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CompTIA Project+ Study Guide—Exam PK0-005 > 0 - Introduction > Flashcards

0 - Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main focus of the CompTIA Project+ exam?

A

Testing knowledge of the concepts and processes involved in project management.

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2
Q

What does CompTIA Project+ certification acknowledge?

A

It acknowledges various project management methodologies but is vendor neutral.

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3
Q

What are some key project management concepts discussed in the Project+ study guide?

A
  • Defining the requirements
  • Creating the project charter document
  • Creating the scope document
  • Planning the project
  • Assessing and managing risk
  • Closing out the project
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4
Q

What is the target audience for the Project+ certification?

A

Individuals interested in project management, especially in IT projects.

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5
Q

Why is certification in project management becoming increasingly important?

A

It improves credibility with stakeholders and customers, and provides opportunities for positions and advancements.

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6
Q

What is one benefit of obtaining Project+ certification?

A

Demonstrates proof of professional achievement.

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7
Q

Fill in the blank: The Project+ certification can increase your _______ in the job market.

A

marketability

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8
Q

What does the Project+ certification provide a prerequisite for?

A

Advanced project management training, such as CAPM® or PMP®.

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9
Q

How many multiple-choice and drag-and-drop questions are on the Project+ exam?

A

A maximum of 95 questions.

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10
Q

What score is required to pass the Project+ exam?

A

710 on a scale of 100–900.

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11
Q

What type of content does Chapter 1 of the study guide cover?

A

An overview of project management and basic terminology.

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12
Q

What is the focus of Chapter 2 in the Project+ study guide?

A

Understanding IT fundamentals related to project management.

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13
Q

What does Chapter 3 discuss?

A

Creating the project charter and identifying stakeholders.

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the work breakdown structure discussed in Chapter 5?

A

To develop a detailed project schedule by identifying and sequencing tasks.

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15
Q

What does Chapter 6 cover regarding resource management?

A

Organizational structures, resource needs, personnel management, and conflict resolution.

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16
Q

What key topics are included in Chapter 7?

A
  • Cost estimating
  • Cost budgeting
  • Risk activities and strategies
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17
Q

True or False: The Project+ exam requires prerequisites.

A

False

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18
Q

What online resources are available to aid in Project+ exam preparation?

A
  • Sample tests
  • Flashcards
  • Study tools
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19
Q

What is recommended to maximize the benefit from the study guide?

A

Follow a structured study method, including taking assessment tests and reviewing chapter questions.

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20
Q

What should you do before arriving at the exam center?

A

Bring two forms of ID and arrive early to relax and review materials.

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21
Q

Fill in the blank: The interactive online learning environment includes a _______ of key terms.

A

glossary

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22
Q

What should you do upon arriving early at the exam center?

A

Relax and review your study materials

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23
Q

What should you ensure when reading exam questions?

A

Know exactly what the question is asking

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24
Q

What happens if you leave questions unanswered on the exam?

A

Unanswered questions are scored against you

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25
Q

What should you do when a question has multiple correct responses?

A

Follow the instructions at the end of the question to select the proper number of responses

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26
Q

What strategy can improve your odds on uncertain multiple-choice questions?

A

Use a process of elimination to remove incorrect responses

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27
Q

Where can you find the latest pricing and updates for the exam?

A

Refer to the CompTIA site at www.comptia.org

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28
Q

What are the four domains tested in the Project+ exam?

A
  • 1.0 Project Management Concepts
  • 2.0 Project Life Cycle Phases
  • 3.0 Tools and Documentation
  • 4.0 Basics of IT and Governance
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29
Q

What is the purpose of exam objectives?

A

They are competency areas that cover specific topics of project management

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30
Q

What is subject to change without prior notice according to CompTIA?

A

Exam objectives

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31
Q

Which chapters cover the exam objective of explaining basic project characteristics?

A

Chapters 1, 4, 9

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32
Q

What is the focus of the exam objective 1.2?

A

Compare and contrast agile vs. waterfall concepts

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33
Q

Which chapters are related to performing risk management activities?

A

Chapters 7, 10

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34
Q

What is the purpose of project artifacts in the discovery/concept preparation phase?

A

Explain their value for a project

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35
Q

Which phase involves activities during project initiation?

A

Project Life Cycle Phases

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36
Q

What is included in the tools and documentation domain?

A
  • Use appropriate tools throughout the project lifecycle
  • Compare project management productivity tools
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37
Q

What does ESG stand for in project management?

A

Environmental, Social, and Governance

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38
Q

What document authorizes the project to begin?

A

Project charter

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39
Q

Which cost estimating technique involves rolling up estimates from work packages?

A

Bottom-up

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40
Q

What is a fishbone diagram used for?

A

Quality control tools to examine the quality of work

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41
Q

What type of communication is email considered?

A

Asynchronous communication

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42
Q

What does an acceptance criterion signify in a project?

A

User story requirements were met satisfactorily

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43
Q

What is the purpose of a change request?

A

To describe the type of change requested and its impacts

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44
Q

What is the critical path in project management?

A

The longest sequence of tasks that determines the project duration

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45
Q

What is the role of the project sponsor?

A

Provides or obtains financial resources and monitors major milestones

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46
Q

What is the purpose of a weighted scoring model?

A

Used in the vendor selection process to pick a winning bidder

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47
Q

What is a run chart used for?

A

To show the remaining time and work effort for an iteration or sprint

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48
Q

What is a milestone in project management?

A

A key deliverable completion indicator

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49
Q

Which factors influence communication methods?

A
  • Language barriers
  • Technological barriers
  • Cultural differences
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50
Q

What does the term ‘buffer’ refer to in project management?

A

Extra time added to the project schedule to account for risks

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51
Q

What is the purpose of a project close report?

A

Describes what went well and what didn’t go well on the project

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52
Q

What does the acronym PII stand for?

A

Personally Identifiable Information

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53
Q

What is a project charter?

A

A document that formally authorizes a project

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54
Q

What is the purpose of a stakeholder register?

A

To analyze and document stakeholder engagement

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55
Q

What is the three-point estimate technique?

A

Uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to determine averages

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56
Q

Which statement describes an assumption?

A

Our senior web developer will be available to work on this project

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57
Q

What is the purpose of compliance with laws and regulations in project management?

A

Failure to comply may result in sanctions, reputational damage, and financial penalties

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58
Q

What is the process of determining the total project cost?

A

Cost estimation

Cost estimation is crucial for project planning and budget management.

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59
Q

Which of these is not an example of a project selection method?

A

C. Top-down estimating

Project selection methods include cost-benefit analysis, expert judgment, and scoring models.

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60
Q

What defines whether user story requirements were met satisfactorily at the end of the sprint?

A

Acceptance criteria

Acceptance criteria are essential for validating the completion of user stories.

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61
Q

What type of diagram is a run chart?

A

A histogram that rank-orders data by frequency over time

Run charts help visualize trends in data over time.

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62
Q

What type of dependency requires following a specific procedure, inspecting the results, and signing off?

A

C. Mandatory

Mandatory dependencies are required for project tasks and cannot be bypassed.

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63
Q

What describes the final, approved version of the project schedule?

A

Schedule baseline

A schedule baseline is used to monitor project progress and prevent schedule risks.

64
Q

Which environment does not involve writing code and making changes?

A

D. Infrastructure

Development, production, and beta stages are environments where coding occurs.

65
Q

Which category of contract is least commonly used in procurement?

A

D. Requests for proposal

Common contract types include time-and-materials, cost-reimbursable, and fixed-price.

66
Q

What does risk analysis include?

A

Identifying risk, determining a risk response plan, determining probability and impact

Risk analysis is critical for project risk management.

67
Q

What are performance measurements defined when creating the project management plan?

A

KPI

KPIs are monitored to ensure the project meets its goals.

68
Q

What type of organizational structure allows project managers to have complete control over team members?

A

A. Projectized

In a projectized structure, project managers have full authority over the project team.

69
Q

What term describes a key date that cannot change in a project?

A

A. A constraint

Constraints can significantly impact project planning and execution.

70
Q

Which meeting type is not recognized according to CompTIA exam objectives?

A

A. Decisive

Recognized meeting types include cooperative, informative, and collaborative.

71
Q

What is a temporary way of resolving conflict that emphasizes areas of agreement over disagreement?

A

A. Smoothing

Smoothing is a conflict resolution technique that aims for temporary harmony.

72
Q

Which two describe secondary storage?

A

A. SAN, B. Flash drive

Secondary storage is used for data that is not actively in use and can include various devices.

73
Q

Which type of project ending is not recognized?

A

C. Addition

Project endings include integration, starvation, extinction, and attrition.

74
Q

Which IT policy outlines the procedures for conducting a background check?

A

A. Physical security policy

Physical security policies address procedures for personnel vetting.

75
Q

What do project managers spend up to 90 percent of their time doing?

A

D. Communicating

Communication is a core responsibility of project managers.

76
Q

In which cloud service model does the provider have the most control?

A

C. SaaS

Software as a Service (SaaS) provides the highest level of control for the provider.

77
Q

What project management methodology divides projects into logically organized stages?

A

C. PRINCE2

PRINCE2 is a structured project management method emphasizing stages and principles.

78
Q

Who is responsible for time and cost estimates for project tasks?

A

C. Scheduler

The scheduler plays a vital role in project planning and management.

79
Q

What should a new project manager focus on when taking over an incomplete project?

A

B. Project charter

The project charter outlines the project’s objectives and scope.

80
Q

Which record is not managed by a records management system?

A

B. Employee user access policy

Records management systems typically handle formal documentation and records.

81
Q

What is the process of breaking down high-level project requirements into tasks called?

A

B. Decomposing

Decomposing is essential for creating actionable project plans.

82
Q

What describes a conflict arising from different organizational styles among team members?

A

C. This is a common cause of conflict.

Conflicts can arise from diverse working styles and preferences.

83
Q

Which cloud deployment model is best for sharing data among researchers?

A

D. Community cloud

Community clouds are designed for collaborative projects among specific groups.

84
Q

What is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines project work?

A

C. Work breakdown structure

A work breakdown structure (WBS) is crucial for project planning.

85
Q

Which policy contains procedures for removable media encryption?

A

B. Digital security policy

Digital security policies address data protection measures.

86
Q

What is the term for exposed PII data?

A

C. Breach of confidentiality

Breaches of confidentiality can have serious legal and reputational consequences.

87
Q

What team structure could help ensure all IT members are engaged in a project?

A

C. DevSecOps team

DevSecOps fosters collaboration across development, security, and operations.

88
Q

What is the best way to prevent scope creep?

A

A. Make sure the requirements are thoroughly defined and documented.

Clear documentation helps manage stakeholder expectations.

89
Q

What should a project manager explain when a sponsor dismisses the need for closure documents?

A

B. You explain the sponsor is the one who needs to sign off on the documents.

Formal closure documents are essential for project completion.

90
Q

Which software manages documents and records in electronic format?

A

C. EDRMS

Electronic Document and Records Management Systems (EDRMS) are vital for organization.

91
Q

If a task starts on January 20 and takes 40 hours with an 8-hour workday, when will it end?

A

D. January 26

Excluding weekends, the task will complete on January 26.

92
Q

What is the best way to provide real-time project information to a sponsor?

A

A. By creating a project dashboard with scope, cost, and time elements

Dashboards offer visual insights into project status.

93
Q

What type of data does customer information like name and address represent?

A

C. SPII

Sensitive Personal Identifiable Information (SPII) requires careful handling.

94
Q

What key meeting is held after the project charter is signed?

A

A. Project kickoff

The project kickoff officially starts the project execution phase.

95
Q

Who are the stakeholders responsible for meeting organizational goals?

A

D. Senior management

Senior management plays a critical role in project support and resource allocation.

96
Q

What serves as a placeholder for ideas that are not fully formed in agile methodology?

A

C. Backlog

Backlogs help manage work items that are yet to be defined as user stories.

97
Q

Which type of testing is not used to determine system operations in IT projects?

A

A. Progression

Common testing types include smoke, end-to-end, stress, and user acceptance.

98
Q

Who is responsible for designing solutions for the technology enterprise?

A

C. Architect

Architects play a key role in establishing technical frameworks.

99
Q

What are two types of charts used to display project schedules?

A

B. Gantt chart, C. Milestone chart

Gantt and milestone charts help visualize project timelines.

100
Q

What does HIPAA specifically focus on protecting?

A

D. Protecting and safekeeping ePHI

HIPAA regulations are critical for safeguarding electronic protected health information.

101
Q

Who removes obstacles for the team and assists the product owner in agile processes?

A

B. Scrum master

The Scrum master facilitates the agile process and team collaboration.

102
Q

What demonstrates competency and integrity in project management?

A

D. Trust building

Trust building is essential for effective team dynamics and leadership.

103
Q

What type of gates are used as approval points in projects?

A

A. Quality gates

Quality gates ensure that project deliverables meet established standards before proceeding.

104
Q

What is the bottom-up cost-estimating method?

A

The most precise estimating method that starts at the activities in the work package and rolls them up for a total estimate.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

105
Q

During which phase of the project are tools used to monitor quality?

A

The Executing phase.

For more information, please see Chapter 10.

106
Q

What are functional/extended resources?

A

Resources needed for specific tasks or short periods on the project, may include stakeholders or subject matter experts.

For more information, please see Chapter 6.

107
Q

What are assumptions in project planning?

A

Things believed to be true for planning purposes.

For more information, please see Chapter 4.

108
Q

What is a communication trigger?

A

Task completion.

For more information, please see Chapter 8.

109
Q

True or False: All options are true regarding the topic discussed.

A

True.

For more information, please see Chapter 2.

110
Q

What is a weighted scoring model?

A

A tool that weights evaluation criteria and provides a way to score vendor responses.

For more information, please see Chapter 6.

111
Q

What do lines of communication describe?

A

How many lines of communication exist between participants.

For more information, please see Chapter 8.

112
Q

What are ESG factors?

A

Environmental, Social, and Governance factors that influence and impact the project.

For more information, please see Chapter 2.

113
Q

What do lessons learned include?

A

What went well and what didn’t go well on the project.

For more information, please see Chapter 10.

114
Q

What do burndown charts show?

A

The remaining time and work effort for an iteration or sprint.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

115
Q

What is the cost baseline?

A

The approved, expected cost of the project.

For more information, please see Chapter 7.

116
Q

What does the project charter do?

A

Authorizes the project to begin.

For more information, please see Chapter 3.

117
Q

What is the payback period?

A

A technique that calculates the expected cash inflows over time to determine how many periods it will take to recover the original investment.

For more information, please see Chapter 1.

118
Q

What are the elements of a change request?

A

All options are elements of a change request.

For more information, please see Chapter 9.

119
Q

What are objectives in project management?

A

Specific and measurable outcomes expected at the conclusion of the project.

For more information, please see Chapter 4.

120
Q

What do milestones signal in a project?

A

Completion of key deliverables.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

121
Q

What is the stakeholder register?

A

Where information about stakeholders, including analysis details, is documented.

For more information, please see Chapter 3.

122
Q

What are the five stages of team development?

A

Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.

For more information, please see Chapter 6.

123
Q

What is sensitive personally identifiable information (SPII)?

A

Data elements that can identify or trace an individual and could cause harm if used inappropriately.

For more information, please see Chapter 2.

124
Q

What does three-point estimating technique involve?

A

Averaging the most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic estimates to determine overall cost or duration estimate.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

125
Q

What is asynchronous communication?

A

Communication that does not happen in real-time and does not require an immediate response.

For more information, please see Chapter 8.

126
Q

What is a buffer in project scheduling?

A

Extra time added to the schedule to account for risks or unforeseen issues.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

127
Q

Do cost estimates have a quality factor built into them?

A

No, cost estimates do not include a quality factor.

For more information, please see Chapter 7.

128
Q

What are project selection techniques?

A

Cost–benefit analysis, expert judgment, and scoring model.

For more information, please see Chapter 1.

129
Q

What are acceptance criteria?

A

Standards to determine whether deliverables are complete and meet user story requirements.

For more information, please see Chapter 4.

130
Q

What is a Pareto diagram?

A

A diagram that rank-orders data by frequency over time.

For more information, please see Chapter 10.

131
Q

What are discretionary dependencies?

A

Dependencies that are often process- or procedure-driven.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

132
Q

What is the schedule baseline?

A

The final, approved version of the schedule signed by stakeholders.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

133
Q

What are the three categories of contracts used to procure goods and services?

A
  • Time-and-materials
  • Cost-reimbursable
  • Fixed-price

For more information, please see Chapter 6.

134
Q

What is key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A

Measurable elements of project success defined in the project management plan.

For more information, please see Chapter 10.

135
Q

What describes a projectized organization?

A

An organization where the project manager works solely in project management and has authority over team members.

For more information, please see Chapter 6.

136
Q

What is a constraint in project management?

A

Factors that dictate or restrict the actions of the project team.

For more information, please see Chapter 4.

137
Q

What are the three types of meetings in project management?

A
  • Decisive
  • Informative
  • Collaborative

For more information, please see Chapter 8.

138
Q

What is smoothing in conflict resolution?

A

A lose-lose technique that temporarily resolves conflict.

For more information, please see Chapter 6.

139
Q

What is integration in project management?

A

When resources are distributed to other areas of the organization.

For more information, please see Chapter 10.

140
Q

What is the role of the project sponsor?

A

Responsible for signing off on the completion of the project and authorizing resources.

For more information, please see Chapter 10.

141
Q

What does EDRMS stand for?

A

Electronic Document and Record Management Systems.

For more information, please see Chapter 2.

142
Q

When does the project kickoff meeting occur?

A

After the project charter is signed and/or during the Executing process.

For more information, please see Chapter 3.

143
Q

What are epics in project management?

A

Placeholders for big ideas that are broken down into user stories as the project progresses.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

144
Q

What is the purpose of testing in project management?

A

To determine if the system operates as expected and functions correctly.

For more information, please see Chapter 10.

145
Q

What are epics in project management?

A

Epics are placeholders that contain big ideas that are not yet fully formed that are broken down into user stories as the project progresses.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

146
Q

What is the purpose of testing in a project?

A

Testing is used to determine if the system operates as expected and to ensure all the functions, calculations, and features perform as planned. Progression is not a type of test.

For more information, please see Chapter 10.

147
Q

Who designs solutions and services for an enterprise?

A

IT architects design solutions and services for the enterprise, business applications, infrastructure, and more.

For more information, please see Chapter 3.

148
Q

What roles do quality assurance technicians, subject matter experts, and engineers play in a project?

A

Quality assurance technicians ensure that the project works as designed, subject matter experts lend expertise to the project and perform the work of the project, and engineers write code and develop applications.

For more information, please see Chapter 3.

149
Q

What are the most commonly used formats to display a project schedule?

A

Gantt charts and milestone charts are the most commonly used formats to display a project schedule.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

150
Q

What does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act regulate?

A

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act provides regulations regarding the safekeeping of electronic protected health information (ePHI).

For more information, please see Chapter 2.

151
Q

What is the responsibility of the Scrum master?

A

The Scrum master is responsible for removing obstacles that are getting in the way of the team performing the work.

For more information, please see Chapter 4.

152
Q

What does the Scrum master do in addition to removing obstacles?

A

They work with the product owner to help define backlog items, and they educate team members on the agile process.

For more information, please see Chapter 4.

153
Q

What are governance gates used for in a project?

A

Governance gates are used as approval points along the project.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

154
Q

What are quality gates used for in a project?

A

Quality gates are used to determine if the work meets quality standards.

For more information, please see Chapter 5.

155
Q

True or False: CompTIA recognizes approval gates and milestone gates.

A

False

CompTIA does not recognize approval gates or milestone gates.

156
Q

What is an example of trust building in project management?

A

As a project manager, you must do what you say you’ll do and demonstrate the traits stated in the question.

For more information, please see Chapter 6.

CompTIA Project+ Study Guide—Exam PK0-005 (11 decks)

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