2 - Understanding IT Fundamentals Flashcards
1
Q
What are the primary factors that influence project management?
A
Environmental, social, and governance factors, as well as privacy and confidentiality concerns.
2
Q
What is the main focus of the CompTIA Project + exam?
A
Technology-related projects.
3
Q
What is the role of the project manager?
A
Integrating all components and artifacts of a project and applying project management tools and techniques.
4
Q
List some key activities of a project manager.
A
- Managing the team
- Managing communication
- Defining scope
- Managing risk
- Managing budgets
- Managing time
- Managing quality assurance
- Planning
- Negotiating
- Solving problems
5
Q
True or False: Good soft skills are less critical than technical skills for project managers.
A
False.
6
Q
What are some important soft skills for project managers?
A
- Leadership
- Communicating
- Listening
- Organizational skills
- Time management
- Planning
- Problem solving
- Consensus building
- Resolving conflict
- Negotiating
- Team building
7
Q
What does effective leadership in project management involve?
A
Rallying people around a vision, motivating them, setting strategic goals, and aligning diverse groups.
8
Q
How much time do project managers typically spend communicating?
A
Up to 90 percent of their time.
9
Q
What are the critical components of a communication strategy for a project?
A
- What you want to communicate
- How often you’ll communicate
- The audience receiving the communication
- The medium used for communicating
- Monitoring the outcome of the communication
10
Q
Fill in the blank: There is no such thing as a project that doesn’t have _______.
A
problems.
11
Q
What is the process of obtaining mutually acceptable agreements called?
A
Negotiating.
12
Q
What are some responsibilities of a project manager regarding organization and time management?
A
- Tracking schedules and budgets
- Conducting regular team meetings
- Reviewing team member reports
- Tracking vendor progress
- Communicating with stakeholders
- Managing change requests
13
Q
What are ESG factors?
A
Environmental, social, and governance factors that impact projects and organizations.
14
Q
What do environmental factors refer to in project management?
A
The impacts your project may have on the environment.
15
Q
What do social factors pertain to in the context of project management?
A
Interactions and relationships among stakeholders, including project team members and customers.
16
Q
What are governance factors in project management?
A
The way the project will be governed, including reporting, monitoring performance, accountability, and transparency.
17
Q
List some additional ESG factors to consider in project management.
A
- Awareness of company vision, mission statement, and values
- Project impact on company brand value
- Project impact on local and global environment
- Awareness of applicable regulations and standards
18
Q
What is data confidentiality?
A
Protecting sensitive data and individual identities to comply with regulations.
19
Q
What are the two types of data confidentiality mentioned?
A
- Personally identifiable information (PII)
- Personal health information (PHI)
20
Q
True or False: The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) provides frameworks for protecting information.
A
True.
21
Q
What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?
A
Any information about an individual maintained by an agency, including data that can distinguish or trace an individual’s identity and information linked to an individual.
22
Q
What does NIST stand for?
A
National Institute of Standards and Technology
23
Q
List examples of sensitive personally identifiable information (SPII).
A
- Social Security number
- Passport number
- Driver’s license number
- Taxpayer identification number
- Alien registration number
- Patient identification number
- Financial account or credit card number
- Facial geometry
- Biometric identifiers (fingerprints, retina scans, voice signature, etc.)
24
Q
What is the difference between PII and SPII?
A
SPII is a subset of PII that includes stand-alone data elements which can identify an individual and cause harm if misused.
25
What is linkable data?
Data that can be associated with an individual but is not sensitive on its own.
26
Provide examples of linkable data.
* Name
* Maiden name
* Alias
* Street address
* Email address
* IP or MAC address
* Telephone numbers
* Date of birth
* Place of birth
* Religion
* Financial information
* Family members
* Weight
* Activities
* Employment
* Medical information
* Educational information
* Zip code
* Age range
* Criminal history
27
What does PHI stand for?
Protected Health Information
28
What does HIPAA regulate?
The safekeeping of electronic protected health information (ePHI)
29
What are the three impact levels for a breach of confidentiality according to NIST?
* Low
* Moderate
* High
30
True or False: A breach of confidentiality occurs when PII is exposed to unauthorized individuals.
True
31
What is the purpose of anonymizing data?
To take identifiable information and deidentify it, making it generalized and less precise.
32
What is the role of a project manager concerning PII?
To understand and ensure compliance with regulations regarding the handling of PII data.
33
What is the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA)?
A regulation that establishes privacy standards for residents of California.
34
List some major privacy regulations.
* HIPAA
* PIPEDA
* GDPR
* CCPA
35
What organization is known for establishing standards for product safety?
Underwriters Laboratories (UL)
36
What does AOC stand for in the context of wine?
Appellation d’Origine Contrôlée
37
What is the primary ingredient in wine?
Grapes
38
What does IT stand for?
Information Technology
39
Fill in the blank: _______ involves the use of computers and networks to create, store, process, and transmit electronic information.
Information Technology
40
What is the significance of the AOC designation on a wine bottle?
It certifies the region and standards of wine production.
41
What is a potential consequence of a breach of confidentiality?
Financial harm, social impacts, identity theft, discrimination, emotional distress, loss of reputation.
42
What does the acronym GDPR stand for?
General Data Protection Regulation
43
What is the primary role of IT in organizations?
To create, store, process, and transmit electronic information
44
What are the three areas within IT that are involved in implementing projects with technology components?
Infrastructure, cloud models, software
45
Define infrastructure in the context of IT.
All the hardware, software, servers, networks, data centers, and more that comprise and support IT activities
46
What are computing services?
Infrastructure that provides computing capability to the organization or its customers, including servers, networking, databases, storage, and software
47
What is multitiered architecture?
Physically separating technology functions into their own modules
48
What are the three tiers of a common multitiered architecture?
* Presentation tier
* Application tier
* Data tier
49
What does the presentation tier do?
Collects and displays the information the user needs to interact with the system
50
What is the application tier also known as?
Middle tier
51
What is the purpose of the data tier?
To store the information that was collected and processed
52
What is a computer network?
A collection of devices connected to each other using cables or wireless communication
53
What are the two primary devices used in networking?
* Routers
* Switches
54
What is the difference between wired and wireless networks?
Wired networks use physical cables, while wireless networks use radio waves
55
What is a Local Area Network (LAN)?
A network used in a specific location such as a school or a business
56
What is a Wide Area Network (WAN)?
A network that covers a larger area and connects multiple locations
57
What is a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)?
A network that covers a city or metropolitan area
58
What is primary storage?
Storage the computer uses to operate and perform, also known as internal memory
59
What are the two types of memory that the CPU relies on?
* Random Access Memory (RAM)
* Read-Only Memory (ROM)
60
What is RAM used for?
Short-term, temporary storage to run applications and process data
61
What is ROM primarily used for?
Firmware updates
62
What is secondary storage?
Nonvolatile storage that includes devices like hard drives, flash drives, and DVDs
63
What is Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
Software on dedicated hardware that performs data storage and file sharing requests
64
What is a Storage Area Network (SAN)?
A complex system used for data storage that provides data reliability and fast access
65
What is a data warehouse?
A system that collects, organizes, centralizes, and manages data for analysis
66
What is the significance of documentation in IT?
It helps prevent mistakes, reduces costs, and improves productivity
67
What should documentation include?
* Inventory of hardware and software
* Diagrams of infrastructure
* Change logs
68
What is cloud computing?
The sharing of software, information, data, and services to computers on demand
69
What is on-demand self-service in cloud computing?
The ability for cloud customers to provision services as needed
70
What are examples of cloud storage services?
* OneDrive
* DropBox
* Google Drive
71
What is the NIST Definition of Cloud Computing?
It defines the characteristics of the cloud as it exists today.
## Footnote
The publication can be found at https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/legacy/sp/nistspecialpublication800-145.pdf.
72
What is meant by on-demand self-service in cloud computing?
Cloud customers can provision services as needed.
73
What are the two layers of cloud infrastructure?
* Physical layer (hardware resources)
* Abstraction layer (software enabling cloud functions)
74
What is resource pooling in cloud computing?
It allows the cloud provider to use the same resources to serve multiple consumers using a multitenant model.
75
Define rapid elasticity in the context of cloud services.
The ability to respond to a consumer's need for more (or less) resources automatically.
76
How do cloud providers charge for their services?
Using a measured service model based on consumer usage.
77
Name the four types of cloud service models according to NIST.
* Software as a Service (SaaS)
* Platform as a Service (PaaS)
* Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
* Anything as a Service (XaaS)
78
What is Software as a Service (SaaS)?
A model where cloud consumers can access applications on demand that are developed and run on a cloud infrastructure.
79
What are some examples of SaaS?
* Salesforce
* Microsoft Office 365
* Google Workspace
* Netflix
80
What does Platform as a Service (PaaS) allow developers to do?
Build and deploy applications in the cloud using software tools supplied by the PaaS provider.
81
What is Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?
A model that allows cloud consumers to provision servers, storage, networking, and operating systems on demand.
82
What is Anything as a Service (XaaS)?
Any IT function converted to a cloud model for use by the organization.
83
List some potential disadvantages of 'as a service' models.
* Can be costly
* Limited control over maintenance
* Potential performance issues
* Risk of outages
* Security concerns
84
What is a Private Cloud?
A cloud used exclusively by a single organization, either managed by the organization or a third party.
85
Define Community Cloud.
A cloud used by a community of customers with similar needs, allowing resource sharing.
86
What is a Public Cloud?
A model offered by a third party intended for use by anyone.
87
Describe a Hybrid Cloud.
A combination of private, community, or public clouds that allows data and application sharing.
88
What are the primary functions typically offered by ERP systems?
* Financial management
* Human resources management
89
What is Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)?
Systems that help companies coordinate back-office business activities.
90
What is Customer Relationship Management (CRM) software?
Software that helps businesses manage their relationships and interactions with customers.
91
Fill in the blank: ERP systems allow organizations to coordinate their ______ functions within a single system.
back-office
92
True or False: In the IaaS model, the consumer has control over the underlying infrastructure.
False
93
What is Customer Relationship Management (CRM)?
CRM software helps businesses manage their relationships and interactions with their customers and future customers.
94
How do CRMs aggregate customer data?
CRMs aggregate data about the customer in one place for efficient interaction.
95
What information can a technician see in a CRM when responding to a customer service question?
The technician can see the customer's purchase history, including appliance details, model number, and service interactions.
96
What type of systems are CRMs typically?
CRMs are typically cloud-based systems.
97
What is structured data?
Structured data is organized in meaningful ways and can be easily retrieved and modified.
98
What are some examples of structured data?
* Name * Age * Social Security number
99
What is unstructured data?
Unstructured data does not adhere to a data model and is not easily stored or processed.
100
What are some examples of unstructured data?
* Videos * Web pages * Images * Emails
101
What is a relational database (RDBMS)?
A collection of structured information that is related to each other, organized using rows and columns.
102
What does a primary key do in a relational database?
It uniquely identifies a record in a table.
103
What is an Electronic Document and Record Management System (EDRMS)?
EDRMS is a software system that manages electronic documents, records, and data from creation to disposal.
104
What are the two main components of a Content Management System (CMS)?
* Content management application * Content delivery application
105
What is the purpose of financial systems?
Financial systems manage the accounting and budgeting aspects of a business.
106
What is the difference between financial accounting and budgeting?
Financial accounting records past transactions; budgeting forecasts future income and expenses.
107
True or False: Budgeting is more precise than accounting.
False.
108
What are some keys to a successful software implementation?
* Accurate requirements * Involvement of the right resources * Defining critical milestones * Comprehensive testing * Rigorous communication * Risk management * Change management * Lessons learned
109
What is the goal of the ERP implementation for the Widget organization?
To consolidate over 50 stand-alone systems into one ERP system.
110
What is the benefit of involving subject matter experts in the ERP implementation?
Their expertise can help identify errors and improve the project outcome.
111
What is the main focus of the Main Street Office Move project?
To coordinate and manage the relocation of all staff to a new centralized location.
112
What is one significant cost-benefit of the new building for the organization?
It is energy efficient and enables all employees to be collocated.
113
Fill in the blank: A _______ is a collection of data stored electronically in a computer system.
database
114
What is the role of the IaaS vendor in the Main Street Office Move project?
To host most of the servers, databases, and applications the organization uses.
115
What is the primary benefit of collocating employees in a new energy-efficient building?
Reduces travel for meetings, saves on fuel costs, reduces fleet size, increases productivity.
116
What does IaaS stand for?
Infrastructure as a Service.
117
What are key general management skills required by a project manager?
* Leadership
* Communication
* Problem-solving
* Negotiation
* Organization
* Time management
118
What does ESG stand for in project management?
Environmental, Social, and Governance.
119
What is PII?
Personally Identifiable Information.
120
What is the difference between PII and SPII?
SPII is a subset of PII that can cause harm or inconvenience if disclosed.
121
What is PHI?
Personal Health Information.
122
What is a data warehouse?
A system that collects, organizes, centralizes, and manages data for decision-making.
123
What does cloud computing enable?
Sharing of software, information, data, and services on demand.
124
Name the four primary cloud service models.
* SaaS
* PaaS
* IaaS
* XaaS
125
What is a private cloud?
A cloud used exclusively by a single organization.
126
What is the purpose of ERP systems?
To coordinate back-office business activities like accounting and human resources.
127
What is a CMS?
Content Management System, used to manage website content.
128
What is the role of a project manager?
Oversee every aspect of a project from start to finish.
129
What is multitiered architecture?
Separating technology functions into their own modules.
130
What are the two types of memory used by the CPU?
* RAM
* ROM
131
What is the difference between primary and secondary storage?
Primary storage is internal memory; secondary storage is external memory.
132
What is the function of computing services?
Provides computing capability to the organization.
133
What is resource pooling in cloud computing?
Using the same resources to serve multiple consumers in a multitenant model.
134
What does rapid elasticity mean in cloud environments?
The cloud can grow or shrink based on customer needs.
135
What is the difference between LAN and WAN?
LAN is a local area network; WAN is a wide area network.
136
What is an EDRMS?
Electronic Document and Record Management System.
137
What is a database?
A collection of data stored electronically in a computer system.
138
What is the significance of documenting IT infrastructure?
It includes inventories, serial numbers, drawings, change logs, etc.
139
What is the purpose of compliance and privacy considerations in project management?
To ensure data confidentiality and adherence to legal and regulatory requirements.
140
True or False: All cloud deployment models are accessible by anyone.
False.
141
Fill in the blank: The _______ tier helps the user interact with the system in multitiered architecture.
Presentation
142
Which cloud service model allows for the use of applications developed and hosted by a cloud provider?
SaaS.
143
What is the role of a project manager regarding stakeholder satisfaction?
Oversee all work required to complete project goals to stakeholder satisfaction.
144
What type of data is considered structured?
Data that consists of tables and relationships.
145
What is the definition of sensitive personally identifiable information (SPII)?
Data that can cause harm or inconvenience if linked to an individual.
146
What is the responsibility of the IT department regarding documentation?
Documenting various systems, applications, databases, and computing infrastructure.
147
What does rapid elasticity in cloud computing mean?
The ability of the cloud to scale resources up or down based on demand.
148
What type of cloud is described when an application developed by a cloud provider and hosted on the cloud is used?
SaaS
## Footnote
SaaS stands for Software as a Service, where applications are hosted in the cloud and managed by the provider.
149
In the multitenant model of cloud computing, which of the following is utilized by providers?
Resource pooling
## Footnote
Resource pooling allows multiple customers to share resources efficiently.
150
Which organization is responsible for publishing rules that control personally identifiable information standards (PII) in the United States?
NIST
## Footnote
NIST stands for the National Institute of Standards and Technology.
151
All of the following are examples of secondary storage except which one?
RAM
## Footnote
RAM (Random Access Memory) is considered primary storage.
152
This is a breach of confidentiality. True or False?
True
## Footnote
Breach of confidentiality refers to unauthorized access to sensitive information.
153
Significant fines could be imposed on the organization as a result of exposing PII data. True or False?
True
## Footnote
Organizations can face penalties under laws governing data protection.
154
This could cause emotional distress to those individuals who were impacted by the exposure. True or False?
True
## Footnote
Exposure of personal information can lead to emotional and psychological impacts on affected individuals.
155
According to NIST, there are _______ levels of impact that can affect the organization.
four
## Footnote
NIST categorizes impacts to help organizations assess risks associated with data breaches.
