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Ground School - C Middleton > 2 Flight Regulations > Flashcards

2 Flight Regulations Flashcards

1
Q

Where are the 2 NATS Centres?

A

Swanwick

Prestwick

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2
Q

What areas does NATS Swanwick (London Area Control Centre (LACC)) look after?

A 
London ACC (LACC)
London Terminal CC (LTCC)
Military Air Traffic Control (ATC)
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3
Q

What areas does NATS Prestwick (Scottish Area Control Centre (ScACC)) look after?

A 
Scottish ACC (ScACC)
Manchester ACC (MACC)
Oceanic ACC (OACC) - aka Shanwick
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4
Q

What are the 4 HUB airfields in Project MARSHALL?

A

Linton-on-Ouse (LOO)
Coningsby (CON)
Marham (MAR)
Brize Norton (BZN)

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5
Q

How is Project MARSHALL configured?

A

HUB > Satellite > Independent

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6
Q

What services does the Radar Analysis Cell provide?

A

Military Airprox
Noise complaints and unauthorised supersonic flights
Airspace breaches
Aircraft suspected of involvement in criminal activities

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7
Q

What are the emergency/distress frequencies (type, Hz, band)?

A

Distress - 121.500MHz VHF

Mil Distress - 243.00MHz UHF

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8
Q

In the UK who is responsible for the division of airspace?

A

CAA - Civil Aviation Authority

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9
Q

UK airspace has how many FIRs?

A

2 - Scottish and London

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10
Q

What does FIR stand for?

A

Flight Information Region

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11
Q

What does UIR stand for?

A

Upper Information Region

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12
Q

What is the lower limit of the UIR?

A

FL245

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13
Q

FIRs are further broken down into 2 airspaces. These are?

A

Upper Information Region - UIR

Lower Information Region - LIR

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14
Q

FL245 belongs to which part of the FIR?

A

UIR

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15
Q

Where are Military control sectors coordinated from?

A

Swanwick

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16
Q

What are the CONTROLLED airspace classes?

A

A, B, C, D, E

B is not currently in the UK

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17
Q

What are the UNCONTROLLED airspace classes?

A

F, G

F is not currently in the UK

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18
Q

What are the names of the airspaces? (high to low)

A 
Controlled Airspace
Air Routes
Airways
Control Areas
Control Zone
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19
Q

Never enter …. airspace without clearance

A

controlled

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20
Q

What does ATZ stand for?

A

Aerodrome Traffic Zone

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21
Q

What does MATZ stand for?

A

Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone

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22
Q

Civilian a/c are must recognise MATZs?

A

False

They should recognise them but are not obliged to

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23
Q

Class G airspace is known as

A

Uncontrolled airspace

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24
Q

All airspace between FL195 and FL660 is known as ….. airspace and is what class of airspace?

A

controlled, class C airspace

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25
Q

Are ATZs and MATZs ‘controlled’ airspace?

A

No. Not legally controlled

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26
Q

What does CMATZ stand for?

A

Combined Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone

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27
Q

Dimensions of an ATZ are?

A

2000 ft vertically

2 or 2.5nm (if rwy >1800m) radially

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28
Q

Dimensions of a MATZs are?

A

3000 ft vertically. 5nm radially

With extension out of main active runway. 5nm long beginning at edge of radial dimension 4nm wide and between 1000ft to 3000ft.

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29
Q

What are the 3 designations of Airspace Reservations?

A

Prohibited
Danger
Restricted

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30
Q

Airspace Reservations can be 3 kinds. These are?

A

Permanent - All the time
Temporary - Regular occurrence
Notified - On notification through NOTAM

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31
Q

Describe PROHIBITED airspace

A

Most a/c not allowed.

Denoted by a ‘P’ on low flying and special area charts

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32
Q

Describe DANGER airspace

A

Contains activities dangerous to flight
Mostly operated by Military
A/c must have authorisation if a range
Denoted by a ‘D’ on low flying/ special air charts

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33
Q

What are the DANGER Area Services?

A

DACS - Danger Area Crossing Service

DAAIS - Danger Area Activity Information Service

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34
Q

Describe RESTRICTED airspace

A

Flight subject to restrictions

Denoted with an ‘R’ on low flying/special air charts

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35
Q

What airspace is denoted with ‘PM’?

A

Provost Marshal

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36
Q

What does PM airspace prohibit?

A

Military a/c only. Civilian still allowed

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37
Q

PM airspace can be defined in 2 ways. These are? (name + representation on charts)

A 
Prohibited Area (PMP Area)
Restricted Area (PMR Area)
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38
Q

Describe a HIRTA

A

High Intensity Radio Transmission Area

Radio energy may affect weapons, comms or navigation systems

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39
Q

What publication should you refer to when conducting low flying?

A

UK Mil Low Flying Handbook

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40
Q

A Military Training Area is denoted by what on charts?

A

MTA

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41
Q

What does AIAA stand for?

A

Area of Intense Aerial Activity

Denoted by a green chain-link on charts

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42
Q

What does ATA stand for?

A

Aerial Tactics Area

Designated for air combat training

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43
Q

What does AARA stand for?

A

Air-to-Air Refuelling Area

Inflight refuelling is taking place. May not be at standard altitudes due to need to avoid turbulence

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44
Q

What does TRA stand for?

A

Temporary Reserved Area

An piece of airspace temporarily given to a different authority than it is usually controlled by.

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45
Q

The UK Air Defence and Reporting centre is based where?

A

RAF Boulmer

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46
Q

In Class G airspace, what are the 4 different Flight Information Service (FIS) you can get?

A

Basic Service
Traffic Service
Deconfliction Service
Procedural Service

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47
Q

Air Traffic Service (ATS) covers, generically, what 5 things?

A 
Air Traffic Control (ATC)
Air Traffic Advisory Service
Flight Information Service (FIS)
Alerting Service
Lower Airspace Radar Service
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48
Q

How is an Alerting Service defined?

A

An alerting service is provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding a/c in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required.

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49
Q

What are the 5 objectives of the Air Traffic Service (ATS)?

A
  • Prevent collisions between a/c.
  • Prevent collisions on the manoeuvring area.
  • Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
  • Provide advice and information.
  • Notify appropriate organisations regarding a/c in need of SAR aid, and such organisations as required.
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50
Q

What does ATS stand for?

A

Air Traffic Service

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51
Q

Flight Information Service (FIS) supplies advice and information useful for the s… and e…….. conduct of flight.

A

Safe and Efficient

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52
Q

Some pertinent information provided by FIS is?

A

Weather
Change to serviceability of facilities
Conditions at Aerodromes
Any other information likely to affect safety

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53
Q

What is a basic service?

A

A non-surveillance based ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight.

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54
Q

A Basic Service may not be appropriate under what conditions?

A

IMC - Instrument Meteorological Conditions

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55
Q

Describe what the Swanwick Mil Map/Chart looks like?

A

Numerous areas up and down the country (inc Central, East, West).

Not split like the FIR chart

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56
Q

What does a basic service provide?

A 
Weather Info
Changes in serviceability
Airfield conditions
General airspace info
Other safety info
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57
Q

On top of a basic service, a traffic service provides …

A

Specific surveillance-derived traffic information
May provide headings and/or levels
Not required to achieve deconfliction
Available under IFR/VFR and in any met conditions

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58
Q

What does a traffic service provide?

A

Specific surveillance-derived traffic information
May provide headings and/or levels
Not required to achieve deconfliction
Available under IFR/VFR and in any met conditions

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59
Q

What are the dimensions of a bubble provided by a traffic service?

A

Traffic info relevant when approaching
3nm Horizontally
3000ft Vertically

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60
Q

Deconfliction service provides a basic service plus …

A

Specific surveillance-derived traffic information

Issuance of headings/levels to achieve deconfliction

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61
Q

Under a deconfliction service, the ATC parameters are…

A

5nm horizontally or 3000ft vertically

If both a/c coordinated by same controller or are ‘coordinated’ then:
3nm horizontally or 1000ft/500ft vertically

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62
Q

Describe a procedural service. (Give example)

A

One which is a recognised set of rules to follow. Can be report when at waypoint/altitude based.

Example - North Atlantic Tracks

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63
Q

What does LARS stand for?

A

Low Airspace Radar Service

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64
Q

Is LARS available at all airfields?

A

No. Only those that are participating that day.

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65
Q

LARS is available within what dimensions of a participating airfield?

A

FL100 and out to approx. 30nm

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66
Q

What are the types of radar service provided under LARS?

A

Traffic + Deconfliction

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67
Q

Summarise - Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction, Procedural services

A

Basic - Just information about airfield
Traffic - Information about other a/c in the area
Deconfliction - Will provide active guidance to pilots
Procedural - Pre-set of behaviours to take in the given situation.

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68
Q

What is the term used to describe Temporary Controlled Airspace?

A

CAS-T

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69
Q

Temporary Controlled Airspace (CAS-T) is associated with Rotary or Fixed Wing Royal Flights?

A

Fixed Wing

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70
Q

Temporary Controlled Airspace (CAS-T) attracts what type of airspace?

A

Class D

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71
Q

What is the radius around an aerodrome with which Temporary Controlled Airspace (CAS-T) applies?

A

Between 5nm and 10nm

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72
Q

Where is Temporary Controlled Airspace (CAS-T) information provided?

A

NOTAMs

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73
Q

What are the inbound and outbound time windows for Temporary Controlled Airspace (CAS-T)?

A

-15 mins

+30 mins

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74
Q

Temporary Controlled Airspace (CAS-T) is given what classification?

A

Class D

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75
Q

What are the dimensions of Temporary Controlled Airways?

A

5nm each side of the track

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76
Q

What does RLLC stand for?

A

Royal Low Level Corridor

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77
Q

What are the dimension of a Royal Low Level Corridor (RLLC)?

A

5nm either side of track

Surface to 1000ft above max FL of route

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78
Q

What does MEF stand for? (Low level chart)

A

Maximum Elevation Figure

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79
Q

Where do you find MEFs?

A

Low level chart in each quadrant on the chart

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80
Q

What time window applies to an RLLC?

A

-15 mins

+30 mins

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81
Q

How is information about a Royal Flights promulgated?

A

NOTAM

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82
Q

T or F? A/c registered in the UK must operate within the Air Navigation Order (ANO) regulations?

A

TRUE

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83
Q

Name the 7 broad topics that cover ‘The Rules of Air Regulations’

A
  • General Rules - Met reports/forecast, speed limitations etc
  • Low Flying Rules
  • A/C light and signals
  • Aerodrome traffic rules
  • Aerodrome lights, markings and signals including marshalling
  • Visual Flight Rules (VFR)
  • Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
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84
Q

If you are approaching another a/c head on. What action should you take to avoid a collision?

A

Turn to the right

85
Q

Overtaking a/c should do so on the … of other a/c?

86
Q

T or F? An a/c landing or on final approach has right of way?

87
Q

If 2 or more a/c are in the process of landing. What are you concerned with?

A

The lowest a/c has right of way
Follow directions from ATC
Make way for anyone in an emergency

88
Q

When following a landmark. You should keep it to your ….

89
Q

What does VFR stand for?

A

Visual Flight Rules

90
Q

VFR should only be commenced or continued if… (3 points)

A
  • Met info indicates en route conditions at or above threshold for VFR.
  • An alt route is possible if flt cannot be completed as planned due to met conditions.
  • Visual Met Conditions (VMC) are present.
91
Q

Inside Controlled Airspace (CAS) what are the minimum VFR VMCs?

A

> = FL100. 1500m Horz, 1000ft Vert from cloud. Vis 8km.

< FL100. 1500m Horz, 1000ft Vert from cloud. Vis (>250kt 8km, <=250kt 5km).

92
Q

Outside Controlled Airspace (CAS) what are the minimum VFR VMCs?

A

<= 3000ft AMSL

> 140kt. Vis >5km
<=140kt. Clear of cloud surface in sight. Vis >1.5km

93
Q

What does SVFR stand for?

A

Special Visual Flight Rules

94
Q

Describe SVFR

A

Rules which allow flights where pilots are unable to comply with IFR, in circumstances where VFR flights are not permitted.

A flight cleared into a control zone using VFR in met conditions below VMC.

95
Q

How can you obtain a SVFR clearance?

A
  • As requested by the pilot.

- When notified in the UK AIP for particular operations.

96
Q

Under SVFRs, the pilot is responsible for what? (4 points)

A
  • Complying with ATC.
  • Remaining clear of cloud, insight of the surface in vis >1500m.
  • Remaining at a speed of <140kt.
  • Avoiding ATZs unless prior permission obtained.
97
Q

Within the UK. IFR is mandatory when?

A
  • Under IMC
  • In Class A airspace, except when SVFR is permitted.
  • In Class C airspace when VFR operations are not permitted.
98
Q

Describe the semi-circular rule.

A

When flying WEST fly at EVEN FLs.

When flying EAST fly at ODD FLs.

99
Q

What does IFR stand for?

A

Instrument Flight Rules

100
Q

What do you need to fly under IFR in controlled airspace?

A
  • Hold a valid instrument rating.
  • Ensure a/c has appropriate radio and nav equipment.
  • Submit a flight plan.
  • Obtain clearance from ATC.
  • Follow ATC instructions.
101
Q

What does RVSM stand for?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

102
Q

Why was RVSM introduced?

A

Maximise the amount of usage above FL290 due to increase in quality of equipment.

103
Q

What 2 rules are all Military Flights flown in accordance with?

A

VFR or IFR

104
Q

Is everything above FL195 Class C airspace?

A

No. Any defined ‘airspace’ above FL195 is Class C and Class C ends at FL660.

105
Q

T or F? An Air Traffic Control Service is provided under IFR in A, C, D and E class airspace?

106
Q

Under IFR in Class A, C, D and E airspace. (Select appropriate answer)

A flight plan is ADVISED/REQUIRED?
ATC clearance is ADVISED/REQUIRED?
Radio communication is ADVISED/REQUIRED?
ATC instructions is STRONGLY ADVISED/MANDATORY?

A

A flight plan is REQUIRED
ATC clearance is REQUIRED
Radio communication is REQUIRED
ATC instructions is MANDATORY

107
Q

T or F? VFR traffic is permitted in Class A airspace?

108
Q

Under VFR an Air Traffic Control Service is provided to how many classes of airspace?

A

4

C, D, E, G

109
Q

Under VFR what classes of airspace are you required to submit a flight plan with ATC?

110
Q

Under VFR what classes of airspace are you required to obtain ATC clearance?

111
Q

Under VFR what classes of airspace are you required to have Radio Communications?

112
Q

Under VFR what classes of airspace are you mandated to comply with ATC instruction?

113
Q

Flight plans, ATC clearance, Radio Communications are not required in what class of airspace?

114
Q

What Flight Information service or services may be available in Class G airspace?

A
  • Basic
  • Traffic
  • Deconfliction
  • Procedural
115
Q

T or F? In Class G airspace ATC will automatically provide separation to those under IFR and not those under VFR?

A

FALSE.

Separation is not provided automatically in Class G airspace. It is when a deconfliction/procedural service is requested.

116
Q

In class D or E airspace the speed limit is ….kt below FL…

A

250kt below FL100

117
Q

T or F? Class E airspace requires a radio communication ability under VFR?

A

FALSE. It is not required.

118
Q

You are flying under IFR. In what airspace will ATC provide separation from those under VFR/SVFR?

119
Q

You are flying under IFR. In what airspace will ATC provide separation from those under IFR?

A

A, C, D, E

120
Q

You are flying under IFR. In what airspace will ATC provide separation from those only under IFR/SVFR?

121
Q

In what airspace and under what rules is not having radio communications and ATC clearance acceptable?

A

Class G

Class E under VFR

122
Q

You are at 230kt at FL80 in class D airspace. What is your VMC?

A

Vis: 5km. Dist from cloud: 1500m H, 1000ft V.

123
Q

You are at 250kt at FL80 in class C airspace. What is your VMC?

A

Vis: 5km. Dist from cloud: 1500m H, 1000ft V.

124
Q

You are at 250kt at 3000ft AMSL in class C airspace. What is your VMC?

A

Vis: 5km. Dist from cloud: 1500m H, 1000ft V.

125
Q

You are at 300kt at FL100 in class E airspace. What is your VMC?

A

Vis: 8km. Dist from cloud: 1500m H, 1000ft V.

126
Q

You are at 300kt at 2500ft AMSL in class D airspace. What is your VMC?

A

Vis: 8km. Dist from cloud: 1500m H, 1000ft V.

127
Q

You are under VFR in Class D airspace. ATC will provide you with Traffic info on others on VFR, IFR or both?

A

Both IFR and VFR traffic.

128
Q

You are at 300kt at 2500ft AMSL in class G airspace. What is your VMC?

A

Vis: 5km. Dist from cloud: 1500m H, 1000ft V.

129
Q

Name the ‘surveillance’ air traffic services.

A

Traffic

Deconfliction

130
Q

What is the purpose of Radar Corridors?

A

Allow users to cross airways in as safe a manner as possible.

131
Q

What 7 pieces of information should you provide to ATC when crossing an airway?

A
  • Identification
  • A/c type
  • Position and heading
  • Level and flight conditions
  • Position of crossing
  • Requested crossing level
  • Estimated time of crossing
132
Q

How is the Military Air Traffic Control Centre (MATCC) subdivided?

A

Into three banks of controllers:

  • North Bank (controls the Scottish FIR)
  • East Bank (controls to the East of a line from Carlisle to London)
  • West Bank (controls the SW, W, Central and SE)

These are further broken down into sectors.

133
Q

What Air Traffic Service inform organisations guidance and instruction to coordinate SAR operations?

134
Q

What is the dimensions of the bubble under a Traffic Service?

A

3nm Horz. 3000ft Vert

135
Q

What traffic service is least appropriate in IMC conditions?

136
Q

In what Air Traffic Service are mandatory instructions provided to maintain minima between air systems?

A

Radar Control

137
Q

Other than ‘traffic’, what other service is a surveillance service?

A

Deconfliction

138
Q

Which ATS available from ATC provides specific instructions, time/location restrictions to participating traffic?

A

Procedural

139
Q

Name the 4 methods of authorisation

A

Written
Electronic
Verbal
Self

140
Q

T or F? UK Mil a/c are advised to seek authorisation prior to going flying?

A

FALSE

They are mandated to all mil flying

141
Q

Independent Auth by another person is always _______

A

ENCOURAGED

142
Q

Things that the Auth Offr is to consider are:

A

Crew Composition
Day/Night Flight Conditions
Met Conditions

143
Q

Define the A/C Commander

A
  • Resp for safe operation of a/c, mission completion.

- Ultimately responsible for the safety of a/c, crew, pax and cargo.

144
Q

Are A/C commanders always one of the pilots?

A

No

Other aircrew roles may be the A/C commander

145
Q

In what class airspace is IFR mandatory?

146
Q

What are the 3 categories of flight plans?

A

Full Flight Plan
Repetitive Flight Plan
Abbreviated Flight Plan

147
Q

The official term for departure time is?

A

Estimated Off-block time

NOTE: Not the planned airborne time

148
Q

What does GAT stand for? (Air Traffic)

A

General Air Traffic

149
Q

What does OAT stand for? (Air Traffic)

A

Operational Air Traffic

150
Q

Flight plans should be raised at least ____ before clearance startup or taxy is requested

151
Q

List some key items to be included in a flight plan

A

A/C Identification, Dep Airfield, Date of Flight,
Est Off-block time, Destination Airfield, Route,
Cruising speed/FLs, a/c type and wake cat.,
VFR/IFR + Type of flight, a/c equipment and capability

152
Q

What does PPR stand for? (Flight planning)

A

Prior Permission Requirement

153
Q

What are the airfield parking spots referred to as?

154
Q

What are the airfield parking areas referred to as?

A

Apron/Ramp/Dispersal/Flightline

155
Q

Routes linking different parts of the airfield are called?

156
Q

The last point of the taxiway before joining the runway is called the?

A

Holding Position

157
Q

Where do you find Thresholds?

158
Q

The part before the threshold is called the …

A

Pre-threshold

159
Q

The part after the last threshold is?

160
Q

What colour are all runway markings?

161
Q

The number on the runway denotes?

A

Rough runway heading

162
Q

L, C or R on a runway denotes?

A

The place against parallel runways

163
Q

When operating at, near or approaching a runway make sure you refer to it by ……..

A

It’s FULL name

Including L,R or C if present

164
Q

Edge marking on the runway denotes ….

A

Precision approach runway

165
Q

A precision approach runway is defined as …

A

A runway that assists pilots with the glide path

166
Q

A line across the runway denotes …..

A

the threshold of the runway

167
Q

The minimum amount of markings required to be a legal runway is ….

A

Centreline and Designation (eg 08L or 14R)

168
Q

You must NOT land …… of the threshold

169
Q

Pre-threshold arrows indicate ….

A

Available for t/o but NOT for landing

170
Q

Pre-threshold crosses (X) indicate …

A

Unfit for a/c movement

171
Q

Pre-threshold Yellow Chevrons indicate …

A

Unfit for normal a/c movement

172
Q

Temporary displaced thresholds will have …

A

Boards either side of the runway

Arrows denoting NOT for landing. Along with the threshold having been moved forwards.

173
Q

All ILS equipped runways are equipped with what 2 types of markings?

A

TDZ - Touchdown zones

Aiming Point Markings

174
Q

Taxiway marking are what colour?

175
Q

Are taxiway centrelines Continuous or Dashed?

A

Continuous

176
Q

What does RTHP stand for? (airport layout)

A

Runway Taxi-Holding Position

177
Q

Describe the 2 types of RTHP markings across the taxiway?

A

Doubled Solid Double Dashed - If approaching from solid side you must stop. If approaching from dashed you may proceed.

Ladder - Indicates a holding position not directly adjacent to a runway. May be used to prevent a/c blocking ILS beacons while holding.

178
Q

A dashed line across a taxiway denotes ….

A

ITHP - Intermediate Taxiway-Holding Position

179
Q

What is an ITHP used for?

A

To protect a priority taxiway route

180
Q

NEVER ….. solid lines at taxiway holding positions unless given ……. from ……

A

CROSS

PERMISSION from ATC

181
Q

Mandatory signs are what colour?

A

RED with WHITE letters/symbology

182
Q

Pilots should not …. beyond a mandatory sign without ……….

A

CONTINUE/PASS

DIRCETION/PERMISSION from ATC

183
Q

Information signs consist of what colours?

A

Yellow + Black

184
Q

Location signs are what colours?

A

YELLOW on BLACK

185
Q

Direction signs are what colours?

A

BLACK on YELLOW

186
Q

Name the 2 types of Beacons?

A

Identification

Location

187
Q

What does an Identification beacon flash?

A

Two letter ID code (morse)
Red - Mil
Green - Civilian

188
Q

What colour does a Location beacon with a Low Level of background lighting flash?

A

WHITE light

189
Q

What colour does a Location beacon with a High Level of background lighting flash?

A

GREEN alternating with WHITE light

190
Q

Approach lighting includes what colour; Threshold, Centreline and Crossbar

A

Threshold - GREEN
Centreline - WHITE
Crossbar - WHITE

191
Q

Supplementary Approach lighting pre-threshold is what colour?

192
Q

What is the name given to the lights used to provide glide slope assistance to pilots?

A

PAPI

Precision Approach Path Indicators

193
Q

2 WHITE 2 RED on PAPI indicates …

A

On correct glide/approach path

194
Q

4 WHITE on PAPI indicates …

195
Q

4 RED on PAPI indicates …

196
Q

Runways have …. lights at the THRESHOLD.

197
Q

Runways have …. lights at the STOPWAY.

198
Q

Runways have …. lights at the EDGE/on CENTRELINE.

199
Q

Taxiway CENTRELINE lights are …..

200
Q

Taxiway EDGE lights are …..

201
Q

Taxiway STOPBAR lights are …..

A

RED across taxiway

202
Q

Runway/Taxiway lead-on lights are ….

A

Alternating GREEN/YELLOW

203
Q

3, 2, 1 yellow lights on the runway indicate a ….

A

high-speed exit

204
Q

Obstacles fall under 2 categories for being lit. These are?

A

En-route

Airfield

205
Q

An EN-ROUTE obstacle is anything …

A

> 150m more than 15km from an airfield

Prominent obstacles <150m near low flying a/c routes

206
Q

An AIRFIELD obstacle is anything ….

A
  • Within 15km and >150m
  • Any object considered to be an obstacle to a/c in flight
  • Moving on the ground at the airfield
207
Q

A FIXED obstacle is ….

A
  • Objects <45m (marked by red light at apex)
  • Larger buildings will have additional red lights to outline their extent.
  • Temporary or U/S ground movement areas (marked red)
208
Q

All MOBILE vehicles on an airfield MUST ….

A

be displaying flashing yellow lights.

Emergency vehicles - BLUE LIGHTS

209
Q

MAA low flying limit for minimum vertical distance from cloud is ____.

A

500ft minimum vertical distance

Ground School - C Middleton (12 decks)

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