head moves, what causes the eyes to move in the opposite direction?
Vestibular system
67
Unconscious proprioception, body sense, and motor execution are functions of what part of the cerebellum?
Vermis and intermediate lobe
68
What three structures contain perilymph?
1. Scala tympani 2. Scala vestibuli 3. Semicircular canals
69
The gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head are located in what part of the inner ear?
Saccule and utricle
70
What cells are for black and white vision (night vision)?
Rods
71
What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?
Vitreous humor
72
What type of fluid in the inner ear has the consistency of intracellular fluid (ICF)?
Endolymph (high levels of K+)
73
Name three lesions that can cause left homonymous hemianopsia?
1. Lesion of the right optic tract 2. Lesion of the lateral geniculate body (LGB) 3. Lesion of the optic radiation
74
What lesion produces a tremor upon movement?
A cerebellar lesion
75
What part of the inner ear is sensitive to angular acceleration and deceleration?
Semicircular canals
76
What is the normal volume of CSF?
Approximately 140 ml
77
What muscle of the eye is under parasympathetic control?
Sphincter pupillae (part of iris)
78
What cranial nerve receives sensory information from the cornea?
CN VI (ophthalmic division)
79
What artery supplies blood to the trunk and the lower extremities on a homunculus map of the cerebral cortex?
Anterior cerebral artery
80
What structures of the inner ear contain endolymph?
1. Scala media 2. Semicircular ducts 3. Saccule Utricle
81
With what type of lesions do you see tremors at rest?
Lesions of the basal ganglia
82
What muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?
Dilator pupillae (part of the iris)
83
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right nasal hemianopsia?
Right internal carotid artery compression on the optic chiasm
84
What part of the inner ear functions in head movement?
Semicircular ducts
85
What part of the internal capsule are you in if you see the thalamus?
Posterior limb of the internal capsule
86
What region of the basal ganglia is affected in Parkinson's disease?
Substantia nigra (degeneration)
87
Hemorrhagic destruction of the contralateral subthalamic nuclei results in what disorder?
Herniballismus (wild flailing movements)
88
Slow writhing movements (athetosis) are caused by what?
Hypermyelinization of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
89
Atrophy of the striatum of the basal ganglia results in what?
Chorea (involuntary quick movements)
90
What tracts are found in the genu of the internal capsule?
Corticobulbar tracts
91
What tracts are found in the posterior limb of the IC?
Corticospinal Spinothalamic Dorsal column Thalamocortical
92
What tracts are found in the anterior limb of the IC?
Thalamocortical tracts
93
If warm water is placed in the right ear, what does the nystagmus look like?
Slow drift to the left and fast drift to the right (COWS
94
What lesion causes a bitemporal hemianopsia?
Optic chiasm lesion
95
What area of the brain is known as the motor speech area?
Broca's area
96
What does Meyer's loop lesion cause?
Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantopia
97
Blood supply to the head/neck area and the upper limb on a homunculus map in the cerebral cortex comes from what artery?
Middle cerebral artery
98
What area of the brain is known for language comprehension?
Wernicke's area
99
Where is the lesion if the patient presents with a right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?
Left upper loop lesion
100
What region of the cerebellum is affected if a patient has dystaxia of the legs and trunk during walking?
Anterior vermis (It is most commonly caused by chronic alcohol abuse.)
101
Where is the lesion in a patient who presents with a broad-based gait, hypotonia, intention tremors, nystagmus, and ataxia?
Cerebellum
102
What are the functions of the external auditory meatus?
Sound collection and protection of the tympanic membrane
103
What is the function of the inferior colliculi?
To receive bilateral auditory input and arrange the input tonotopically
104
If a patient presents with nystagmus, dystaxia, and hypotonia of the ipsilateral limbs, what area of the cerebellum is affected?
Hemisphere
105
What lesion of the cerebellum is usually caused by an ependymoma or medulloblastoma, resulting in dystaxia of the trunk with an inability to maintain an upright posture?
Posterior vermis lesion
106
What spinal cord injury results in flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy?
Polio (bilateral ventral horn lesion)
107
What spinal cord lesion results in a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion at the level of the lesion and an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion below the level of the lesion?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)-Lou Gehrig's disease
108
What arterial occlusion would result in a loss of all tracts in the spinal cord except the dorsal columns?
Anterior spinal artery occlusion (posterior spinal artery supplies the dorsal columns)
109
What spinal cord lesion results in a bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the lesion?
Syringomyelia (VWC lesion)
110
What spinal cord lesion causes a bilateral dorsal column loss below the level of the lesion?
Tabes dorsalis (neurosyphilis)
111
What disease is associated with demyelination of the dorsal column, spinocerebellar tract, and corticospinal tract?
Subacute combined degeneration
112
What arterial occlusion results in contralateral spastic hemiparesis, contralateral spastic lower face, and ipsilateral oculomotor palsy (dilated, ptosis, eye down and out)?
Posterior cerebral artery occlusion (ventral midbrain syndrome)
113
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral spastic hemiparesis of the body?
Vertebral artery-pyramid
114
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral loss of position and vibration?
Vertebral artery-medial lemniscus
115
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral paralysis of the tongue?
Vertebral artery-CN XII
116
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral limb ataxia?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-inferior cerebellar peduncle
117
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral pain and temperature loss of the face?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-spinal nucleus of CN V
118
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Contralateral pain and temperature of the body?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- spinotbalamic tract
119
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Nystagmus away from the lesion?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- vestibular nuclei
120
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- descending autonomics
121
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Ipsilateral facial paralysis?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN Vll
122
What arterial occlusion results in the following syndromes (Name artery and specific region.): Deafness?
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN VIll
123
What is the name for the most prominent spinous process in the spine?
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%)
124
What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?
Nucleus pulposus
125
What three muscles comprise the erector spinae?
1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis
126
What are the names given to the first and second cervical vertebrae?
C1-atlas C2-axis
127
To what vertebral level does the spinal cord extend?
LI to L2
128
What is the name of the extension of the dura mater that attaches at the level of S2?
External filum terminale
129
How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?
31 pairs
130
What is the name of the region where the manubrium and the body of the sternum articulate?
Sternal angle of Louis
131
What muscle originates from the third to the fifth ribs and inserts into the coracoid process?
Pectoralis minor
132
Damage to what nerve will give you "winged scapula'."?
Long thoracic nerve To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: Long has an "n" for nerve; lateral 3 & has an "a" for artery.
133
The ventral rami of what regions of the spinal cord make up the brachial plexus?
C5-TI
134
What bone houses the ulnar groove?
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)
135
What muscle initiates Abduction of the arm?
Supraspinakis
136
What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?
Deltoid
137
What nerve is damaged if a patient presents with "wrist drop"?
Radial nerve
138
What forms the anatomic snuff box?
Extensor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis
139
What vein, in the antecubital fossa, forms the communica- tion between the basilic vein and the cephalic vein?
Median cubital vein (most common site for venipuncture)
140
What two muscles are inner- vated by the axillary nerve?
Deltoid and teres minor
141
What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Median nerve
142
In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
143
Foot drop is caused by a compromise in what nerve?
Common peroneal nerve
144
What nerve is damaged if the patient cannot ADduct the thigh?
Obturator nerve (nerve to the medial compartment of the thigh)
145
What is the longest muscle of the body?
Sartorius
146
What two nerves innervate the pectineus muscle?
Femoral and obturator nerves
147
What superficial vein empties into the popliteal fossa?
Short saphenous vein
148
What is the artery of the anterior compartment of the leg?
Anterior tibia] artery
149
What nerve supplies the lateral compartment of the leg?
Superficial peroneal nerve
150
What sensory nerve are you testing when you touch the first web space of the toes?
Deep peroneal nerve
151
The peroneal artery is a branch of what artery?
Posterior tibial
152
Inflammation of the pre- patellar bursa is often referred to as what?
Housemaid's knee
153
What is the prominent "bump" on the lateral aspect of the knee?
Head of the fibula
154
How many ribs articulate with the sternum?
Seven (Ribs 8, 9, and 10 articulate with the costal cartilage of rib 7.)
155
What is the part of the lung that extends above the level of the first rib?
The cupula
156
What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ?
Visceral pleura
157
How many lobes does the right lung have?
Three
158
How are they separated?
By the oblique and the transverse fissures
159
Into what chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins empty?
Left atrium (Remember-the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.)
160
What is the only valve in the heart that has two cusps?
Mitral (bicuspid) valve
161
What vein travels with the right coronary artery?
Small cardiac vein
162
At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?
T4-T5 (It is known as the carina.)
163
What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart?
Chordae tendineae
164
Around what thoracic structure does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve loop before ascending into the larynx?
Right subclavian artery
165
At what vertebral level does the esophagus originate?
C6
166
At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate into the common iliac arteries?
L4-L5
167
The obturator artery is a branch of what major artery?
Internal iliac artery
168
What is the first branch off the abdominal artery?
Inferior phrenic artery
169
Into what vessel does the right gonadal vein drain?
The inferior vena cava
170
Into what vessel does the left gonadal vein drain?
The left renal vein
171
At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?
C4
172
At what vertebral level is the hyoid bone found?
C3
173
The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel?
Internal carotid artery
174
What forms the portal vein?
The union of the superior mesenteric and the splenic veins
175
Where does the inferior mesenteric vein drain?
The splenic vein
176
What vein is formed by the union of the right and left brachiocephalic veins?
Superior vena cava
177
What is the only muscle in the larynx that is not inner- vated by the recurrent laryn- geal nerve?
Cricothyroid (It's innervated by the external laryngeal nerve.)
178
The folds of the mucosa of the stomach are known as what?
Rugae
179
What is the artery of the embryonic foregut?
Celiac artery
180
What comprises the portal triad?
1. Common bile duct 2. Hepatic artery 3. Portal vein
181
What structures differentiate the anatomic right and left lobes of the liver?
Ligamentum teres and ligamentum venosum
182
What structure "runs" along the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae?
Ureters
183
To enter into the lesser peri-toneal sac, you must traverse through what foramen?
Foramen of Winslow
184
What is another name for the rectouterine pouch?
Pouch of Douglas
185
What bones comprise the acetabulum?
Pubis, ilium, and ischium
186
What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum?
Bound and ovarian ligaments
187
What muscles comprise the deep perineal space (the urogenital diaphragm)?
Deep transverse perineal and sphincter urethrae
188
What three ligaments com- prise the broad ligament of the uterus?
1. Mesosalpinx 2. Mesovarium 3. Mesometrium
189
What structure traverses the diaphragm at the level of T8?
IVC
190
What are the components of the pudendal canal?
Pudendal nerve and internal pudendal artery and vein
191
What range of movements can be performed at the metacarpal/phalangealjoint?
Flexion/extension, ABduction, and ADduction
192
A fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus will most likely damage what nerve?
Axillary nerve
193
What compartment of the lower extremity allows flexion of the hip and extension of the knee?
Anterior compartment of the thigh
194
What nerve roots comprise the lumbosacral plexus?
L4 to S4
195
What is the function of gray rami communicans?
They are postganglionic sympathetic axons.
196
What compartment of the lower extremities allows ADduction of the thigh and flexion of the hip?
Medial compartment of the thigh
197
What are the only splanchnics in the body that carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
Pelvic splanchnics (P begins preganglionic, parasympathetic, and pelvic.)
198
What postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion is associated with CN III?
Ciliary ganglion
199
What is the name of the ganglion that houses the cell bodies for the postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head and neck?
Superior cervical ganglion
200
What two muscles do you test to see if CN XI is intact?
Trapezius and sternocleidoinastoid
