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601-800 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit?

A

Motor aspect

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2
Q

Toward what side would the uvula point if the right CN X were damaged?

A

The left (points to the unaffected side)

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3
Q

What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits?

A

Urinary trigone

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4
Q

What is the only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?

A

Adrenal rnedulla

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5
Q

The pudendal canal is formed by splitting the fascia of what muscle?

A

Obturator internus

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6
Q

What is the name of the duct formed by the union of the vas deferens and the duct of the seminal vesicle?

A

Ejaculatory duct

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7
Q

What are the fingerlike projections at the end of the fallopian (uterine) tubes?

A

Fimbriae

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8
Q

Where is the seminal vesicle located?

A

On the posterior aspect of the urinary bladder

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9
Q

What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?

A

Subclavian vein

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10
Q

What muscle divides the anterior from the posterior triangles of the neck?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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11
Q

Where does the parotid (Stenson’s) duct enter the oral cavity?

A

Opposite the second upper molar tooth

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12
Q

What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?

A

Resorb CSF into the blood

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13
Q

What muscle is the most superiorly situated muscle in the orbit?

A

Levator palpebrae superioris

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14
Q

What is the triad of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Miosis, ptosis, and anhydrosis

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15
Q

What bone of the middle ear articulates with the tympanic membrane?

A

Malleus

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16
Q

What chamber of the eye is located between the iris and the lens?

A

Posterior chamber

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17
Q

What bone houses the ear?

A

Temporal bone

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18
Q

What is the only muscle of the tongue not innervated by the hypoglossal nerve?

A

Palatoglossus

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19
Q

Where does the nasolacrimal duct terminate?

A

Inferior meatus of the nasal cavity

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20
Q

What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?

A

Thyroid gland

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21
Q

What two regions of the vertebral column are con- sidered primary curvatures?

A

Thoracic and sacral

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22
Q

What are the only muscles in the body innervated by dorsal rami?

A

Intrinsic (deep) muscles of the back (All other muscles are innervated by ventral rami.)

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23
Q

What is the portion of the second cervical vertebra that projects superiorly to act as the body for C1?

A

Odontoid (dens) process

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24
Q

What is the actual space that contains CSF?

A

Subarachnoid space

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25
Q

What is the protective covering that is adherent to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?

A

Pia mater

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26
Q

What is the name of the spinal cord that passes within the subarachnoid space that forms the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?

A

Cauda equina

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27
Q

What are the names ligaments that would pierced, in order, by a lumbar puncture?

A
  1. Supraspinous ligament 2. Interspinous ligament 3. Ligamentum flavum
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28
Q

What is the inferiormost segment of the sternum?

A

Xiphoid process

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29
Q

True or false-the pectoralis major medially rotates the arm?

A

True; it also ADducts and flexes the arm.

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30
Q

What are the borders of the axillary artery?

A

Lateral border of the first rib to the inferior border of the teres major

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31
Q

What vessels arise from the three segments of the axillary artery?

A
  1. Superior thoracic artery 2. Lateral thoracic artery and thoracoacromial trunk 3. Subscapular artery, and the anterior and posterior humeral circumflex
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32
Q

What muscle is the main lateral rotator of the arm?

A

Infraspinatus muscle

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33
Q

What innervates the flexor compartment of the arm?

A

Musculocutaneus nerve

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34
Q

What nerve is most commonly affected when there is a fracture of the midshaft of the humerus?

A

Radial nerve C deer “(Int4.1 a .

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35
Q

What vein courses along the medial aspect of the forearm?

A

Basilic vein

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36
Q

What is the blood vessel in the upper extremity most commonly palpated while taking a pulse?

A

Radial artery

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37
Q

What is the nerve supply to the forearm?

A

Median nerve (except for the flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digiti profundus muscles of the pinkie and ring finger, which are supplied by the ulnar)

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38
Q

What are the “LOAF” muscles of the hand?

A

LOAF stands for the muscles of the hand innervated by the median nerve: Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, and Flexor pollicis brevis; All other intrinsic muscles in the hand are innervated by the ulnar nerve

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39
Q

What muscles in the hand ADduct the fingers?

A

The palmer interosseus adducts, whereas the dorsal interosseus abducts (PAD and DAB)

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40
Q

In order to pronate the hand, what bones need to cross?

A

Radius crosses over the ulna

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41
Q

At what point does the femoral artery become the popliteal artery?

A

When it traverses the adductor hiatus

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42
Q

Loss of ABduction of the lower limbs results in Trendelenburg gait; what nerve is compromised to cause this?

A

Superior gluteal nerve

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43
Q

What two arteries join together to form the super- ficial and deep palmar arches of the hand?

A

Uhiar and radial arteries (ulnar is the main supplier)

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44
Q

What muscle “fills” the greater sciatic foramen?

A

Piriformis

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45
Q

What nerve is affected when a patient has difficulty rising from a sitting position?

A

Inferior gluteal nerve (nerve to the gluteus maximus)

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46
Q

Why are IM injections in the gluteal mass given in the upper outer quadrant?

A

To avoid damage to the sciatic nerve

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47
Q

What two nerves innervate the adductor magnus?

A

Obturator and tibial nerves

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48
Q

What two nerves innervate the biceps femoris?

A

Common peroneal and tibial nerves

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49
Q

Going from lateral to medial, what structures pass deep to the inguinal ligament?

A

NAVEL-Nerve, Arterv, Vein, Empty space, and Lacunar ligament or Lymphatics

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50
Q

What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?

A

Anterior tibial artery

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51
Q

What is the nerve for the anterior compartment of the leg?

A

Deep peroneal nerve

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52
Q

What is the artery for the posterior compartment of the leg?

A

Posterior tibial arterv

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53
Q

Where is the “magical plane” that divides the superior from the inferior media- stinum?

A

A horizontal line from T4-T5 to the sternal angle of Louis

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54
Q

What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?

A

Hemiazygous vein

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55
Q

If you were to do a pleural tap, what region of the intercostal space would your needle enter?

A

The superior border of the rib

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56
Q

Why?

A

Because the neurovascular bundle is located on the inner surface of the inferior border of the rib

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57
Q

What muscles of the foot are supplied by the medial plantar nerve (Hint: Think about the median nerve distribution in the hand.)?

A

LAFF-Lumbricalis (1st), Abductor hallucis, Flexor 3X hallucis brevis, Flexor digitorum brevis. All other intrinsic muscles in the foot are supplied by the lateral plantar nerve.

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58
Q

What remnant of the middle lobe of the lung is found on the left side?

A

The lingula

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59
Q

The ventral rami of what cervical vertebrae innervate diaphragm?

A

C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!

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60
Q

At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery divides into what two arteries?

A

Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries

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61
Q

What portion of the peri- cardium is adherent to the tunica adventitia of the great vessels?

A

Fibrous pericardium

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62
Q

The left anterior descending artery of the heart travels with what vein?

A

Great cardiac vein

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63
Q

What is the largest muscle in the body?

A

Gluteus maximus

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64
Q

The middle cardiac vein of the heart travels with what artery?

A

Posterior intraventricular artery

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65
Q

What is the ratio of the myocardial thickness of the atria: right ventricle: left ventricle?

A

01:03:09

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66
Q

What chamber of the heart comprises the: Sternal surface?

A

Right ventricle

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67
Q

Diaphragmatic surface?

A

Right ventricle and left ventricle

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68
Q

Left margin?

A

Left ventricle and left atrium

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69
Q

Right margin?

A

Right atria

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70
Q

Base?

A

Left atria

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71
Q

What structure does the left recurrent laryngeal nerve loop around before it ascends into the larynx?

A

The arch of the aorta

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72
Q

At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?

A

When it crosses the teres major

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73
Q

What is the anatomic posi- tioning of the right and left gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass through the diaphragm?

A

LARP-Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut -Remember your embryology!)

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74
Q

What muscles comprise the rotator cuff?

A

SITS-Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, & Supraspinatus

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75
Q

What are the five branches off the median cord of the brachial plexus?

A

Four Ms and a U- 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 3X 5. Ulnar

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76
Q

What are the five branches off the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

A

STARS- 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary ; & 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis

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77
Q

What are the three branches off the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?

A
  1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus
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78
Q

What are the four branches off the brachial plexus that arise prior to the first rib?

A
  1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius
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79
Q

What nerve innervates the extensor compartment of the arm?

A

Radial nerve (It also innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.)

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80
Q

What muscles insert in/on the intertubercular groove of the humerus?

A

Lady between two Majors- latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, and teres major

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81
Q

What artery is found in the lateral compartment of the leg?

A

None. The peroneal artery is in the posterior compartment of the leg.

82
Q

What muscle laterally rotates the femur to “unlock” the knee?

A

Popliteus

83
Q

What bursa is inflamed in “clergyman’s knee”?

A

Infrapatellar bursa

84
Q

Where does the great saphenous vein terminate?

A

In the femoral vein

85
Q

What comprises the “unhappy triad” of the knee?

A
  1. Medial collateral ligament 2. Medial meniscus 3. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) The severity of injury to these ligaments is ranked from bad to worst in relation to how many of them are damaged, and they are usually damaged in the order listed.
86
Q

What are the two branches off the external iliac artery before it becomes the femoral artery?

A

Circumflex iliac and inferior epigastric arteries

87
Q

From which three sources does the adrenal gland get its blood supply?

A
  1. Superior suprarenal artery (off inferior phrenic artery) 2. Directly off the abdominal aorta as the middle suprarenal artery 3. Inferior suprarenal artery off the renal artery
88
Q

What are the three branches off the celiac artery?

A
  1. Common hepatic artery 2. Splenic artery 3. Left gastric artery
89
Q

What are the three main branches off the inferior mesenteric artery?

A
  1. Left colic artery 2. Superior rectal artery 3. Sigmoid artery
90
Q

The inferior thyroid artery is a branch of what vessel?

A

Thyrocervical trunk

91
Q

What is the area of the carotid artery that is an 02 receptor?

A

Carotid body (The carotid sinus is a pressure receptor.)

92
Q

What arteries join together forming the basilar artery?

A

Left and right vertebral arteries

93
Q

What is the major difference between the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of the body?

A

No valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face

94
Q

At what point does the sig- moid sinus become the internal jugular vein?

A

When it crosses the jugular foramina

95
Q

What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?

A

Foramen of Monro

96
Q

What connects the third and the fourth ventricles together?

A

Cerebral aqueduct

97
Q

How does cerebrospinal fluid leave the fourth ventricle?

A

Through the foramina of Magendie (medial) and Luschka (lateral) M in Magendie

98
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the gonads?

A

Lumbar trunk nodes (Lymphatic drainage follows blood supply.)

99
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?

A

Internal iliac nodes

100
Q

What are the five clinical signs of portal hypertension?

A
  1. Caput medusae 2. Hemorrhoids 3. Retroperitoneal varices 4. Splenomegaly 5. Esophageal varices
101
Q

What is the region of the body where all tonsillar tissue can be found?

A

Waldeyer’s ring

102
Q

What are the three functions of the nasal cavity?

A

It warms, moistens, and filters inspired air.

103
Q

What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube enter?

A

Nasopharynx

104
Q

In which segment of the duodenum is the ampulla of Vater located?

A

Second segment

105
Q

The duodenal/jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what?

A

Ligament of Treitz

106
Q

What are the three anatomic characteristics that differen- tiate the large bowel from the small bowel and the rectum?

A
  1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages
107
Q

What is the artery of the embryonic midgut?

A

Superior mesenteric artery

108
Q

What two ligaments together comprise the lesser omentum?

A

Gastrohepatic and hepatoduodenal

109
Q

The quadrate and the caudate lobes are part of what side of the anatomic liver?

A

The right

110
Q

What is the artery of the embryonic hindgut?

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

111
Q

The hepatic duct and the cystic duct come together to form what?

A

Common bile duct

112
Q

What muscle forms the “bed” for the kidney?

A

Quadratus lumborum

113
Q

What ligament of the uterus houses the ovarian vessels?

A

Suspensory ligament of the ovary

114
Q

What three muscles comprise the pes anserinus?

A
  1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous
115
Q

What are the 10 retro- peritoneal organs?

A
  1. Duodenum 2. Ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Suprarenals 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. Inferior vena cava
116
Q

What is the only cranial nerve with the ability to regenerate?

A

CN I

117
Q

What duct transmits secretions from the sub- mandibular gland to the oral cavity?

A

Wharton’s duct

118
Q

What are the boundaries of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

The stern ocleidomastoid, the trapezius, and the clavicle

119
Q

What are the contents of the adductor canal?

A

Femoral artery and vein and saphenous nerve

120
Q

What are the contents of the submandibular triangle of the neck?

A

Submandibular gland, facial artery and vein, nerve to the mylohyoid

121
Q

What carpal bones articulate with the radius?

A

Scaphoid and lunate

122
Q

What are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck?

A

Sternocleidomastoid, mandible, and midline of the neck

123
Q

What are the six cranial nerves that innervate structures in the orbit?

A
  1. CN II-vision 2. CN Vl-sensory (ophthalmic division) 3. CN VII-lacrimal gland LR6 (S04)3 (to remember nerves below): 4. CN VI-lateral rectus 5. CN IV-superior oblique 6. CN III-all other muscles of the eye
124
Q

What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval window?

A

Stapedius muscle

125
Q

What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photo receptors?

A

The optic disk is the blind spot.

126
Q

What muscles are found in the superficial perineal pouch?

A

Superficial transverse perineal, ischiocavernous, and bulbocavernous muscles

127
Q

What gland is found in the deep perineal pouch in men?

A

Bulbourethral gland; no gland is found in this pouch in women.

128
Q

What pouch of the peri- neum houses the superficial fascia and the inferior fascia?

A

The deep perineal pouch (same as the urogenital diaphragm)

129
Q

What gland is found in the superficial perineal pouch in men and women?

A

None in men, the greater vestibular gland in women

130
Q

What are the five structures that traverse the spermatic cord?

A
  1. Pampiniform plexus of veins 2. Vas deferens 3. Testicular artery 4. Nerves 5. Lymphatics
131
Q

What are the borders of Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Rectus abdominis medially, Inferior epigastric vessels laterally, Inguinal ligament as the base

132
Q

Which type of hernia goes through both the deep inguinal and superficial inguinal ring?

A

Indirect; a direct hernia goes directly through Hesselbach’s triangle

133
Q

What structure(s) traverse the diaphragm at the level of T10?

A

Esophagus and gastric plexus of nerves

134
Q

What structure(s) traverse the diaphragm at the level of T12?

A

Aorta, azygous vein, and thoracic duct Remember: One at Ts, two at Tlo,three at T,Z.

135
Q

What compartment of the lower extremity allows flexion of the toe, inversion of the foot, and plantar flexion of the foot?

A

Posterior compartment of the leg

136
Q

How are the arm and the forearm positioned in “waiter’s tip hand”?

A

The arm is medially rotated, and the forearm is extended and pronated.

137
Q

What is the function of white rami communicans?

A

They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.

138
Q

What compartment of the lower extremity allows extension of the hip and flexion of the knee?

A

Posterior compartment of the thigh

139
Q

What compartment of the lower extremity allows dorsiflexion, extension of the toes, and inversion of the foot?

A

Anterior compartment of the leg

140
Q

What cervical nerves comprise the cervical plexus?

A

C1 to C4

141
Q

What compartment of the lower extremity allows eversion and plantar flexion of the foot?

A

Lateral compartment of the leg

142
Q

If the left hypoglossal nerve was damaged, which way would the tongue point?

A

To the left (The uvula points to affected side.)

143
Q

In women, what is the name of the pouch between the bladder and the uterus called?

A

Uterovesical pouch

144
Q

What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal sling (muscle of continence)?

A

Puborectalis

145
Q

What is the name of the comma-shaped structure that is attached to the posterior aspect of the testes?

A

Epididymis

146
Q

What is the structure of the uterus that projects above the opening of the uterine tubes?

A

Fundus

147
Q

What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs?

A

Ampulla

148
Q

How can you access the lowermost point in the peritoneal cavity in women?

A

Via the posterior fomix of the vagina

149
Q

Which type of hemorrhoids are painful?

A

External hemorrhoids; internal hemorrhoids lack pain fibers.

150
Q

What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?

A
  1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)
151
Q

What two vessels come together to form the external jugular vein?

A
  1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein
152
Q

What is the position of the eyeball if CN VI is lost?

A

Adducted

153
Q

The thyroid gland receives blood from what two different sources?

A
  1. Inferior thyroid off the thyrocervical trunk 2. Superior thyroid artery off the external carotid artery, and sometimes off the arch of the aorta as the thyroid ima artery
154
Q

What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is associated with: CN VII?

A

COPS Submandibular ganglion

155
Q

What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is associated with: CN IX?

A

Pterygopalatine and otic ganglion

156
Q

What postganglionic para-sympathetic ganglia is associated with: CN X?

A

Terminal ganglion

157
Q

What type of fibers are carried in the thoracic and lumbar splanchnics?

A

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers

158
Q

How are preganglionic parasympathetic fibers carried to the embryonic hindgut?

A

Via pelvic splanchnics

159
Q

What is the only portion of CN V that carries motor fibers?

A

Mandibular division (V3)

160
Q

What portion of CN V is affected if the corneal reflex is lost?

A

Ophthalmic division (VI)

161
Q

What cranial nerve is affected if you have a laterally deviated eye that is dilated with a ptosed eyelid?

A

CN III

162
Q

Which cranial nerves are found in the midline of the brain stem?

A

CN I, 11, 111, VI, and XII ARN Add 1 + 1

163
Q

What are the four muscles of mastication?

A
  1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
164
Q

What happens to prevalence as: Incidence increases?

A

Increases

165
Q

What happens to prevalence as: Duration increases?

A

Increases

166
Q

What year of marriage is the peak year for divorce?

A

Fourth year

167
Q

What is the formula for IQ?

A

MA/CA x 100 (MA

168
Q

What are the three stages that children (aged 7 months to 5 years) go through when they are separated from a primary caregiver for a prolonged period of time?

A
  1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment
169
Q

In statistics, what is the measured rate for: A whole population?

A

Crude rate

170
Q

A subgroup of a population?

A

Specific rate

171
Q

What percentage of suicides are committed by white men?

A

66%

172
Q

What is the primary method of nonverbal communication of emotional states?

A

Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)

173
Q

In what age group is illness perceived as a punishment?

A

0 to 5 years

174
Q

In screening tests, what happens to sensitivity as incidence increases?

A

Nothing; screening tests have nothing to do with incidence.

175
Q

What are the four exceptions to informed consent?

A
  1. Emergency 2. Waiver by parents 3. Competency (only courts determine) 4. Short-term intervention
176
Q

In what age group are children more afraid of mutilation or separation from a parent than of death?

A

4 to 6 years of age

177
Q

Which variable can an experimenter manipulate?

A

Independent variable

178
Q

What percentage of dementia cases are caused by Alzheimer’s disease?

A

66%

179
Q

When is the only time that it is okay to break doctor- patient confidentiality?

A

If there is a threat of harm to others (Tarasoff’s Duty to Warn)

180
Q

Do newborns perceive a three dimensional world?

A

It is believed that newborns DO perceive a three-dimensional world, because in experiments they react defensively when an object is thrust in front of their faces.

181
Q

What stage of sleep is associated with high pulse, blood pressure, and respiration rates, and is characterized by increased brain oxygen use, penile erection in males, and total paralysis of the skeletal muscles?

A

REM sleep (Remember as: Awake brain & paralyzed body.)

182
Q

What is the leading cause of death in African American men between the ages of 15 and 24 years of age?

A

Homicide

183
Q

What is the pattern of motor development?

A

Grasp before release Palms up before palms down Proximal to distal progression Ulnar to radial progression

184
Q

What stage of sleep is associated with slow pulse and respiratory rates, a decrease in blood pressure, and involuntary skeletal muscle contractions?

A

Non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep (Remember as: Idle brain in an awake body.)

185
Q

What type of study is prospective-that is, it “looks to see who gets sick” by defining a population at risk of being exposed to a disease?

A

Cohort study (also called prospective, follow-up, longitudinal, or incidence study)

186
Q

What percentage of babies with an HIV-positive mother will test HIV-positive at birth?

A

100%. At birth the mother’s HIV-infected cells can be detected in the baby’s serum. Six months later, however, only 30% of these babies test positive.

187
Q

What disorder begins before 30 years of age; occurs predominantly in women; and presents with multiple medical complaints, with at least four pain symptoms, two gastrointestinal symptoms, one sexual symptom, and one neurological symptom?

A

Somatization disorder (Symptoms are NOT intentionally produced.)

188
Q

What is the progression of copying shapes?

A

Circle, cross, rectangle, square, triangle (alphabetic order)

189
Q

What stage of sleep occupies the most time?

A

Stage 2

190
Q

What statistical analysis is used when you want to bring together many different variables to determine one conclusion?

A

Meta-analysis

191
Q

What is the leading cause of school dropouts among girls?

A

Pregnancy

192
Q

What is the name of the somatoform disorder in which the person has symptoms or deficits suggestive of a medical condition, which are initiated or made worse by stressors?

A

Conversion disorder (The male-to-female ratio is about 1:5.)

193
Q

In what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children resolve the Oedipus complex?

A

Latency stage (6 to 12 years)

194
Q

On what part of the body does sleep deprivation have the greatest effect?

A

Cerebral cortex

195
Q

What is the square of the standard deviation?

A

Variance

196
Q

What is the application of an unavoidable stimulus followed by an animal’s failure to cope (when coping would otherwise be possible) known as?

A

Learned helplessness (e.g., Skinner box)

197
Q

In what somatoform disorder does the person present with a fear of illness despite appropriate medical evaluation and reassurance, and often uses the opening line “I think I have . . . “?

A

Hypochondriasis

198
Q

In biostatistics, what are the three criteria required to increase power?

A
  1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater
199
Q

True or false-IQ is a predictor of academic achievement?

A

True-it is a predictor but not an indicator.

200
Q

At what age does IQ become stable?

A

Age 5

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