6 - Resource Planning and Management Flashcards
1
Q
What is essential for successful project outcomes?
A
Developing the project team, managing work according to the project plan, and managing conflict.
2
Q
Who will project managers negotiate with during a project?
A
Sponsor, team members, vendors, functional managers, clients, users, and other internal organizations.
3
Q
What are the challenges in developing a cohesive project team?
A
Building the team, providing appropriate training, managing conflict, and implementing a rewards and recognition plan.
4
Q
What is the impact of organizational structure on project management?
A
It affects the authority of the project manager and the process to assign resources.
5
Q
Describe the functional organization structure.
A
Staff is organized along departmental lines with a hierarchical reporting structure.
6
Q
What is a common issue faced by project managers in a functional organization?
A
Limited authority and accountability for project deliverables across departments.
7
Q
What are advantages of a functional organization?
A
- Growth potential for employees
- Opportunity for unique skills to flourish
- Clear chain of command
8
Q
What are disadvantages of a functional organization?
A
- Limited authority for project managers
- Multiple projects competing for resources
- Part-time resource commitment to projects
9
Q
What is the matrix organization structure?
A
Resources are accountable to both the project manager and their functional manager.
10
Q
What are the typical characteristics of a matrix organization?
A
- Project manager authority ranges from weak to strong
- Mix of full-time and part-time project resources
- Resources assigned by functional managers
11
Q
What are the three types of matrix organizations?
A
- Strong Matrix
- Weak Matrix
- Balanced Matrix
12
Q
What is the projectized organizational structure?
A
Focuses on projects rather than functional work units, with project managers having majority power.
13
Q
What is an advantage of a projectized organization?
A
Project manager has full authority and team members are collocated.
14
Q
What is a drawback of a projectized organization?
A
Reassigning project team members after project completion may be challenging.
15
Q
What are the types of resources needed for projects?
A
- Human resources
- Physical resources
- Capital resources
- Internal resources
- External resources
- Shared vs. dedicated resources
16
Q
What are human resources in the context of project management?
A
Individuals involved in the project, including those behind technologies like AI.
17
Q
What defines capital resources?
A
Physical resources used to create the product or perform the project, typically valued at $5,000 or more.
18
Q
What is the difference between internal and external resources?
A
- Internal resources are owned by the company
- External resources are acquired or contracted from outside
19
Q
What are shared resources?
A
Resources that work for both the functional manager and the project manager.
20
Q
What are dedicated resources?
A
Resources assigned full-time to a project, providing full authority to the project manager.
21
Q
True or False: Project managers have full control over shared resources.
A
False.
22
Q
What should project managers negotiate regarding shared resources?
A
Time availability and performance ratings.
23
Q
What is resource overallocation?
A
When resources are scarce, leading to potential conflicts in project commitments.
24
Q
What is the importance of negotiating performance ratings for team members?
A
It reinforces that project work is important and needs to be prioritized by the team member.
25
What is resource overallocation?
A situation where existing employees take on the workload of those who have left, leading to burnout and potential turnover.
26
What can cause resource overallocation aside from resource shortages?
Scheduling a resource to complete more tasks than the available time.
27
What does 100 percent allocation on a project schedule indicate?
It indicates overallocated resources, as they never have 100 percent of their time available for tasks.
28
What are benched resources?
Resources that have finished a project and are not yet assigned to a new project.
29
What are interproject dependencies?
Dependencies that occur when deliverables from one project are needed to work on another project.
30
What is the significance of meeting with project managers from other projects?
To understand their schedules and risks and discuss removing dependencies where possible.
31
What is the resource life cycle?
A series of stages including acquisition, maintenance, hardware decommissioning, end-of-life software, and successor planning.
32
What does the acquisition stage of the resource life cycle involve?
A needs assessment that examines requirements, functionality, lifespan, cost, and justification for the resource.
33
What is included in the maintenance of resources?
Ongoing care such as patching and updating software, or physical maintenance of hardware.
34
What is the process of hardware decommissioning?
Ensuring no data remains on hardware before disposal or donation.
35
What should be done with data on decommissioned hardware?
It should be preserved, transferred, archived, or destroyed.
36
What is end-of-life software?
Software that has reached the end of its useful life and needs to be decommissioned.
37
What is successor planning?
Decisions made about replacing or retiring resources before they reach end of life.
38
How does managing a project team differ from managing a functional work group?
Project teams are temporary and require collaboration towards a common goal.
39
What is the typical size of agile teams?
Between five and 11 members.
40
What are core team members?
Team members critical to the project due to their expertise and involvement throughout its lifecycle.
41
What are functional/extended team members?
Team members who have skills for specific tasks but are not involved full-time throughout the project.
42
What is a gap analysis?
A technique to determine the difference between current resources and those needed for the project.
43
What should be documented in the roles and responsibilities document?
Each group or individual team member's skills, criticality, and responsibilities.
44
What is the criticality of a resource?
The importance of a resource to the project, which may require contingency plans if unavailable.
45
True or False: Resources that require regular maintenance will last their expected lifespan without it.
True
46
Fill in the blank: The process of ensuring data on hardware is destroyed before disposal is known as _______.
hardware decommissioning
47
What is the purpose of a roles and responsibilities document?
To list each group or individual team member along with their skills, criticality, and responsibilities
48
Why is it important to update the roles and responsibilities document?
Roles and responsibilities may change over the course of the project
49
What does a project organization chart typically document?
It documents names, positions, and hierarchical relationships of team members
50
What is the difference between an organization breakdown structure (OBS) and a resource breakdown structure (RBS)?
OBS shows departments and teams, while RBS breaks down work by types of resources needed
51
What does a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) map?
It maps WBS elements to the required resources
52
What are the designations represented in a RACI chart?
* R = Responsible
* A = Accountable
* C = Consulted
* I = Informed
53
What is the first stage of team development according to Bruce Tuckman's model?
Forming
54
What happens during the Storming stage of team development?
Team members work through influence and jockey for status
55
What is the key characteristic of the Performing stage in team development?
High productivity and effectiveness with a high level of trust among team members
56
What is the purpose of team-building activities?
To help team members form social bonds and clarify roles and responsibilities
57
True or False: Trust is built overnight in a project team.
False
58
What are the key components required to build trust within a team?
* Competence
* Respect
* Honesty
* Integrity
* Openness
59
What is the focus of performance feedback for team members?
To provide timely feedback on performance and specify expectations
60
Fill in the blank: The first meeting with a new team member should be the _______.
expectations-setting meeting
61
What should be included in the performance expectations discussion with new team members?
* Role on the project
* Due dates
* Performance expectations
* Team interactions
62
What is an effective way to recognize superior performance?
Formal recognition such as awards or informal methods like a simple thank-you note
63
Why is it important to ensure rewards are proportional and equitable among team members?
To prevent killing morale and ensure fairness
64
What should project managers be sensitive to when recognizing team members?
Cultural backgrounds and individual preferences regarding public praise
65
What is the significance of developing criteria for rewards?
To document and standardize the process for recognizing team performance
66
What can excessive awards lead to in a team environment?
Excessive awards can kill morale rather than improve it.
67
Why is it important to be sensitive to team members' cultural backgrounds?
Some people love to be praised in public, while others may feel shamed by it.
68
What should be documented for rewards in a team?
The criteria for rewards, especially monetary awards.
69
What is a key aspect of a rewards and recognition program?
It must be applied consistently to all project team members.
70
When should rewards for superior performance be given?
Publicly.
71
When should discussions of inadequate performance be conducted?
Privately.
72
What is training in the context of team development?
Determining team members’ skills and abilities and providing necessary training.
73
What is one common type of training provided to project teams?
Project management training.
74
What can cause conflict among project team members?
Competition for resources, differing work styles, and communication issues.
75
What is conflict defined as?
The incompatibility of desires, needs, or goals between two parties.
76
What should be done as soon as conflict is suspected among team members?
Address it immediately.
77
What is the smoothing technique in conflict management?
Emphasizing areas of agreement over differences, leading to a temporary resolution.
78
What does forcing in conflict resolution entail?
One person forces a solution on the other parties.
79
What is compromising in conflict management?
Each party gives up something to reach a solution.
80
What is the best conflict resolution technique?
Collaborating.
81
What does avoiding in conflict management result in?
No resolution.
82
What should be done when team member disputes arise?
Interview each team member involved to understand the facts.
83
What may indicate a deep dispute among team members?
Potential threats or other workplace issues.
84
What should you do if a team member is disgruntled?
Spend private time to determine the cause of dissatisfaction.
85
What is the impact of a disgruntled team member on the team?
It can poison team morale and impact productivity.
86
What should you do if a team member's negative behavior continues?
Get HR involved and begin disciplinary action.
87
When is a project kickoff meeting generally held?
After the project charter is signed.
88
What are key agenda items for a project kickoff meeting?
Welcome, introductions, project overview, stakeholder expectations, roles and responsibilities, and Q&A.
89
What should be done to include remote team members in a kickoff meeting?
Use teleconferencing, videoconferencing, or web-based meeting options.
90
What is procurement planning?
Identifying goods and services required for the project to be purchased from outside the organization.
91
What is procurement planning?
The process of identifying the goods and services required for your project that will be purchased from outside the organization.
92
What is make-or-buy analysis?
Determines whether it’s more cost-effective to produce the needed resources in-house or to procure them from outside the organization.
93
What are the four scenarios listed by CompTIA for make-or-buy analysis?
* Build
* Buy
* Lease
* Subscription/pay-as-you-go service
94
What are direct costs?
Costs directly attributed to the project, such as costs needed to produce the resource.
95
What are indirect costs?
Costs associated with overhead, management, and ongoing maintenance costs.
96
What should you consider in make-or-buy analysis?
* Capacity
* Skill sets
* Availability
* Company trade secrets
97
What role does the procurement department play in an organization?
Manages all aspects of procuring goods and services.
98
What are the potential consequences of not understanding the procurement department's processes?
Significant schedule delays.
99
Who is referred to as the buyer of goods and services in a project?
The project manager.
100
What is a vendor?
The organization selling the goods or services.
101
What is staff augmentation?
Contracting for specific resources to fill gaps in expertise or availability.
102
What is a Statement of Work (SOW)?
A document that details the goods or services to be procured, including project description, major deliverables, success criteria, assumptions, and constraints.
103
What is the purpose of vendor solicitation?
Obtaining responses from vendors to complete the project work as documented in the SOW.
104
What is a Request for Information (RFI)?
Used to gather more information about the goods or services needed for procurement.
105
What is a Request for Proposal (RFP)?
Submitted when ready to procure; includes SOW and evaluates bids from vendors.
106
What is a Request for Quote (RFQ)?
Used when you know what you want to buy and need to compare estimates among vendors.
107
What is a Request for Bid (RFB)?
Used for readily available items or services and is based solely on price.
108
What are common criteria for evaluating vendor proposals?
* Vendor’s understanding of project needs
* Cost
* Warranty period
* Technical ability
* References
* Vendor’s experience
* Project management approach
* Financial stability
* Intellectual property rights
109
What is a weighted scoring model?
A method where each evaluation criterion is assigned a weight, and vendors are scored against these criteria.
110
What is the difference between best value and lowest cost?
Best value includes elements like quality and features, while lowest cost is based only on the price.
111
What is cost-benefit analysis in vendor selection?
Compares the cost to produce the product or service to the benefits gained by choosing a vendor.
112
What is competitive analysis in vendor evaluation?
Comparing the bids received against each other.
113
What is the importance of financial stability in vendor selection?
Ensures the vendor can fulfill contractual obligations without going out of business.
114
Why should references be checked in vendor selection?
To verify qualifications and past performance on similar projects.
115
What is sole-source documentation?
Used when only one vendor can provide the required goods or services.
116
What is the purpose of requiring vendors to provide references?
To verify qualifications, ensure expectations were met on past jobs, and confirm there were no unresolved issues.
## Footnote
This is a common practice in cybersecurity to ensure vendor reliability.
117
What is sole-source procurement?
A procurement situation where only one vendor can meet the specific needs of the buyer.
## Footnote
This often occurs when the buyer has a unique system that requires specific support.
118
Define a fixed-price contract.
A contract that states a fixed fee for the goods or services provided, best used when the product is well-defined.
## Footnote
This type of contract is risky for the seller if issues arise.
119
What is a cost-reimbursable contract?
A contract that reimburses the seller for all allowable costs associated with producing the goods or services outlined in the contract.
## Footnote
This type of contract puts more risk on the buyer due to unknown total costs.
120
List the four types of cost-plus contracts.
* Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
* Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
* Cost Plus Percentage Fee (CPPC)
* Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
## Footnote
Each type has different incentive structures for the seller.
121
What is a time and materials contract?
A contract where the buyer and seller agree on a unit rate, but the total cost depends on the time spent on the project.
## Footnote
Often used for staff augmentation.
122
What is a unit price contract?
A contract priced according to the units of work that make up the project or materials needed to complete the work.
## Footnote
Each unit of work has a price, and the contractor is paid upon delivery.
123
What is a master service agreement (MSA)?
A contract used in agile projects that outlines service rates and warranties while allowing scope, budget, and timeline to be added as needed.
## Footnote
This allows for flexibility in agile environments.
124
Define a nondisclosure agreement (NDA).
A legal agreement ensuring that sensitive company or trade secret information is not shared outside the organization.
## Footnote
NDAs are critical when engaging outside entities.
125
What does a cease-and-desist letter do?
Informs the other party to stop an activity and not to do it again.
## Footnote
Often used in copyright law violations.
126
What is a letter of intent?
A document outlining the intent or actions of both parties before entering into a binding agreement.
## Footnote
It serves as an agreement to agree on terms.
127
What is the purpose of a memorandum of understanding (MOU)?
An agreement outlining specific performance criteria or actions between parties when a legal contract can't be formed.
## Footnote
MOUs are not legally enforceable.
128
What does a service level agreement (SLA) define?
Service level performance expectations among two or more parties.
## Footnote
Commonly used in IT departments.
129
What is the purpose of a maintenance agreement?
Outlines the actions and duties the vendor will take to keep products running efficiently.
## Footnote
This may include software upgrades and regular service checks.
130
What is a warranty?
A guarantee that a product will meet expectations and perform as stated for a specified period.
## Footnote
Warranties expire after the time period is reached.
131
What are the five stages of team development?
* Forming
* Storming
* Norming
* Performing
* Adjourning
## Footnote
Teams progress through these stages as they develop.
132
What is a RACI chart?
A chart that shows the roles and responsibilities of team members, indicating who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed.
## Footnote
RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed.
133
What is conflict resolution in project management?
Techniques used to resolve disagreements among team members, including smoothing, forcing, compromising, collaborating, and avoiding.
## Footnote
Collaborating is the preferred technique for project managers.
134
What is resource allocation?
The process of identifying the type of resources, skill sets, and time frames needed for a project.
## Footnote
It helps in managing resource shortages and overallocation.
135
What is a gap analysis?
Determines the difference between available resources and the resources needed or the skills existing resources have versus the skills needed.
## Footnote
It helps identify areas for improvement.
136
What is the difference between dedicated and shared resources?
Dedicated resources are solely assigned to a project, while shared resources work for more than one manager.
## Footnote
Shared resources may report to both a functional manager and a project manager.
137
What does FI stand for in procurement?
Financial Instrument
## Footnote
FI is part of the procurement documentation process.
138
What is the purpose of an RFQ?
Request for Quotation
## Footnote
An RFQ is used to invite suppliers to provide price quotes for goods or services.
139
What does RFP stand for?
Request for Proposal
## Footnote
RFP is a document that solicits proposals from potential vendors.
140
What is an RFB?
Request for Bid
## Footnote
An RFB is a solicitation for bids from suppliers.
141
What does MSA stand for?
Master Service Agreement
## Footnote
MSA outlines terms and conditions for future agreements between parties.
142
What is a PO in procurement?
Purchase Order
## Footnote
A PO is a document issued by a buyer to a seller, indicating the products, quantities, and agreed prices.
143
What is a TOR?
Terms of Reference
## Footnote
TOR outlines the purpose and structure of a project or committee.
144
What is an MOU?
Memorandum of Understanding
## Footnote
MOU is an agreement between parties outlining mutual understanding.
145
What is the purpose of an NDA?
Non-Disclosure Agreement
## Footnote
NDA ensures confidentiality during discussions with vendors.
146
What is a fixed-price contract?
A contract that states a fixed fee for goods or services provided.
## Footnote
It does not change regardless of the seller's costs.
147
What are cost-reimbursable contracts?
Contracts that reimburse the seller for all allowable costs.
## Footnote
They may include CPFF, CPIF, CPPC, and CPAF.
148
What does CPFF stand for?
Cost Plus Fixed Fee
## Footnote
A type of cost-reimbursable contract.
149
What does CPIF stand for?
Cost Plus Incentive Fee
## Footnote
A type of cost-reimbursable contract with incentives for cost savings.
150
What does CPPC stand for?
Cost Plus Percentage of Costs
## Footnote
A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the seller receives a percentage of the costs.
151
What does CPAF stand for?
Cost Plus Award Fee
## Footnote
A type of cost-reimbursable contract that includes an award fee based on performance.
152
What are time and materials contracts?
Contracts that charge a unit rate for goods and services, with total cost unknown until completion.
## Footnote
They are common when project scope is uncertain.
153
What are unit price contracts?
Contracts that charge based on units of work such as major deliverables or milestones.
## Footnote
They differ from fixed-price contracts in that they are based on deliverables.
154
When are Master Service Agreements typically used?
On agile projects where not all deliverables or work are known up front.
## Footnote
MSAs provide flexibility in project execution.
