737 Memory Items Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

A

10 knots or as permitted by Company Pages

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2
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude?

A

41,000 feet pressure altitude

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3
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Altitude?

A

8400 feet pressure altitude

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4
Q

Maximum Crosswind Component?

A

33 knots including gusts
* May be further limited by LARRs
1. low vis
2. auto land
3. runway contamination
4. runway width
Vol 1 5.16.3

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5
Q

Severe turbulent air penetration speed for Climb and Descent?

A

280kts or .76Mach - whichever is lower.
During Cruise refer to Vol 1.5.16.9.1

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6
Q

Auto Pilot Limitations?
* Use of aileron trim with autopilot engaged is _________.
* Do not engage autopilot for takeoff below ________ feet AGL.
* For single channel operation during approach, the autopilot shall not remain engaged below ________ feet AGL.

A
  • Prohibited
  • 400 ft AGL
  • 50 ft AGL
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7
Q

Autoland Windspeeds
1. Headwind?
2. Crosswind?
3. Tailwind?

A
  1. 25 knots
  2. 20 knots
  3. 10 knots
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8
Q

APU Operating Altitudes
* Inflight with APU bleed + electrical load?

A
  • APU bleed + electrical load = 10,000ft
  • APU bleed only = 17,000ft
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9
Q

Maximum flap extension altitude?

A

20,000ft

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10
Q

Heads up Display AIII Mode speed limitations (landing)?

A

Headwind - 25 knots
Crosswind - 15 knots
Tailwind - 10 knots

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11
Q

Three action/limitations for a HUD AIII approach to manual landing?

A
  1. select AIII
  2. Autopilot and Autothrottle disengaged before 500 ft above TDZE
  3. Flaps
    • 2 engines - 30 or 40 degrees
    • 1 engine - 15 degrees
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12
Q

Aborted Engine Start?

A

Engine start lever ……………………….CUTOFF

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13
Q

Airspeed Unreliable?

A
  1. Autopilot ………………………….. Disengage
  2. Autothrottle ……………………… Disengage
  3. F/D switches ……………………….OFF
  4. IF necessary to stabilize the aircraft set the following gear-up pitch attitude and thrust:
    * Flaps extended ………………..10º and 80% N1
    * Flaps up ………………………….. 4º and 75% N1
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14
Q

APU Fire?

A
  1. APU fire switch … Confirm ….Pull, rotate to the stop, and hold for 1 second.
    2.APU switch ………………………………Off
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15
Q

Cabin Altitude Warning or Rapid Depressurization?

A
  1. Don Oxygen Masks and set regulator to 100%
  2. Establish crew communications.
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16
Q

Engine Fire or Engine severe damage or Separation?

A
  1. Autothrottle (if engaged) ……………….. Disengage
  2. Thrust Lever ….. confirm …………………. Close
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17
Q

Engine Limit or Surge or Stall ( or vibration)?

A
  1. Autothrottle (if engaged) ……………….. Disengage
  2. Thrust Lever ………………………………
    (affected engine) ……. Confirm ….. Retard until indications stay within limits or the thrust lever is closed.
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18
Q

Landing Configuration

A

Ensure correct airplane landing configuration

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19
Q

Loss of thrust on Both Engines

A
  1. Engine Start switches (both) …………………… FLT
  2. Engine start levers (both) ………………… Cut Off
  3. WHEN EGT decreases:
    Engine start levers (both) ………. IDLE detent
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20
Q

Runaway Stabilizer

A
  1. Control Column ……………………. Hold Firmly
  2. Autopilot ………………………………. Disengage
  3. Autothrottle …………………………. Disengage
  4. Control column and thrust levers:
    • Control pitch and attitude and airspeed
  5. Main Electric:
    • Stab Trim …….. Reduce control column forces
  6. IF the runaway stops after the autopilot is disengaged:
    DO NOT re-engage the autopilot or auto throttle
    ********
  7. IF the runaway continues after the autopilot is disengaged:
    • STAB TRIM CUTOUT switches (both) …. CUTOUT

IF the runaway continues:
* STAB trim wheel …………… GRASP and HOLD

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21
Q

Emergency Evacuation Flow Philosophy (generally does not need to be done quickly)

Where is the emergency evacuation checklist found?

A

Remember: there’s almost always time to go through the checklist for the evacuation procedure don’t rush it.

STOP
CONFIGURE
SHUTDOWN
EVACUATE

Back page of the QRH

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22
Q

Five steps of upset recovery.

A

“Upset - Recover!”
CROSS CHECK OTHER INSTRUMENTS
(very quickly)
PUSH
ROLL
POWER
STABILIZE

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23
Q

When should the air-conditioning packs not be operated in the high mode?

A

The air conditioning packs should not be in high mode for takeoff approach or landing. 

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24
Q

When should engine anti-ice be on in the air?

A

Engine anti-ice should be on anytime icing conditions exist or are anticipated during climb and cruise below 10c down to -40c

In a descent Engine anti-ice should always be on when there is visible moisture, and the temperature is below +10°C

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25
What are the maximum and minimum glide slope angles for Auto Land?
from 2.5° minimum to 3.25° maximum
26
What flaps settings may be used with Auto land?
Flaps 30° or 40° only
27
Driftdown procedure. (This is not a memory item but is good to have memorized) How do you put in an Offset? What transponder setting?
1. Autothrottle ------ Off 2. Set Continuous thrust on good engine 3. Rudder Trim ------ as required 4. MCP Altitude - set below Engine Out Max Altitude 5. Level Change 6. MCP Airspeed ------- Set Offset 1. Go to RTE page 2. Offset is on the bottom RH corner 3. Enter "R5" Transponder - 7700
28
Emergency Descent
1. Announce Descent to cabin crew 2. Seat Belt Signs ------ ON 3. Engine Start Switches - CONT 4. Set MCP altitude 5. Speed Brake 6. Thrust levers ----- Idle 7. Set target speed to Mmo/Vmo SPIN, PUSH, SPIN, PULL, engine switches CONT SPIN altitude to MOCA or 10,000ft PUSH LVL CHG SPIN speed to VMO/MMO PULL speed brake Squawk 7700
29
What is the EGT time limit on takeoff?
Top of amber arc for 5 minutes for two engines and 10 minutes for single engine operation.
30
What is the maximum time allowed for an engine start? What is the required wait time between starts?
2 minutes 10 secs
31
What is the APU start duty cycle? if three starts are accomplished during a 15 minute interval then the APU must rest for ________ minutes before the next start attempt.
3 starts per 15 minute interval 15 minutes
32
On what page of QRH is rejected takeoff considerations?
QRH .10
33
what four things would trigger a rejected takeoff between 80 kn and V1?
1. Fire of any kind 2. Engine failure 3. Wind shear alert 4. airplane just won't fly 
34
When a threat presents itself what are the three most important responses in order of importance?
1. Fly (or taxi) the airplane 2. Captain will designate duties 3. Choose Time or No Time bucket
35
What 3 items are considered time critical in the threat and error management system? These would all go into the no time bucket
1. Fire 2. Smoke 3. Security
36
What is the lowest takeoff visibility allowed for the First Officer
RVR 1600 ft or greater or VIS 1/4 mile or greater
37
No destination alternate is required if +/-1 hour of the ETA the weather reports or forecasts indicate:
1. Ceiling at least 2000ft above airport elevation 2. Visibility at least 3 statute miles
38
Less restrictive alternate minimums apply for domestic operations only if +/-1 hour of the ETA the weather reports or forecasts indicate:
1. Ceiling at least 1000 ft above airport elevation 2. Visibility at least 3 statute miles 3. Operations limited to CAT 1 approach only. Additional restriction apply - see FOM 14.1.5.2.4
39
Normal Go Around - PF 1. Five initial action items 2. At 1000 ft . . .
Five Action Items (Ensure autopilot and auto throttle are disconnected) 1. TOGA button - push 2. Power UP - push throttle forward 3. Pitch Up - pull nose up 4. Flaps Up ("Flaps 15") 5. Gear Up (at positive rate) PM "TOGA Verified" "FRAT" (@ 1000 above runway elev) 1. FLAPS 5 2. REMAIN IN TOGA 3. AFTER TAKEOFF CHECKLIST 4. CALL THE TOWER. 5. With flaps five the speed bug should go to flaps five speed. If it doesn't, open the speed window and enter 210 kts NORMALLY DO NOT CALL FOR ANYTHING BEFORE 1000 FT. DO NOT SELECT AUTOPILOT UNTIL AT GO AROUND ALTITUDE AND PITCH MODE SAYS "ALT HOLD" DO NOT SELECT VNAV at 1000 ft - This takes the FMC out of TOGA Mode and the aircraft will pitch for climb speed as set in FMC (normally 250kts) but it is not desirable to climb at 250 knots after a go around.
40
V1 cut - PF Describe what should be the first reaction of pilot. What happens at: @ 400 ft @ 1000 ft @ upon reaching flaps one speed
1. Push in the rudder and hold it with a stiff leg to keep the aircraft going down the center of the runway. To change heading it is more like a pressure change of the foot rather than a movement. 2. Pull up smoothly and firmly right up to the flight director cross bar. At 400 ft RAT- Runway Heading , Autothrottles off, Call Tower At 1000 ft BAT- Bug Flaps One, APU On, Trim (rudder) Upon reaching Flaps one speed LCAN If at flaps 5 go to flaps 1 position Level Change, Continuous Thrust, After Takeoff Checklist, Non Normal Checklist - engine failure or fire At top of climb wait until you get to altitude and VNAV HOLD and then start bringing the power back to about 70% and trim up just a little bit because the nose has a tendency to go down.
41
Approach Windshear Procedure PF? Recover from windshear recovery.
1. "Windshear" 2. CLICK, CLICK, PUSH, PUSH - click off the autopilot - click off the auto throttle - push the TOGA button - push the throttles to max power 3. Raise the nose to 15 degrees and follow pitch guidance. 4. TRY NOT TO USE a large degree of aileron because this will push up the spoiler runs/speed brakes LISTEN FOR "u have guidance” Wind shear recovery: BIG PICTURE - follow go around procedure 1. Reduce Power and pitch to 15 degrees 2. flaps 15 so they are not oversped in the recovery. 3. Positive rate – gear up 4. Autothrottles arm then manage speed window. If it is closed leave it alone if open then 210 kts in the window should work well 5. Above 1000ft - FRATS" - flaps 5, remain in TOGA, after takeoff checklist, "call tower” PIREP to
42
Describe Windsheer on Takeoff event.
1. Do the Click, Click, Push, Push steps. - click off the autopilot - click off the auto throttle - push the TOGA button - push the throttles forward to the stops Pushing the TOGA switch again will not change anything. pilot monitoring will say “YOU HAVE GUIDANCE” 2. Fly the Flight director vertical guidance, maintain wings level. Don't worry about following horizontal guidance. Recovery BIG PICTURE - REDUCE pitch, power and drag, arm auto throttles 1. Reduce Power and pitch to 15 degrees 2. At positive rate "Gear Up" if they aren't already. 3. At (or if already above) 1000 ft ask for VNAV 4. Autothrottles arm then manage speed window. If it is closed leave it alone if open then 210 kts in the window should work well 6. Above one thousand clean up flaps according to normal flaps schedule. PIREP
43
Single engine approach PF
When APP is active and within one dot of G/S: 1. "Gear down" 2. "Flaps 15" 3. "Command bug" 4. "Before landing checklist” * If flying without A/P and A/T keep the flight director dead in the center until short short final. Only glance up at the lights when the PM says runway lights available. * Make very small corrections if not quite lined up on the runway. It is easy to overcorrect and start swerving back and forth.
44
PRM Approach Pilot Monitoring (PM) Actions for a "Traffic Alert"
A "traffic alert" call will be immediately followed by instructions with a heading and a climb or descend instruction. (very rarely is a descend instruction given) The PM must: 1. Disconnect both Flight Directors 2. Set the breakout heading and altitude on the MCP To reengage automation 1. FDs back on 2. Hdg Select - push on 3. VS - push on and set approx 1000ft/min climb
45
PRM approach Pilot Flying (PF) actions for a "Traffic Alert"
"Traffic Alert" 1. Disconnect A/P only. (not A/T) 2. Turn to specified heading (no more than 30 degrees bank) 3. Climb 10 degrees nose up After PM has entered HDG, ALT and reengaged FDs: 1. Reconnect autopilot 2. Open speed window and put in 180kts 3. Ask for flaps 15 4. Positive Rate - "gear up" 5. Flaps 5 when airspeed allows.
46
On what page of the QRH do you find the evacuation checklist?
On the very back page of the QRH
47
On what page of the QRH can you find emergency checklist for engine fire on the ground?
Second to last page of the QRH
48
What are the oil minimums at: 1. Maintenance Station 2. Non Maintenance base What is the minimum oil for dispatch?
1. Maintenance stations - 16 qts 2. Non-maintenance stations - 13 qts. Minimum oil - 12 qts
49
When is an LPR required?
1. When a runway is less than 8000 ft. 2. Airport exceeds 4000 ft elevation
50
Within what distance from the active route will LNAV engage regardless of airplane heading?
3 miles
51
what is the lowest landing RVR limit for an FO? What is the lowest landing RVR limit for a captain?
FO – RVR 1800 or half mile, 200 feet ceiling CA– RVR 600 feet cat three ceiling 50 feet
52
What is the maximum cross wind for HUD guided takeoffs?
10 Knots
53
At what speed does the RTO function of the auto brakes system start working?
90 it’s. Below this speed the captain must use the manual brakes to stop the aircraft.
54
What are the target power settings for go around in: 1. Fully configured for landing 2. Clean configuration
Fully configured for landing - 90% Clean configuration - 75 %
55
What are the flap speeds for the 737 - 800 (and 900)
Flaps 1 - 250 kts Flaps 2 - 250 kts Flaps 5 - 250 kts Flaps 10 - 210 kts (900 = 205 kts) Flaps 15 - 200 kts Flaps 25 - 190 kts (900 = 195 kts) Flaps 30 - 175 kts (900 = 180 kts) Flaps 40 - 162 kts (900 = 170 kts)
56
What types of automation are required with Cat II or Cat III Approaches?
Either autoland or AIII
57
How do you program a hold in the FMC? What are holding speeds and altitudes?
Holding speeds Below 6000 ft - 200 KTS 6000 - 14000 ft - 230 KTS 14000 and above - 265 KTS
58
Which RVR is controlling for approaches down to 1800 feet RVR visibility?
Touchdown zone RVR
59
which RVR is controlling for approaches in which visibility is below 1800 feet RVR
All three are controlling but there are exceptions. See volume one…
60
What are the parameters that define an upset aircraft?
More than: 25 degrees nose up 10 degrees nose down 45 degrees of bank Within above parameters but flying at air speeds inappropriate for the conditions
61
How do you set up an RNAV RNP Approach?
LAVS is used to set up the automation 1. Set the RNP value on legs page 2. Go to Nav Status pg (PROG button then pg 2) and: a). Confirm GPS updating b) VOR DME updating off 3. MCP altitude set DA rounded up to next 100 feet (or MDA +50 then round up). 4. At least 300ft below Missed APP alt set the Missed approach altitude. 5. Any RF legs (inside the FAF) no more than 165 kts 2 types of missed approaches 1. Above 1000 ft (ALT HOLD, flaps 15, gear up etch 2. Below 1000 ft (regular missed approach) Loss of required inputs as listed below the follow missed approach path or follow tower instructions Missed approach required when: 1. After FAP loss of VNAV path 2. Alt deviation in excess of 75 ft 3. Any time you are on the approach there are any number of messages such as: verify position, FMC disagree, etc
62
How do you set up an RNAV Approach (no RNP)?
63
Below what radio altitude are speed brakes not to be used?
1000 feet
64
What are the altitude differences allowed on the ground between the captains and FO's altimeters for RVSM operations
50 ft allowed difference between captains and FO's altimeter on ground The standby altimeter must be within 75 feet of the other two altimeters Captain and FO's altimeter must be within 200 feet of each other in the air
65
how close to a potential collision is a TA caution? how close to a potential collision is an RA caution ?
TA - 20 to 48 secs RA - 15 to 35 secs
66
Describe the terrain avoidance maneuver
1. Disconnect auto pilot and auto throttle 2. Aggressively apply maximum thrust 3. Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude of 20° or even up to stick shaker or initial buffet. 4. Retract speed brakes 5. Do not change gear or flap configuration until terrain separation is assured
67
Manual Flight pitch and power settings?
Takeoff 15 degrees, 91% to 100% Climb - 10 degrees, 93% Cruise - 2.5 degrees, 88% Descent - - 1 degree, idle stop
68
When is a HUD guided takeoff required?
When RVR is between 300 - 500.
69
What are the criteria that define wind shear? What is the recommended flap setting when wind shear is possible?
Change over a short distance of: 1. 15 KTS indicated airspeed 2. 500 fpm vert speed 3. 5 degrees of pitch altitude 4. 1 dot displacement from the glide slope 30 degree flaps
70
What is the definition of V1.
FCTM 3.8.2 1. Maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action. 2. Minimum speed in the takeoff, after the failure of an engine at which Pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance
71
at what rate does the airplane slow down when you are in the airport environments and level flight?
approximately 10 kn for every mile
72
An RA (resolution Advisory) is a pitch only maneuver. True or False?
True
73
The pilot must ____________ the autopilot and auto throttle to fly an RA
Disconnect (both)
74
Below what altitude should an RA not be complied with?
1000 ft AGL
75
What is the BAR+ fuel quantity calculation used for?
It shows the amount of fuel at which the aircraft must leave the hold point in order to fly to destination airport or the alternate. EG. BAR+ fuel is 10700 lbs Fuel on board is 12000 lbs Difference of 1300 lbs means there is 13 mins to use for in a hold (or vectoring)
76
What is the average fuel burn of the 737 NG?
6000 lbs/hour or 100lbs/minute.
77
What does HOLD AVAIL time mean on the hold page?
This assumes that we can fly the missed approach then come back and land (or go to the alternate) and still land with min fuel (3600 or 4000 lbs).
78
What does reserve fuel represent on the Perf Init page?
It represents reserve fuel at destination. If there is no alternate, it will be 3600 or 4000. It will be a higher number if the dispatcher lists an alternate landing airport. It does not include comfort fuel. You can add comfort fuel to the reserve fuel on the PERF INIT page if so desired
79
We normally fly NADP 2 (Noise Abatement Departure Procedure) What is the difference in thrust reduction and selection of VNAV for an NADP 1 for thrust reduction and VNAV selection?
Thrust reduction will occur at 1500 ft instead of 1000 ft. VNAV selection occurs at 3000 ft instead of 1000 feet.
80
The use of speed brakes with flaps extended should be avoided if possible. True or False?
True
81
When approaching the arrival area, Descend Now is the preferred method foe initiating a descent? True or False?
True