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Ground School - C Middleton > 6 Aircraft System II > Flashcards

6 Aircraft System II Flashcards

1
Q

Hydraulics are typically used on what aircraft components?

A
  • Flying Controls
  • Flaps
  • Undercarriage
  • Wheel brakes
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2
Q

Hydraulics are used to transmit ___ forces with rapid, _____ response to control demands.

A

HIGH forces

ACCURATE response

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3
Q

List some advantages of using hydraulics (5)

A
  • Capable of transmitting very high forces
  • Rapid and precise response to input signals
  • Good power to weight ratio
  • Simple and reliable
  • Not affected by EM interference
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4
Q

Hydraulic fluid is what is known as an ________ fluid

A

INCOMPRESSIBLE

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5
Q

List some limitations and hazards of hydraulic fluid

  • T______ and A___
  • C____________
  • F_________
  • H______ L______
A
  • Temperature and Aeration
  • Contamination
  • Flammability
  • Hazardous Liquids
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6
Q

List the key components of the hydraulic system

  • R______
  • F______
  • P___
  • A_________
  • V_____
  • A______
A
  • Reservoir
  • Filters
  • Pump
  • Accumulator
  • Valves (Pressure Control and Directional
  • Actuator
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7
Q

What is the name of the engine or motor driven positive displacement pump that the majority of hydraulic systems use?

A

Rotary Swash Plate pump

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8
Q

What does PFCU stand for? (Hydraulics)

A

Powered Flying Control Unit

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9
Q

What are PFCUs (Powered Flying Control Units) predominantly used for?

A

Assist in controlled movement of larger surfaces to counter aerodynamic forces at higher speeds.

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10
Q

What does 3 REDS on the landing gear lights designate?

A

Unit is unlocked. Moving between up and down position

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11
Q

What does 3 GREENS on the landing gear lights designate?

A

Unit is locked down.

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12
Q

When the landing gear is LOCKED UP. What coloured lights will be shown?

A

NIL

No lights will be shown when the landing gear is locked up.

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13
Q

What can be used to provide an alternative power source in the hydraulics, in the event of an emergency?

A

Ram Air Turbine (RAT)

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14
Q

List some advantages of using hydraulics (5)

A
  • Capable of transmitting very high forces
  • Rapid and precise response to input signals
  • Good power to weight ratio
  • Simple and reliable
  • Not affected by EM interference
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15
Q

Cabin pressure is typically controlled at _____ to _____ ft

A

6000-8000 ft

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16
Q

List some symptoms of Hypoxia at altitude

A
  • Marked impairment to perform even simple tasks.
  • Loss of critical judgement and willpower.
  • General lack of awareness that impairment exists.
  • Thinking is slowed
  • Reduced muscle co-ordination
  • Emotional changes. Garrulous, Euphoric or even violent.
  • Possible blueness of lips, tongue, face and finger tips.
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17
Q

List some causes of Hyperventilation

A
  • Anxiety, apprehension or fear
  • Rise in body temp
  • Whole body vibration 4-8 Hz
  • Hypoxia
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18
Q

List some symptoms of Hyperventilation

A
  • Tingling hands, feet and lips
  • Vague feeling of unreality
  • Light-headedness/dizziness
  • Faintness
  • Spasms of muscles in hands/feet
  • Impaired performance
  • Unconsciousness
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19
Q

What might give you ‘the bends’?

A

Decompression sickness

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20
Q

List some symptoms of Decompression Sickness

A
  • Bends
  • Effects on the skin
  • Chokes
  • Neurological affect
  • Collapse
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21
Q

List some symptoms of Barotrauma

A
  • Pain in ears, teeth and/or sinuses
  • Deafness
  • Ruptured eardrum
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22
Q

Why do we need pressurisation?

A
  • To fly over high obstacles
  • To climb above inclement weather
  • To improve efficiency of turbo-fan engines
  • To increase cruise speed
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23
Q

Cabin pressure is maintained around ___ to ___ ft

A

6000 to 8000 ft

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24
Q

Maximum climb rate of change of cabin altitude is ___ ft/min.

A

500 ft/min

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25
Q

Maximum descent rate of change of cabin altitude is ___ ft/min.

A

300 ft/min

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26
Q

Name an op focussed circumstance whereby normal cruise alt may not be possible

A

Aeromedical evacuation flights if patient has severe head injuries

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27
Q

List the components of the CONTROL MODULE in the pressurisation system

A
  • Cabin Pressure
  • Rate Capsule
  • Metered Orifice
  • Static Vent/Pressure
  • Altitude Capsule
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28
Q

List the components of the DISCHARGE VALVE UNIT in the pressurisation system

A
  • Control Pressure line from control module
  • Calibrated Spring
  • Diaphragm
  • Valve Outlet
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29
Q

Other than CONTROL MODULE and DISCHARGE VALVE UNIT, what other main part is in the pressurisation system?

A

SAFETY RELIEF VALVE

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30
Q

List the main components of the AirCon system

A
  • Engine
  • Primary HX
  • Cold Air Unit
  • Secondary HX
  • Mixing Chamber
  • Water Extractor
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31
Q

List the 3 types of O2 systems

A
  • Gaseous O2
  • Liquid O2
  • Molecular Sieve
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32
Q

List adv and disadv of Gaseous O2 system

A

Adv

  • Relatively simple
  • O2 is not lost to venting
  • Can be used immediately after filling

Disadv

  • Cylinders are bulky and heavy
  • No suitable as primary O2 source when weight and space at premium
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33
Q

List adv and disadv of Liquid O2 system

A

Adv

  • Reduced bulk and weight
  • Will not explode if damaged

Disadv

  • Loss by evaporation and venting
  • Must be stabilised
  • Prone to contamination
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34
Q

List adv and disadv of Molecular Sieve O2 system

A

Adv
-Efficient removal of contaminants

Disadv

  • Separate gas supply still needed for crew ejection
  • Not all MSOCs are able to be removed to provide enough O2 in rapid decompression.
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35
Q

Emergency O2 supply can be done in 2 principal forms, these are ….

A
  • Continuous Flow

- On Demand

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36
Q

Emergency O2 typically lasts for about ____

A

10 mins

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37
Q

CWS (Central Warning System) gives _____ and ____ indications in response to certain failures and events in a/c systems.

A

VISUAL and AUDIO

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38
Q

The CWS (Central Warning System) Master Control Unit will have feeds from what other systems? (6)

A
  • Fire
  • Engine
  • Electrical
  • Hydraulics
  • Pressurisation
  • Avionics
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39
Q

What does CWP stand for?

A

Central Warning Panel

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40
Q

Momentarily pushing the ____ _____ button or an ______ _____ will stop them flashing, and cancel audio tones and voice messages.

A

MASTER CAUTION

ATTENTION GETTER

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41
Q

In the event of multiple alerts, the ______ _____ will be alerted to first.

A

HIGHEST PRIORITY

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42
Q

Pressing the attention-getter cancels ALL, SOME or ONE of the Warnings or Cautions in progress?

A

ONE

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43
Q

Aural warnings ______ cancel when their cause is removed, or when they are reset manually by the pilot.

A

AUTOMATICALLY cancel

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44
Q

A ______ warning normally demands IMMEDIATE attention.

A

PRIMARY

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45
Q

A ______ warning indicates a malfunction that needs to attention but does not necessarily require immediate attention.

A

SECONDARY

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46
Q

Define a PRIMARY warning

A

One that require immediate attention

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47
Q

Define a SECONDARY warning

A

One that does not require immediate attention but should be dealt with when appropriate.

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48
Q

Name the 3 types of CWS (Central Warning System) Warnings?

A

PRIMARY
SECONDARY
ADVISORY

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49
Q

What colours are the 3 types of CWS warnings?

A

Primary - RED
Secondary - AMBER
Advisory - WHITE or BLUE

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50
Q

“CWP TEST” tests the integrity of the ____ of the CWS and NOT the associated systems.

A

PARTS

i.e. lights buttons, switches

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51
Q

The undercarriage should be as _____ as needs be while as _____ as possible.

A

STRONG as needs be while as LIGHT as possible

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52
Q

Nose and Tail undercarriages are required to ______ to allow the aircraft to be steered.

A

SWIVEL

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53
Q

List the simple basic features of a retractable undercarriage

A
  • Doors and Fairings
  • Sequencing
  • Jacks and Linkages
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54
Q

______ _____ restrain the fully retracting undercarriage against ‘g’ forces in flight and when fully extended, absorb landing loads.

A

MECHANICAL LOCKS

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55
Q

There are 2 types of MECHANICAL LOCKS. These are ….

A

UP locks

DOWN locks

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56
Q

What does 3 GREENS on the landing gear lights designate?

A

Unit is locked down.

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57
Q

What does 3 REDS on the landing gear lights designate?

A

Unit is unlocked. Moving between up and down position

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58
Q

The emergency landing gear lowering mechanism MUST be ___________ of the normal operating mechanism.

A

INDEPENDENT

Typically a one use system and will require resetting following safe completion of incident.

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59
Q

List some design criteria for an aircrafts wheel and tyre assembly

A
  • Light weight
  • Minimum size
  • Good fatigue resistance
  • Accommodation of brake unit with sufficient heat dissipating ability.
  • Easy tyre replacement.
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60
Q

Aircraft tyres are re-_____ as a matter of course to extend their life.

A

RE-TREADED

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61
Q

Brakes convert _____ energy to _____ energy. Thus reducing the speed of the aircraft.

A

convert KINETIC energy to THERMAL/HEAT energy

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62
Q

Brakes tend to be used as the final means of dissipating kinetic energy.

List other ways of reducing kinetic energy

A

Use of flaps and spoilers

Reverse thrusters or propeller reverse pitch

Arrestor wires or parachutes (tend to be last resorts)

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63
Q

Disc brakes are made out of _____ _______ materials in order to operate at the necessary temperatures.

A

CARBON COMPOSITES

64
Q

The maximum braking force should be used to minimise landing run but we must not allow the wheels to ____

65
Q

Water on the ground may cause the wheels and the aircraft to _________

66
Q

What system can be used to apply maximum brake force whilst avoiding the wheels from skidding.

A

Anti-skid system

67
Q

Name the 3 main categories of power sources

A

Primary
Auxiliary
Emergency

68
Q

List the main PRIMARY power sources

A

Generators
AC - 200V, 3 Phase, 400Hz
DC - 28V

Batteries - 24V

69
Q

List the main AUXILIARY power sources

A

Ground Power Unit (GPU)

Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

70
Q

What is the DC standard used on aircraft?

71
Q

What is the AC standard used on aircraft?

A

200V, 3 phase, 400Hz

72
Q

List some of the EMERGENCY power sources

A
  • Batteries
  • Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
  • Emergency Power Unit (EPU)
  • Airborne Auxiliary Power Unit (AAPU)
73
Q

Name the 2 types of batteries

A

PRIMARY (Non-rechargeable)

SECONDARY (Rechargeable)

74
Q

The generator will convert mechanical energy into electrical energy by E_______ I_______

A

Electromagnetic Induction

75
Q

What is the purpose of the CSDU (Constant Speed Drive Unit)?

A

To maintain a constant generator RPM and therefore a constant voltage output.

76
Q

List the 3 different pieces of power conversion equipment

A

Inverter - DC to AC

Converter - Change the frequency of primary AC supply to a different secondary frequency

Transformer/Rectifier Unit (RTU) - AC to DC

77
Q

Whenever batteries are fitted they will power the V___ DC b____

A

Vital DC busbar

78
Q

Aircraft electrical systems divide consumer services into 3 categories. These are…

A

Vital - Needed for emergencies.
Essential - Ensure safe flight during in-flight emergencies.
Non-essential - not essential to maintain flight.

79
Q

What kind of current flows at a constant voltage in one direction?

80
Q

What kind of current flows at varying voltage and cycles it’s direction?

81
Q

Aircraft system voltage must be maintained within a set tolerance over a wide range of

  • E____ S_____
  • E______ L____
A
  • Engine Speeds

- Electrical Loads

82
Q

What does LSCU stand for? (electrics)

A

Load sharing control unit

83
Q

What is the purpose of the LSCU (Load sharing control unit)?

A

Balance the loading between generators if multiple are present.

84
Q

What does CSDU stand for? (electrics)

A

Constant Speed Drive Unit

85
Q

The frequency control unit varies the speed of the generator by being connected to the ____

A

CSDU (Constant Speed Drive Unit)

86
Q

Protection devices are essential in electrical circuits to guard against fault conditions such as:

  • O___/U____ v___
  • O___ c____
  • R____ c_____
A
  • Over/Under volt
  • Over current
  • Reverse current
87
Q

What pieces of equipment protect against electrical circuit faults?

A

Circuit breakers
Reverse Circuit Cut-Out (RCCOs)
Fuses

88
Q

The output of the generator is i_____ p_______ to the input to the exciter field.

A

INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL

89
Q

The output of the generator increases. Therefore, the input to the EXCITER FIELD will _______

90
Q

What are the advantages of a bottle type O2 system?

A

Relatively Simple
O2 is not lost by venting when not in use
Can be used immediately after filling

91
Q

2 key advantages of LOX

A

Less bulk and weight

Wont explode if damaged

92
Q

Mixing chamber, secondary HX and water extractor form components from which system?

A

Air-Conditioning

93
Q

What H describes an absence of an adequate supply of O2

94
Q

What is a Molecular Sieve?

A

A molecular sieve is the 3rd type of oxygen system.

It will require a separate O2 supply to cater for rapid cabin depressurisation.

95
Q

What B is caused by an imbalance of the pressure on the eardrum when contraction and expansion of gas on the middle ear cavities and fail to balance through the nose.

A

Barotrauma

96
Q

What CO occupies haemoglobin seats and does not give them up?

A

Carbon Monoxide

97
Q

List the 4 key reasons why we need pressurisation

A
  • Fly over high obstacles
  • Climb over inclement weather
  • Improve turbo-fan efficiency
  • Increase cruise speed
98
Q

Decompression sickness has 4 key symptoms. These are

A
  • Itchy tingly skin
  • Chokes
  • Bends
  • Collapse
99
Q

Continuous flow Emergency O2 systems usually last for how long?

100
Q

Cabin pressurization is usually maintained at what altitude?

A

6000-8000 ft

101
Q

What is the PHE in the Air Con system?

A

Primary Heat Exchanger

102
Q

In pressurisation operation what does SRV stand for?

A

Safety relief valve

103
Q

What does PSID stand for?

A

Pressure differential

104
Q

In pressurisation operation what does DV stand for?

A

Discharge valve

105
Q

Hypoxia is likely to develop at what Altitude?

106
Q

What are the 3 annunciations relating to the warnings?

A

Warnings (RED)
Cautions (ORANGE/AMBER)
Advisories (BLUE/WHITE)

107
Q

If a WARNING appears, what do you do?

A

Deal with immediately

108
Q

If a CAUTION appears, what do you do?

A

Deal with when safe to do so

109
Q

How can you cancel Warnings, Cautions and Advisories?

A

Pressing the MASTER CAUTIONS

110
Q

What are the 3 key requirements of undercarriage design?

A
  • Absorb shock from landing, taxying and movement of uneven surfaces
  • Ability to manoeuvre/control the a/c
  • No of components (should be minimal)
111
Q

Name the component that ensures equipment in the undercarriage is operated in the correct order.

A

Sequencing valve

112
Q

Name 3 undercarriage components that use the incompressibility of oil

A

Shock Absorbers
Actuators
Brake Callipers

113
Q

Where are fusible plugs fitted and what is their purpose?

A

Fitted to the main wheels.

The inner core is designed to melt before the wheel gets too hot.

114
Q

3 GREENS means…

A

Gear is down and locked

115
Q

What is the name of the component that must be disengage to release the undercarriage prior to extending

A

Up-lock actuator

116
Q

What is the name of the undercarriage component that utilises N2 in an emergency

A

Accumulator

117
Q

What does WOW stand for and give 2 examples of its function?

A

Weight on Wheels

Enable components in the air - pressurization/ weapons

Disable components in the air - Brakes, Reverse Thrust, Parachute, Prop reverse thrust

118
Q

What system do we use to prevent wheel locking?

A

Anti-skid system, which releases pressure at the brake unit to prevent skidding

119
Q

What does re-tread mean?

A

Replace the tyres tread after it has worn down.

This is done to extend the effective life of the tyre.

120
Q

What system is fitted in a brake system to prevent wheel locking?

A

Anti-skid system, which releases pressure at the brake unit to prevent skidding.

121
Q

How do micro-switches operate, where are they fitted what is their purpose?

A

Micro-switch plunger only moves a very small distance, moving from on to off or vice-versa.

Located in all wheel bays

Switch on or switch off red and green landing gear warning lights

122
Q

What type of brakes are fitted to aircraft and what material are the brake pads made from?

A

Disk brakes.

Carbon composite pads

123
Q

What typical warnings are associated with the hydraulic system

A

Low pressure

High Temp

124
Q

What does the term ‘differential braking’ mean?

A

Allows for independent activation of wheels brakes

125
Q

What typical warnings are associated with the hydraulic system

A

Low pressure

High Temp

126
Q

Describe ‘creep marks’ and explain why they are important

A

Creep marks are painted on the tyre and wheel rim.

Under high impact loads experienced during landing, tyres tend to creep by small distances around the wheels.

If tubed tyres creep, the valve stem of the inner tube which is firmly attached to the wheel is stretched and will eventually fracture.

127
Q

What typical warnings are associated with the hydraulic system

A

Low pressure

High Temp

128
Q

What would a confined column of hydraulic fluid want to do if force is applied to one end?

A

Expand in every direction

129
Q

Which components remove debris and therefore prevents damage to system components?

130
Q

How are hydraulic brakes ‘locked on’ in the parking mode?

A

Moving the parking brake from off to set, changes a two-way valve to a one-way valve and locks the hydraulic fluid in the brake unit.

131
Q

What is the term used to describe the increase in strength in hydraulics?

A

Force Multiplication

132
Q

What is the term used to describe the increase in strength in hydraulics?

A

Force Multiplication

133
Q

List advantages of hydraulics

A
  • Capable of transmitting very high forces
  • Rapid and precise response to input signals
  • Good power to weight ratio
  • Simple and reliable
  • Not affected by EM interference
134
Q

Know the Hydraulic System schematic

A

LOOK AT DIAGRAM

135
Q

List the key components of the hydraulic system

  • R______
  • F______
  • P___
  • A_________
  • V_____
  • A______
A
  • Reservoir
  • Filters
  • Pump
  • Accumulator
  • Valves (Pressure Control and Directional
  • Actuator
136
Q

What is the name of the engine or motor driven positive displacement pump that the majority of hydraulic systems use?

A

Rotary Swash Plate pump

137
Q

What is the effect on hydraulic oil if it is allowed to boil?

A

Presence of gas introduces an unacceptable level of compressibility in the oil.

138
Q

List some systems that use hydraulics and which is the most common?

A
  • Control surfaces
  • Flaps
  • Undercarriage
  • Wheel brakes
  • Cargo ramps
  • Speed brakes
  • Weapon release linkages

Undercarriage is most common

139
Q

What are the 2 types off accumulator in the hydraulic system?

A

Damping

Emergency

140
Q

What quality of liquid does hydraulic fluid utilise?

A

Incompressibility

141
Q

What is the name of the component used to overcome larger control surfaces and thereby counter high speed aerodynamic forces and how does it differ from a normal actuator?

A

Powered Flying Control Unit (PFCU)

Piston is fixed to the airframe and the PFCU body is connected to the control surface.

142
Q

What is the name of the component that stores oil and what can be its secondary functions?

A

Reservoir

De-aeration
Cooling

143
Q

What must be incorporated into aircraft system design if an aircraft has hydraulically operated PRIMARY flying controls?

A

Back-up system

Endurance should be indefinite

144
Q

Name the 3 emergency electrical systems

A

Ram Air Turbine (RAT)

Emergency Power Unit (EPU

Batteries

145
Q

How quickly must an EPU be capable of developing full power and why?

A

Within 2 seconds

Fitted to aircraft with unstable controls

146
Q

What voltage do most batteries provide?

147
Q

What voltage does a DC generator provide and why?

A

28V

Needs to have sufficient potential difference in order to charge batteries.

148
Q

What are the 2 types of AUXILIARY power systems?

A

GPU - Ground Power Unit

APU - Auxiliary Power Unit

149
Q

What is a CSDU?

A

Constant Speed Drive Unit

150
Q

A CSDU maintains a constant generator ___ and therefore a constant voltage.

A

constant RPM

151
Q

What is the name of a generator with an integrated CSDU (Constant Speed Drive Unit)?

A

IDG - Integrated Drive Generator

152
Q

List the 3 different pieces of power conversion equipment

A

Inverter - DC to AC

Converter - Change the frequency of primary AC supply to a different secondary frequency

Transformer/Rectifier Unit (RTU) - AC to DC

153
Q

Describe difference between normal relays and emergency relays

A

Normal - When the switch is turned ON this completes the circuit, powering the electromagnet and completing the contact.

Emergency - When the switch is OFF, the emergency completes the circuit, powering the electromagnet and completing the contact. (FAILSAFE)

154
Q

Std military and civilian aircraft AC systems are configured to ….

A

200 V
3 phase
400 Hz

155
Q

Managing two generators in parallel must therefore sense …

A

Voltage
Frequency
Phase Angle

156
Q

Voltage must be maintained within a ___ range of Engine speeds and Electrical loads.

A

WIDE range of Engine speeds and Electrical loads

157
Q

What is the purpose of the Load Sharing Control Unit?

A

Ensure that there is an equal output from each generator

Ground School - C Middleton (12 decks)

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