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CompTIA Project+ Study Guide—Exam PK0-005 > 2 - Understanding IT Fundamentals > Flashcards

2 - Understanding IT Fundamentals Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary factors that influence project management?

A

Environmental, social, and governance factors, as well as privacy and confidentiality concerns.

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2
Q

What is the main focus of the CompTIA Project + exam?

A

Technology-related projects.

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3
Q

What is the role of the project manager?

A

Integrating all components and artifacts of a project and applying project management tools and techniques.

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4
Q

List some key activities of a project manager.

A
  • Managing the team
  • Managing communication
  • Defining scope
  • Managing risk
  • Managing budgets
  • Managing time
  • Managing quality assurance
  • Planning
  • Negotiating
  • Solving problems
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5
Q

True or False: Good soft skills are less critical than technical skills for project managers.

A

False.

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6
Q

What are some important soft skills for project managers?

A
  • Leadership
  • Communicating
  • Listening
  • Organizational skills
  • Time management
  • Planning
  • Problem solving
  • Consensus building
  • Resolving conflict
  • Negotiating
  • Team building
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7
Q

What does effective leadership in project management involve?

A

Rallying people around a vision, motivating them, setting strategic goals, and aligning diverse groups.

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8
Q

How much time do project managers typically spend communicating?

A

Up to 90 percent of their time.

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9
Q

What are the critical components of a communication strategy for a project?

A
  • What you want to communicate
  • How often you’ll communicate
  • The audience receiving the communication
  • The medium used for communicating
  • Monitoring the outcome of the communication
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10
Q

Fill in the blank: There is no such thing as a project that doesn’t have _______.

A

problems.

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11
Q

What is the process of obtaining mutually acceptable agreements called?

A

Negotiating.

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12
Q

What are some responsibilities of a project manager regarding organization and time management?

A
  • Tracking schedules and budgets
  • Conducting regular team meetings
  • Reviewing team member reports
  • Tracking vendor progress
  • Communicating with stakeholders
  • Managing change requests
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13
Q

What are ESG factors?

A

Environmental, social, and governance factors that impact projects and organizations.

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14
Q

What do environmental factors refer to in project management?

A

The impacts your project may have on the environment.

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15
Q

What do social factors pertain to in the context of project management?

A

Interactions and relationships among stakeholders, including project team members and customers.

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16
Q

What are governance factors in project management?

A

The way the project will be governed, including reporting, monitoring performance, accountability, and transparency.

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17
Q

List some additional ESG factors to consider in project management.

A
  • Awareness of company vision, mission statement, and values
  • Project impact on company brand value
  • Project impact on local and global environment
  • Awareness of applicable regulations and standards
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18
Q

What is data confidentiality?

A

Protecting sensitive data and individual identities to comply with regulations.

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19
Q

What are the two types of data confidentiality mentioned?

A
  • Personally identifiable information (PII)
  • Personal health information (PHI)
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20
Q

True or False: The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) provides frameworks for protecting information.

A

True.

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21
Q

What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

A

Any information about an individual maintained by an agency, including data that can distinguish or trace an individual’s identity and information linked to an individual.

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22
Q

What does NIST stand for?

A

National Institute of Standards and Technology

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23
Q

List examples of sensitive personally identifiable information (SPII).

A
  • Social Security number
  • Passport number
  • Driver’s license number
  • Taxpayer identification number
  • Alien registration number
  • Patient identification number
  • Financial account or credit card number
  • Facial geometry
  • Biometric identifiers (fingerprints, retina scans, voice signature, etc.)
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24
Q

What is the difference between PII and SPII?

A

SPII is a subset of PII that includes stand-alone data elements which can identify an individual and cause harm if misused.

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25
Q

What is linkable data?

A

Data that can be associated with an individual but is not sensitive on its own.

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26
Q

Provide examples of linkable data.

A
  • Name
  • Maiden name
  • Alias
  • Street address
  • Email address
  • IP or MAC address
  • Telephone numbers
  • Date of birth
  • Place of birth
  • Religion
  • Financial information
  • Family members
  • Weight
  • Activities
  • Employment
  • Medical information
  • Educational information
  • Zip code
  • Age range
  • Criminal history
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27
Q

What does PHI stand for?

A

Protected Health Information

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28
Q

What does HIPAA regulate?

A

The safekeeping of electronic protected health information (ePHI)

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29
Q

What are the three impact levels for a breach of confidentiality according to NIST?

A
  • Low
  • Moderate
  • High
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30
Q

True or False: A breach of confidentiality occurs when PII is exposed to unauthorized individuals.

A

True

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31
Q

What is the purpose of anonymizing data?

A

To take identifiable information and deidentify it, making it generalized and less precise.

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32
Q

What is the role of a project manager concerning PII?

A

To understand and ensure compliance with regulations regarding the handling of PII data.

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33
Q

What is the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA)?

A

A regulation that establishes privacy standards for residents of California.

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34
Q

List some major privacy regulations.

A
  • HIPAA
  • PIPEDA
  • GDPR
  • CCPA
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35
Q

What organization is known for establishing standards for product safety?

A

Underwriters Laboratories (UL)

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36
Q

What does AOC stand for in the context of wine?

A

Appellation d’Origine Contrôlée

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37
Q

What is the primary ingredient in wine?

A

Grapes

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38
Q

What does IT stand for?

A

Information Technology

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39
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ involves the use of computers and networks to create, store, process, and transmit electronic information.

A

Information Technology

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40
Q

What is the significance of the AOC designation on a wine bottle?

A

It certifies the region and standards of wine production.

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41
Q

What is a potential consequence of a breach of confidentiality?

A

Financial harm, social impacts, identity theft, discrimination, emotional distress, loss of reputation.

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42
Q

What does the acronym GDPR stand for?

A

General Data Protection Regulation

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43
Q

What is the primary role of IT in organizations?

A

To create, store, process, and transmit electronic information

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44
Q

What are the three areas within IT that are involved in implementing projects with technology components?

A

Infrastructure, cloud models, software

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45
Q

Define infrastructure in the context of IT.

A

All the hardware, software, servers, networks, data centers, and more that comprise and support IT activities

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46
Q

What are computing services?

A

Infrastructure that provides computing capability to the organization or its customers, including servers, networking, databases, storage, and software

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47
Q

What is multitiered architecture?

A

Physically separating technology functions into their own modules

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48
Q

What are the three tiers of a common multitiered architecture?

A
  • Presentation tier
  • Application tier
  • Data tier
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49
Q

What does the presentation tier do?

A

Collects and displays the information the user needs to interact with the system

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50
Q

What is the application tier also known as?

A

Middle tier

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51
Q

What is the purpose of the data tier?

A

To store the information that was collected and processed

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52
Q

What is a computer network?

A

A collection of devices connected to each other using cables or wireless communication

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53
Q

What are the two primary devices used in networking?

A
  • Routers
  • Switches
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54
Q

What is the difference between wired and wireless networks?

A

Wired networks use physical cables, while wireless networks use radio waves

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55
Q

What is a Local Area Network (LAN)?

A

A network used in a specific location such as a school or a business

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56
Q

What is a Wide Area Network (WAN)?

A

A network that covers a larger area and connects multiple locations

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57
Q

What is a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)?

A

A network that covers a city or metropolitan area

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58
Q

What is primary storage?

A

Storage the computer uses to operate and perform, also known as internal memory

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59
Q

What are the two types of memory that the CPU relies on?

A
  • Random Access Memory (RAM)
  • Read-Only Memory (ROM)
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60
Q

What is RAM used for?

A

Short-term, temporary storage to run applications and process data

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61
Q

What is ROM primarily used for?

A

Firmware updates

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62
Q

What is secondary storage?

A

Nonvolatile storage that includes devices like hard drives, flash drives, and DVDs

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63
Q

What is Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

A

Software on dedicated hardware that performs data storage and file sharing requests

64
Q

What is a Storage Area Network (SAN)?

A

A complex system used for data storage that provides data reliability and fast access

65
Q

What is a data warehouse?

A

A system that collects, organizes, centralizes, and manages data for analysis

66
Q

What is the significance of documentation in IT?

A

It helps prevent mistakes, reduces costs, and improves productivity

67
Q

What should documentation include?

A
  • Inventory of hardware and software
  • Diagrams of infrastructure
  • Change logs
68
Q

What is cloud computing?

A

The sharing of software, information, data, and services to computers on demand

69
Q

What is on-demand self-service in cloud computing?

A

The ability for cloud customers to provision services as needed

70
Q

What are examples of cloud storage services?

A
  • OneDrive
  • DropBox
  • Google Drive
71
Q

What is the NIST Definition of Cloud Computing?

A

It defines the characteristics of the cloud as it exists today.

The publication can be found at https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/legacy/sp/nistspecialpublication800-145.pdf.

72
Q

What is meant by on-demand self-service in cloud computing?

A

Cloud customers can provision services as needed.

73
Q

What are the two layers of cloud infrastructure?

A
  • Physical layer (hardware resources)
  • Abstraction layer (software enabling cloud functions)
74
Q

What is resource pooling in cloud computing?

A

It allows the cloud provider to use the same resources to serve multiple consumers using a multitenant model.

75
Q

Define rapid elasticity in the context of cloud services.

A

The ability to respond to a consumer’s need for more (or less) resources automatically.

76
Q

How do cloud providers charge for their services?

A

Using a measured service model based on consumer usage.

77
Q

Name the four types of cloud service models according to NIST.

A
  • Software as a Service (SaaS)
  • Platform as a Service (PaaS)
  • Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
  • Anything as a Service (XaaS)
78
Q

What is Software as a Service (SaaS)?

A

A model where cloud consumers can access applications on demand that are developed and run on a cloud infrastructure.

79
Q

What are some examples of SaaS?

A
  • Salesforce
  • Microsoft Office 365
  • Google Workspace
  • Netflix
80
Q

What does Platform as a Service (PaaS) allow developers to do?

A

Build and deploy applications in the cloud using software tools supplied by the PaaS provider.

81
Q

What is Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?

A

A model that allows cloud consumers to provision servers, storage, networking, and operating systems on demand.

82
Q

What is Anything as a Service (XaaS)?

A

Any IT function converted to a cloud model for use by the organization.

83
Q

List some potential disadvantages of ‘as a service’ models.

A
  • Can be costly
  • Limited control over maintenance
  • Potential performance issues
  • Risk of outages
  • Security concerns
84
Q

What is a Private Cloud?

A

A cloud used exclusively by a single organization, either managed by the organization or a third party.

85
Q

Define Community Cloud.

A

A cloud used by a community of customers with similar needs, allowing resource sharing.

86
Q

What is a Public Cloud?

A

A model offered by a third party intended for use by anyone.

87
Q

Describe a Hybrid Cloud.

A

A combination of private, community, or public clouds that allows data and application sharing.

88
Q

What are the primary functions typically offered by ERP systems?

A
  • Financial management
  • Human resources management
89
Q

What is Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)?

A

Systems that help companies coordinate back-office business activities.

90
Q

What is Customer Relationship Management (CRM) software?

A

Software that helps businesses manage their relationships and interactions with customers.

91
Q

Fill in the blank: ERP systems allow organizations to coordinate their ______ functions within a single system.

A

back-office

92
Q

True or False: In the IaaS model, the consumer has control over the underlying infrastructure.

93
Q

What is Customer Relationship Management (CRM)?

A

CRM software helps businesses manage their relationships and interactions with their customers and future customers.

94
Q

How do CRMs aggregate customer data?

A

CRMs aggregate data about the customer in one place for efficient interaction.

95
Q

What information can a technician see in a CRM when responding to a customer service question?

A

The technician can see the customer’s purchase history, including appliance details, model number, and service interactions.

96
Q

What type of systems are CRMs typically?

A

CRMs are typically cloud-based systems.

97
Q

What is structured data?

A

Structured data is organized in meaningful ways and can be easily retrieved and modified.

98
Q

What are some examples of structured data?

A
  • Name * Age * Social Security number
99
Q

What is unstructured data?

A

Unstructured data does not adhere to a data model and is not easily stored or processed.

100
Q

What are some examples of unstructured data?

A
  • Videos * Web pages * Images * Emails
101
Q

What is a relational database (RDBMS)?

A

A collection of structured information that is related to each other, organized using rows and columns.

102
Q

What does a primary key do in a relational database?

A

It uniquely identifies a record in a table.

103
Q

What is an Electronic Document and Record Management System (EDRMS)?

A

EDRMS is a software system that manages electronic documents, records, and data from creation to disposal.

104
Q

What are the two main components of a Content Management System (CMS)?

A
  • Content management application * Content delivery application
105
Q

What is the purpose of financial systems?

A

Financial systems manage the accounting and budgeting aspects of a business.

106
Q

What is the difference between financial accounting and budgeting?

A

Financial accounting records past transactions; budgeting forecasts future income and expenses.

107
Q

True or False: Budgeting is more precise than accounting.

108
Q

What are some keys to a successful software implementation?

A
  • Accurate requirements * Involvement of the right resources * Defining critical milestones * Comprehensive testing * Rigorous communication * Risk management * Change management * Lessons learned
109
Q

What is the goal of the ERP implementation for the Widget organization?

A

To consolidate over 50 stand-alone systems into one ERP system.

110
Q

What is the benefit of involving subject matter experts in the ERP implementation?

A

Their expertise can help identify errors and improve the project outcome.

111
Q

What is the main focus of the Main Street Office Move project?

A

To coordinate and manage the relocation of all staff to a new centralized location.

112
Q

What is one significant cost-benefit of the new building for the organization?

A

It is energy efficient and enables all employees to be collocated.

113
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a collection of data stored electronically in a computer system.

114
Q

What is the role of the IaaS vendor in the Main Street Office Move project?

A

To host most of the servers, databases, and applications the organization uses.

115
Q

What is the primary benefit of collocating employees in a new energy-efficient building?

A

Reduces travel for meetings, saves on fuel costs, reduces fleet size, increases productivity.

116
Q

What does IaaS stand for?

A

Infrastructure as a Service.

117
Q

What are key general management skills required by a project manager?

A
  • Leadership
  • Communication
  • Problem-solving
  • Negotiation
  • Organization
  • Time management
118
Q

What does ESG stand for in project management?

A

Environmental, Social, and Governance.

119
Q

What is PII?

A

Personally Identifiable Information.

120
Q

What is the difference between PII and SPII?

A

SPII is a subset of PII that can cause harm or inconvenience if disclosed.

121
Q

What is PHI?

A

Personal Health Information.

122
Q

What is a data warehouse?

A

A system that collects, organizes, centralizes, and manages data for decision-making.

123
Q

What does cloud computing enable?

A

Sharing of software, information, data, and services on demand.

124
Q

Name the four primary cloud service models.

A
  • SaaS
  • PaaS
  • IaaS
  • XaaS
125
Q

What is a private cloud?

A

A cloud used exclusively by a single organization.

126
Q

What is the purpose of ERP systems?

A

To coordinate back-office business activities like accounting and human resources.

127
Q

What is a CMS?

A

Content Management System, used to manage website content.

128
Q

What is the role of a project manager?

A

Oversee every aspect of a project from start to finish.

129
Q

What is multitiered architecture?

A

Separating technology functions into their own modules.

130
Q

What are the two types of memory used by the CPU?

131
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary storage?

A

Primary storage is internal memory; secondary storage is external memory.

132
Q

What is the function of computing services?

A

Provides computing capability to the organization.

133
Q

What is resource pooling in cloud computing?

A

Using the same resources to serve multiple consumers in a multitenant model.

134
Q

What does rapid elasticity mean in cloud environments?

A

The cloud can grow or shrink based on customer needs.

135
Q

What is the difference between LAN and WAN?

A

LAN is a local area network; WAN is a wide area network.

136
Q

What is an EDRMS?

A

Electronic Document and Record Management System.

137
Q

What is a database?

A

A collection of data stored electronically in a computer system.

138
Q

What is the significance of documenting IT infrastructure?

A

It includes inventories, serial numbers, drawings, change logs, etc.

139
Q

What is the purpose of compliance and privacy considerations in project management?

A

To ensure data confidentiality and adherence to legal and regulatory requirements.

140
Q

True or False: All cloud deployment models are accessible by anyone.

141
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ tier helps the user interact with the system in multitiered architecture.

A

Presentation

142
Q

Which cloud service model allows for the use of applications developed and hosted by a cloud provider?

143
Q

What is the role of a project manager regarding stakeholder satisfaction?

A

Oversee all work required to complete project goals to stakeholder satisfaction.

144
Q

What type of data is considered structured?

A

Data that consists of tables and relationships.

145
Q

What is the definition of sensitive personally identifiable information (SPII)?

A

Data that can cause harm or inconvenience if linked to an individual.

146
Q

What is the responsibility of the IT department regarding documentation?

A

Documenting various systems, applications, databases, and computing infrastructure.

147
Q

What does rapid elasticity in cloud computing mean?

A

The ability of the cloud to scale resources up or down based on demand.

148
Q

What type of cloud is described when an application developed by a cloud provider and hosted on the cloud is used?

A

SaaS

SaaS stands for Software as a Service, where applications are hosted in the cloud and managed by the provider.

149
Q

In the multitenant model of cloud computing, which of the following is utilized by providers?

A

Resource pooling

Resource pooling allows multiple customers to share resources efficiently.

150
Q

Which organization is responsible for publishing rules that control personally identifiable information standards (PII) in the United States?

A

NIST

NIST stands for the National Institute of Standards and Technology.

151
Q

All of the following are examples of secondary storage except which one?

A

RAM

RAM (Random Access Memory) is considered primary storage.

152
Q

This is a breach of confidentiality. True or False?

A

True

Breach of confidentiality refers to unauthorized access to sensitive information.

153
Q

Significant fines could be imposed on the organization as a result of exposing PII data. True or False?

A

True

Organizations can face penalties under laws governing data protection.

154
Q

This could cause emotional distress to those individuals who were impacted by the exposure. True or False?

A

True

Exposure of personal information can lead to emotional and psychological impacts on affected individuals.

155
Q

According to NIST, there are _______ levels of impact that can affect the organization.

A

four

NIST categorizes impacts to help organizations assess risks associated with data breaches.

CompTIA Project+ Study Guide—Exam PK0-005 (11 decks)

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