201-400 Flashcards
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Acetaminophen?
N-Acetylcysteine
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Nitrates?
Methylene blue
What is the antidote for an overdose with: Lead?
EDTA (calcium disodium edetate), dimercaprol, succimer
What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?
The mouth
What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of mesodermal origin?
Spleen
In which direction and how far does the gut rotate?
Counterclockwise 270 degrees
What structure connects the primitive gut to the yolk sac?
The yolk stalk (vitelline duct)
What is the artery of the embryonic foregut?
The celiac artery
When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo?
6 weeks
When does it return back into the embryo?
10 weeks
What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not return to the embryo?
Omphalocele and gastroschisis
Around what structure does the midgut rotate?
Superior mesenteric artery
What three things cause the indifferent gonad to become a testis?
1.Testis-determining factor (TDF) from the short arm of the Y chromosome 2.Miillerian inhibiting factor (MIF) from Sertoli cells 3.Testosterone from Leydig cells
Where does the embryologic foregutend?
At the first part of the duodenum
What is the artery of the embryonic hindgut?
The inferior mesenteric artery
What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?
- Cytotrophoblast 2. Symcytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembrvonic mesoderm
Which neuropore closes last?
Caudal-and it is the first to open, too.
What is the artery of the embryonic midgut?
The superior mesenteric artery
From where are nephrons derived embryonically?
Metanephros
What are the five derivatives of the ventral mesentery?
- Falciform ligament 2. Hepatoduodenal ligament 3. Hepatogastric ligament 4 and 5. Coronary and triangular ligaments of the liver. All else is derived from the dorsal mesentery.
When do the septum primum and the septum secundum of the heart fuse?
After birth
The cerebral cortex is a derivative of what?
The telencephalon
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Umbilical vein?
Ligamentum teres
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Ductus venosus?
Ligamentum venosum
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Foramen ovule?
Fossa ovule
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Ductus arteriosus?
Ligamentum arteriosum
What is the adult structure found in the embryo as the: Umbilical artery?
Medial umbilical ligament
Where does the hindgut end?
At the superior portion of the anal canal
Where does the midgut end?
At the right two thirds of the transverse colon
From where is the tongue musculature derived?
Occipital somites
What two branchial arches contribute to the formation of the anterior two thirds of the tongue?
First and some of the second
What are the two fourth pharyngeal pouch derivatives?
Superior parathyroid glands and the ultimobranchial body
What two structures are derived from the fourth aortic arch?
Arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery
What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?
Muscles of the internal eye
What structure is derived from the first pharyngeal pouch?
The middle ear
What two branchial arches contribute to the posterior two thirds of the tongue?
Third and part of the fourth
What are the two third pharyngeal pouch derivatives?
Inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus
What structure is derived from the first aortic arch?
Maxillary artery
From what are the urinary bladder and the urethra derived?
Urogenital sinus
From what are the pulmonary trunk and the ascending aorta derived?
Truncus arteriosum
What disorder will result when there is a failure of the urachus to close, causing a leakage of urine out of the umbilicus?
Urachal fistula
The common carotid and the internal carotid arteries are derivatives of what embryonic structure?
Third aortic arch
The palatine tonsils are derived from what embryonic structure?
Second pharyngeal pouch
What are the sixth aortic arch derivatives?
Right and left pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus
The stapedial artery is derived from what?
Second aortic arch
The mesonephric ducts contribute to what renal structures?
The collecting ducts, calyx, renal pelvis, and ureters
Of what embryonic structureis the coronary sinus a derivative?
The left horn of the sinus venosus
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: First pharyngeal arch?
CN V
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Second pharyngeal arch?
CN VII
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Third pharyngeal arch?
CN IX
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fourth pharyngeal arch?
CN X
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Fifth pharyngeal arch?
None-it degenerates
What cranial nerve (CN) is associated with the: Sixth pharyngeal arch?
CN X
From where is the external auditory meatus derived?
First pharyngeal groove
From where is the smooth portion of the right atrium derived?
Right horn of the sinus venosus
Meckel’s diverticulum is a remnant of what embryonic structure?
Vitelline duct (yolk stalk)
The pons and cerebellum are derived from what portion of the embryonic neural tissue?
Metencephalon
The medulla is a derivative of what portion of the embryonic neural tissue?
Myelencephalon
What structure “tells” the overlying cells to begin neurulation?
The notochord
What structure splits the cloacal membrane, resulting in the formation of the perineum?
Urorectal septum
In the adult, the thoracic veins are derived from what structure?
The cardinal veins
The gastrointestinal tract and abdominal veins are derived from what structure?
Vitelline veins
From what is the thyroid gland derived?
The floor of the endoderm (the posterior aspect of the tongue)
The thalamus and its related structures are derivatives of what?
The diencephalon
Transcriptionally active DNA is known as what?
Euchromatin
Transcriptionally inactive DNA is called?
Heterochromatin
What is the only histone not found inside the nucleosomes?
H1 histone-Its function is to bind nucleosomes together.
What coating protects proteins from intracellular degradation?
Clathrin coating
A nucleosome is made up of what two components?
Histories and DNA
What are the four functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?
- Steroid synthesis 2. Drug detoxification 3. Ca2+ handling 4. TAG resynthesis
What are the long microvilli found in the inner ear and the male reproductive tract called?
Stereocilia
What cell junction type allows for communication between two adjacent cells?
Gap junctions (nexus)
Where are the enzymes for ATP production and the ETC located?
Inner fold of the mitochondria membrane
What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure?
Microvillus
What is the function of desmosomes?
To hold adjacent cells together (i.e., adhesion)
What is the microtubule configuration of a basal body?
9 + 0 microtubule arrangement
What are the four components of the basement membrane?
- Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen
The proteins that are to stay within the cell are produced by what organelle?
Free polysome (polyribosome)
What is the lysosomal post- translational modification of proteins?
Phosphorylation of mannose residues
What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configur- ation and movement as its function?
Cilia
What protein binds hemidesmosomes to the basal lamina?
Integrin
What intermediate filament is found in the zona adherens?
Actin
The proteins to be exported or incorporated into the lysosome are produced by what organelle?
Bound polysome (polyribosome), attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
What is the function of the zonula occludens and the zonula adherens?
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Desmin?
Muscle cells
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Cytokeratins?
Epithelial cells
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Vimentin?
Mesenchymal cells
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Neurofilaments?
Neurons
The following intermediate filaments are associated with what cell types: Glial filaments?
Astrocytes
The basal lamina + the reticular lamina
what?
What is the name of the organelle where collagen is made?
Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
What vitamin is needed for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis?
Vitamin C - Survy
What are the two amino acids that cross-link elastin molecules?
Desmosine and isodesmosine
What is the major inorganic component of bone?
Hydroxyapatite
What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Osteoclasts
What are the two types of cells located in the perichondrium of cartilage?
Fibroblasts and chondroblasts
What cell in the CNS is part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Microglia
What substance, found in eosinophils, is toxic to parasitic worms?
Major basic protein
Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?
Extracellularly
What cell surface extension allows osteocytes in the lacunaeto “talk” to each other?
Canaliculi
What cell type produces myelin in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes
In which ventricles is/are choroid plexus found?
All four ventricles
What muscle type has calmodulin?
Smooth muscle
What element is needed for the proper alignment of the tropocollagen molecules?
Copper (Cu+)
What is added to the procollagen molecules to prevent intracellular precipitation?
Registration peptides
In what tissue can you find intercalated disks?
Cardiac muscle
What are intercalated disks?
Dense bands containing intercellular junctions that link adjacent cells mechanically and electrically
Of what are intercalated disks composed?
Fascia adherens (mainly) Desmosomes Gap junctions
What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone?
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
What is the only glycosamino- glycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core portion)
What is the portion of an axon that lacks myelin and is rich in Na+/K+ pumps?
Node of Ranvier
What type of CNS cells have cilia, line the ventricles, and contribute to the blood-brain barrier?
Ependymal cells
What are the largest glial cells in the CNS (Hint: They contribute to the blood- brain barrier.)?
Astrocytes
Myelin is produced by what type of PNS cells?
Schwann cells
What is the dominant cell type in the lacunae of cartilage?
Chondrocytes
What structure runs perpendicular to the Haversian canals in the bone?
Volkmann’s canal
What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier?
- Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries
What types of muscle have troponin?
Skeletal and cardiac
What type of muscle is uninuclear and nonstriated?
Smooth muscle - it lacks T tubules and has gap junctions
On what area of the spleen are the APCs located?
Marginal zone
What is the dominant cell type in the red pulp of the spleen?
Red blood cells
On what area of the lymph node can you locate plasma cells?
Medulla
What is the name of the area in the thymus where T cells are produced?
Hassall’s corpuscle
What type of muscle is striated and multinuclear?
Skeletal muscle- it of T tubules and SR at the A-I junction
In what region of the spleen are the germinal centers located?
White pulp-where B cell differentiation takes place
What layer of the skin is missing in thin skin?
Stratum lucidum
What are the phagocytic cells of the GI tract called?
Paneth cells (Paneth’s granular cells)
Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the GI tract?
IgA
In what area of the spleen are the T cells located?
Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)
In what area of the lymph node are the T cells and the APCs located?
Paracortical (thymic-dependent) area
What type of muscle is striated, branched, and uninuclear?
Cardiac muscle-dyadic T tubules with SR at the Z line
What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not?
An internal elastic lamina
What two layers of skin makeup the malphighian layer?
Stratum basalis and spinosus (mitotic area)
What type of skin cells have the mature melanin granules?
Keratinocytes. Melanocytes inject melanosomes into the keratinocytes and mature there.
What type of skin cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Langerhans’ cells
What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act as mechano- receptors?
Merkel’s cells (Merkel’s tactile cells)
What layer of the epidermis acts as a sealant to protect against desiccation?
Stratum granulosum
What layer of the skin is composed of non-nucleated cells full of keratin?
Stratum corneum
What are the antigen- presenting cells in the Peyer’s patches of the GI known as?
M cells
What are the three “tunica” layers of a blood vessel wall?
- Tunica intima 2. Tunica media 3. Tunica adventitia
Within what layer of the heart are the nerves and conducting fibers located?
Subendocardial space
Which organs have fenestrated capillaries with diaphragms?
Kidney, Intestines, Endocrine organs
What secondary lymphoid tissue is encapsulated and has germinal centers?
Peyer’s patches
What organs have sinusoid capillaries (leakiest type)?
Liver, Bone marrow, Spleen
What type of vessel has a thick tunica media?
Arteries. Veins have a thick tunica adventitia.
Is the spleen a capsulated organ with trabeculae?
Yes-although it does not have cortical or medullary regions
What secondary lymphoid organ is found just below the stratified squamous epithel- ium and is partially capsulated?
Tonsils
What type of capillary lacks fenestrations and has pinocytotic vesicles?
Continuous capillary
What region of the body has fenestrated capillaries without diaphragms?
Kidney glomeruli
Does the thymus have germinal centers?
No. Germinal centers are associated with B cells.
What cell of the liver is part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Kupffer cells
What papillae are respons- ible for sweet taste?
Circumvalate papillae
What are the three epi- dermal derivatives?
- Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII?
Fungiform papillae
What is the area of mitotic activity in the GI tract?
The crypts of Lieberkuhn
What cells of the GI tract secrete HCl and intrinsic factor?
Parietal cells of the stomach
What type of sweat gland is under cholinergic stimulation?
Eccrine gland
What gland produces a serous secretion that is approximately 20% of the total saliva produced?
Parotid gland
What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
Filiform papillae
Secretin and CCK are produced in what portion of the GI tract?
Small intestine
What cells of the stomach secrete pepsinogen?
Chief cells
What cell type produces dentin of the teeth?
Odontoblasts (neural crest)
What cell type produces enamel of the teeth?
Ameloblasts (ectoderm)
What gland produces 70% of the total salivary secretions and is a mixture of serous (predominantly) and mucous alveoli and secretory units?
Submandibular gland
What type of cells of the respiratory system secrete surfactant?
Type II pneumocytes
What zone of the liver is the first to be affected in times of hypoxia?
Central region (around the central vein)
In what region of the respiratory system do you first see Clara cells?
Terminal bronchioles
What substance does the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?
Renin
In what region of the liver is fat stored?
Space of Disse -Ito cells and Vit A also
In what region of the GI tract does exfoliation take place?
At the tip of the villi
What are the mucus secreting cells in the respiratory tract above the level of the terminal bronchioles?
Goblet cells
What cells of the distal convoluted tubule are sensitive to the low ion content of the urine?
Macula densa
What cells comprise 95% of the alveolar surface and are responsible for gas exchange?
Type I pneumocytes
What are the two hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland via the para- ventricular supranuclei?
ADH and oxytocin
What area of the nephron is impermeable to water?
Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
What region of the kidney is affected by ADH?
Collecting duct for water reabsorption- but the DCT is also affected by ADH
What portion of the kidney actively pumps Cl- out of the tubule?
Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
What region of the kidney has a countercurrent multi- plier producing a gradient of hypertonicity in the tubule lumen?
Loop of Henle
What region of the liver is first affected in toxic doses of drugs?
Peripheral zone (because extraction of substances occurs there first)
What are the two acidophilic hormones secreted by the adenohypophysis?
GH and prolactin “(,Pp;~
In what region of the kidney does the greatest extraction of nutrients occur?
Proximal convoluted tubule (-66% of nutrient extraction occurs here)
What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?
Parafollicular C cells (new4 ash,
What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
What cells secrete glucagon?
Alpha cells of the islet of Langerhans
What hormone inhibits glucagon release and pancreatic exocrine secretions?
Somatostatin
What hormone causes milk letdown?
Oxytocin
Low levels of what hormone stimulates the uterus to go into its proliferative stage?
Estrogen
What cells of the genito- urinary system secrete testosterone?
Leydig cells (stimulated by LH)
What is the mucus-secreting gland in the male reproductive system?
Bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s glands)
Elevated levels of what hormone cause the endometrium to enter the secretory phase of the female cycle?
Progesterone
What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
Chief cells
What hormone produced during the night causes a decrease in gonadal function?
Melatonin
Where is melatonin produced?
Pineal gland
What are the four basophilic hormones released from the adenohypophysis?
- Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) 2. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3. Luteinizing hormone (LH) 4. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
What cells form the blood-testis barrier?
Sertoli’s cells
What is the chromosome number of-G1?
46 (2n)
What is the chromosome number of-S phase?
46 (4n)
What is the chromosome number of-G2?
46 (4n)
What is the chromosome number of-Mitosis?
46 (4n) to 46 (2n)
What is the chromosome number of a primary spermatocyte?
46 (4n)
