8/06/22 Flashcards

1
Q

how is pabrinex adminstered?

A

always IV

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2
Q

triad of dementia, gait disturbances and urinary incontinence?

why is this not alzheimers

Ix?

management?

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus
alzheimers presents with urinary incontinence later on

first kumbar puncture
ct/mri
ventriculoperitoneal shunting

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3
Q

what is the dose of lorazepam given in status epilepticus

diazepam?

A

8mg

10mg

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4
Q

what are the mainstay in treatment of stable angina?

A

Aspirin
Statin
Sublingual GTN
Beta blocker or rate limiting calcium channel blocker

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5
Q

in a patient with normal cholesterol levels after first stroke is a statin indicated?

A

yes shown to improve mortality

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6
Q

what is the criteria for asses pt for home oxygen requirements? COPD mx

A
FEV1<30%
cyanosis
polycythaemia
peripheral oedema 
jvp raised
o2 sats less than 92%
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7
Q

criteria for LTOT in COPD

what is timeframe for assessment?

A

abg 2 in 3 weeks

  • pO2 <7.3

if pO2 is 7.3-8 then offer of they have one of the following
polycythaemia
oedema
pulmonary htn

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8
Q

routine maintenance first 24 hours

A

25-30 ml/kg/day sodium chloride 0.18% in 4% glucose with 27 mmol/l potassium on day 1

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9
Q

when should hartmanns not be given?

A

in hyperkalaemia as it has K+

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10
Q

what is the risk of using large volumes of 0.9% saline ?

A

hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

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11
Q

what is in 0.9% saline?

A

154mm/l Na+

154mmol/l K+

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12
Q

HHS management goals?

A

normalise osmolality with 0.9 saline
replace fluid and elctrolytes 0.45 na+, cl-

normalise glucose

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13
Q

DKA management principles

A

fluid replacement
insulin
correction of electrolyte disturbance
long acting insulin continued and short stopped

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14
Q

what fluid in DKA?

A

isotonic saline

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15
Q

insulin administration in dka?

when should you infuse dextrose?

A

0.1unit/kg/hour

when glucose is <15mmol/l

5% dextrose

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16
Q

correction of electrolyte disturbancein DKA

A

serum potassium is often high on admission despite total body potassium being low
this often falls quickly following treatment with insulin resulting in hypokalaemia
potassium may therefore need to be added to the replacement fluids
if the rate of potassium infusion is greater than 20 mmol/hour then cardiac monitoring may be required

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17
Q

in acute management of dka what type of insulin

A

fixed rate whilst continuing regular injected long acting but stopping short acting

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18
Q

how is DKA resolution criteried

A

pH >7.3 and
blood ketones < 0.6 mmol/L and
bicarbonate > 15.0mmol/L

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19
Q

hypoglycaemia management
if awake?
if unable to swallow

A

10-20g oral glucose - short acting
like glucogel / dextrogel

IM glucagon
or IV glucose solution through large vein

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20
Q

how is specificity detected?

A

detection of true negative

= number of true negatives/ [true negatives and false positives] x100

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21
Q

what kind of ascites does nephrotic syndrome present?

A

low SAAG as albumin is lost through urine

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22
Q

low saag causes?

A

periotenal cancers - ovarian
chronic infection; tb
nephrotic syndrome

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23
Q

what parameters can diagnose DM

what common glucose is not a diagnostic measure?

A

fasting glucose >7
random glucose >11.1

urine dip
OGTT- when investigating impaired glucose tolerance
HBA1c

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24
Q

is HBA1C a good diagnostic measure fpr DM?

A

no

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25
Q

differentiating a malignant melanoma from a benign pigmented lesion

A

An irregular pigment network may be highly important in differentiating a malignant melanoma from a benign pigmented lesion

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26
Q

Intramuscular glucagon may not work in?

A

alcohol-related hypoglycaemia,
liver disease
prolonged hypoglycaemia.

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27
Q

which antibiotics do not interact with warfarin?

A

gentamicin

broad spectrum - amoxicillin?

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28
Q

how is alzheimers managed?

how does the drug work?

A

cholinesterase inhibitors - pyridistigimine

increases functional acetylcholine at synapses

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29
Q

travellers diarrhoea?

A

e.coli

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30
Q

how does HTN happen in conns?

A

aldosterone secretions lead to increased plasma sodium whihc leads to fluid retention = htn

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31
Q

features of constrictive pericarditis

A

occurs post Mi / dresslers

raised JVP
kussmaul sign - paradoxical rise in JVP with inspiration

pulsus paradoxus - cardiac output drop in inspiration

heart sounds quiet due to pericardial effusion
s3

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32
Q

what is kussmaul sign?

A

paradoxical rise in JVP on inspiartion

33
Q

mx of rheumatic fever?

A

IV benzylpenicillin and

34
Q

where is BNP secreted?

A

cardiac ventricles

35
Q

what are the parameters for severe aortic stenosis

A

Peak gradient > 40 mmHg (note, in severe left ventricular dysfunction, a low peak gradient can be falsely reassuring)
Valve area < 1.0 cm^2
Aortic jet velocity >4 m/s

36
Q

asbestosis features on xray?

A

pleural plaques

pleural thickening

37
Q

respiratory causes of clubbing
malignancy
infection
inflammation

A

lung cancer - NSCLC

empyema
lung abscess

cystic fibrosis
bronchiectasis
pulmonary fibrosis

38
Q

dorsiflexion of big toe?

A

l5

39
Q

foot eversion

A

s1

40
Q

foot inversion?

A

l4

41
Q

hip flexion

A

L2

42
Q

knee extension?

A

L3

43
Q

foot drop
weakness or paralysis of dorsiflexion and eversion

if inversion is intact

A

peroneal nerve lesion

44
Q

foot drop
weakness or paralysis of dorsiflexion and eversion

if inversion is lost

where is the lesion
what is the most common cause?

A

l5 lesion

lumbosacral disc herniation

45
Q

which anti hypertensive drugs are a common cause of ototoxiticty
what other common drugs?

A

loop diueretics - furosemide
gentamicin
vancomycin - aminoglycoside

46
Q

merlagia paresthetica

A

compression if lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh underneath the inguinal ligament

weight loss adviced

47
Q

weakness of hip flexion, knee extension and absent knee jerk reflex?

A

femoral nerve damage

48
Q

loss of plantar flexion toe flexio and weakness of foot inversion?

A

tibial nerve damage

49
Q

why might a parkinsons patient experience dykinesia?

A

because levodopa at peak dose causes dystonia
chorea
or involuntary writhing

50
Q

what side effects are caused by parkinson medication?

A

sleepiness
hallucinations
impulse control disorders

51
Q

for chemotherapy-induced nausea

A

ondansetron

52
Q

nausea and vomiting associated with for gastrointestinal causes

A

metoclopramide

53
Q

nausea caused by or for intracranial causes (raised ICP, direct effect of tumour)

A

Haloperidol

54
Q

adverse effect of triptans?

A

tingling
tightness
of throat/chest

55
Q

what is the cause of an acute peripheral neuropathy?

A

GBS

56
Q

hoffman reflex-

A

UMN sign

thumb contracts when distal phalanx tapped

57
Q

causes of upgoing planters and absent ankle reflex

A

cord compression
b12
MND
friedrichs ataxia

58
Q

what is internuclear opthalmoplegia

what is a common cause of this?

A

R CN VI
L CN III

these communicate via MLF - conjugate gaze - horizontal

= diplopia

MS

59
Q

crossed sign on neuro exam suggest where is the lesion?

left brainstem lesion

A

brainstem

left face / right arm/leg

60
Q

what type of gait in parkinson

A

narrow based

61
Q

what is a painless unilateral visual loss called
what is it caused by?

what would you see on opthalmoscopy

A

amaurosis fugax
painless unilateral visual loss
by a retinal artery emboli

cherry red macula

62
Q

acute angle glaucoma

A

painful blurred vision

seeing haloes

63
Q

prognosis of MS

A

<25 on diagnosis
optic neuritis or sensory as a first presentation > cerebeller features
long interval >1year
few lesion on MRI

64
Q

in chronic kidney disease what should be treated straight away?

what are complications from this
whats the med called?

A

high phosphate
low calcium
high pth

hyperphosphataemia should be treated with phosphate binders - sevelamer
vascular calcification

65
Q

Mx of chronic kidney disease

A

sevelemr - phosphate binder

then vit D

caclimimetics - cincalcet

66
Q

how does ureteral stricture present?

A

painful

mass on flank- assymterical dilatation of one kidney

67
Q

renal cancer characteristically presents with?

A

palpable flank mass with pain

68
Q

if you hear bruits - 1st line investigation?

A

arteriography

69
Q

what is detected on a urine dipstick of uti?

A

nitrites

leukocytes

70
Q

what imaging modality for chronic kidney disease?

A

Ultrasound
then CT scan

MRI to see a cancer

71
Q

imaging for ADPKD

A

USS

72
Q

first line ix for renal failure?

A

u&e

73
Q

how is hypercalcaemia investigated

A

measure serum calcium first

74
Q

what medication is safe to use in pregnancy for uti

A

nitrofurantoin

cephalexin

75
Q

leukaemia IX

how do you know it is axcute?

A

> 20% blasts cells

bone marrow aspirate under microscopy

76
Q

what ix allows to differ between aml and all

A

flow cytometry

77
Q

in iron deficiency anaemia

what increases?

A

transferrin

78
Q

what stain differentiates between myeloblasta and lymphoblasts?

A

sudan black

79
Q

what drugs can preciciptate haemolytic anaemia in G6PD?

A

dapsone

antimalarial