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Ground School - C Middleton > 4 Avionics and Instruments > Flashcards

4 Avionics and Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 groups of Basic Flight Instruments?

A

Primary Flight Instruments
Engine Instruments
Navigation Instruments

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2
Q

Name the 2 types of sensing

A

Direct (Analogue)

Remote (Digital)

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3
Q

Advantages of digital displays over analogue

A

Reliability
Accuracy
Flexibility
Cost

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4
Q

Name the 6 Primary Flight Instruments

A 
Attitude Indicator (ATI)
Airspeed Indicator (ASI)
Altimeter (ALT)
Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
Turn and Slip Indicator (T+S)
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5
Q

In terms of flight instruments

???? + ???? = PERFORMANCE

A

POWER

ATTITUDE

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6
Q

What are the CONTROL instruments?

A 
Power Instruments
Attitude Indicator (ATI)

Control instrument indications are direct and respond immediately to control changes

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7
Q

What are the PERFORMANCE instruments?

A 
Airspeed Indicator (ASI)
Altimeter (ALT)
Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
Turn and Slip Indicator (T+S)
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8
Q

Pressure instruments use what two kinds of pressure?

A

Pitot Pressure and Static Pressure

Digitally this is fed to the Air Data Computer (ADC)

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9
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the ASI?

A

DIRECT - Airspeed

INDIRECT - Pitch

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10
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the ALT?

A

DIRECT - Altitude

INDIRECT - Pitch

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11
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the HSI/Compass?

A

DIRECT - Heading

INDIRECT - Bank or Yaw

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12
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the VSI?

A

DIRECT - Vertical Speed

INDIRECT - Pitch

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13
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the Turn Indicator?

A

DIRECT - Rate of Turn

INDIRECT - Bank or Yaw

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14
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the Slip Indicator?

A

DIRECT - Balance

INDIRECT - Yaw

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15
Q

What is the purpose of a standby flight instrument?

A

In-case of a system failure of the main displays

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16
Q

How long is a standby flight instrument required to be reliable for?

A

30 mins

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17
Q

What are the 2 ways of determining performance altitude?

A

Pressure altitude = Elevation + 30(1013-QNH)

Density Altitude = Pressure Alt + 120(ISA temp deviation)

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18
Q

How is the static pressure measured?

A

2 static ports at opposite sides of the aircraft. With an average taken to negate potential influence of slip.

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19
Q

Static pressure is provided to what 4 instruments?

A

ALT, ASI, Machmeter, VSI

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20
Q

Pitot pressure is provided by what piece of equipment?

A

Pitot tube

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21
Q

Pitot pressure = ….. pressure + ….. pressure

A

Static + Dynamic

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22
Q

Pitot pressure is supplied to what 2 instruments?

A

ASI, Machmeter

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23
Q

The altimeter actually measures ….. but is calibrated to read ……

A

pressure

height/altitude

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24
Q

Name the 5 types of altimeter

A 
Simple
Sensitive
Servo-Assisted
Digital Display
Cabin Altitude
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25
Q

What are the 8 errors of an altimeter or most other pressure instruments?

A 
Pressure
Instrument
Temperature
Hysteresis
Blockages and leaks
Lag
Orographic
Transonic jump
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26
Q

On a cold day do you need to correct/adjust your altimeter/decision heights?

A

Yes - Potentially up to 10%

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27
Q

What type of capsule is used in an Altimeter?

A

Aneroid capsule

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28
Q

What type of capsule is used in an ASI?

A

Differential capsule

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29
Q

What are the different instruments that use a differential capsule and an aneroid capsule?

A

Differential - ASI, VSI

Aneroid - ALT

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30
Q

Name the 4 different ASIs

A

Simple
Sensitive
Servo-assisted
Digital Display

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31
Q

What do each of the colours on the rim of the ASI refer to?

A

White - Flap operating range
Green - Normal operating range
Yellow - Caution range
Red dash - Never exceed

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32
Q

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for instrument and pressure error becomes…

A

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS)

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33
Q

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error becomes ….

A

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS)

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34
Q

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error becomes ….

A

True Air Speed (TAS)

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35
Q

What additional component does the Machmeter have over an ASI?

A

Aneroid Capsule

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36
Q

What type of capsule does a VSI have?

A

Differential Capsule

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37
Q

What are other names could a VSI be known as?

A

Rate of climb & descent Indicator (RCDI)
Vertical Velocity Indicator (VVI)
Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator (IVSI)

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38
Q

What does an ISVI have that eliminates lag error?

A

Counter/bob weights counter act lag error to move the needle ‘Instantaneously’.

Weights calibrated to provide correct reading

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39
Q

What does ADS stand for?

A

Air Data System

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40
Q

What does the ADS consist of?

A
  • Probes and Sensors (Press, Temp, AoA, Slip).
  • Transducers to convert air data to electronic signals.
  • Air data computer to process signals for systems/displays.
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41
Q

What are the advantages of an ADS?

A
  • Less bulky
  • Replaces numerous instruments
  • Eliminates analogue error
  • Errors automatically eliminated
  • Increased accuracy and sensitivity
  • Minimal lag time
  • Digitised air data enables flexibility
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42
Q

What converts analogue readings to digital signals?

A

Transducer

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43
Q

Name the 3 different types of gyroscopes

A

Spinning
Optical
Vibrating

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44
Q

Define the 5 terms associated with gyroscopes

A

Inertia - Resistance of an object to change its state of motion
Momentum - Mass x Velocity
Angular Vel - Speed of rotation/spin
Moment of Inertia - Mass x Moment arm distance from spin axis
Angular Momentum - Ang Vel x Moment of Inertia

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45
Q

What is special about angular momentum?

A

Angular momentum is conserved

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46
Q

What is the 1st Law of gyrodynamics?

A

Spin axis remains fixed in inertial space. RIGIDITY

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47
Q

What is the 2nd Law of gyrodynamics?

A

If a torque is applied perpendicular to spin axis, the spin axis will precess steadily about an axis perpendicular to the spin and torque axis’. PRECESSION

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48
Q

Name the 3 classifications of SPINNING gyroscopes

A

Rate
Rate Integrating
Displacement

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49
Q

The main gyroscopic error is known as …..

A

Wander

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50
Q

Gyroscopic wander breakdowns into 2 types. These are?

A

Real

Apparent

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51
Q

Depending on the plane of error what are the 2 terms used?

A

Drift - Wander of the spin axis in the horizontal plane

Topple - Wander of the spin axis in the vertical plane

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52
Q

Apparent wander varies with …. from the equator to the poles as the Earth rotates

A

Latitude

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53
Q

Transport wander is the …. of the gyroscope from the meridian it is set from.

A

Divergence

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54
Q

OPTICAL gyroscopes operate off of what effect?

A

SAGNAC

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55
Q

Name the error other than wander that can impact a gyroscopes functionality?

A

Gimble Lock

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56
Q

Advantages of a Ring Laser Gyro? (5)

A
  • Minimal ‘spin up’ time
  • Unaffected by high ‘g’
  • No moving parts therefore minimum maintenance
  • Wide dynamic range
  • Very small drift rates
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57
Q

Disadvantages of a Ring Laser Gyro? (3)

A
  • Precision machining required
  • Costly due to high quality mirrors/sensors required
  • Careful balance of gases required (He + Ne)
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58
Q

Fibre Optic gyroscopes are c….. and more e….. than Ring Laser gyroscopes.

A

CHEAPER + more EFFICIENT

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59
Q

What are the 2 different types of OPTICAL gyroscopes?

A

Ring Laser Gyroscope (RLG)

Fibre Optic Gyroscope (FOG)

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60
Q

Vibrating Structure Gyroscopes are also known as what?

A

Coriolis Vibrating Gyro (CVG)

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61
Q

Vibrating gyroscopes take advantage if what effect?

A

Coriolis Effect

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62
Q

How big are modern Micro Electro-Mechanical Systems?

A

Finger nail

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63
Q

What gyroscopes take advantage of the SAGNAC effect?

A

Optical Gyroscopes

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64
Q

An elementary radar consists of 3 components. These are?

A

Transmitting Antenna
Receiving Antenna
An energy detecting device or antenna

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65
Q

Radar clutter can come from …. (Name some examples)

A 
Land
Sea
Rain
Birds
Chaff
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66
Q

Describe Pulse Width

A

Time duration of a single pulse (represented by tau).

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67
Q

Describe Pulse Length

A

Distance between the leading and trailing edges of a pulse.

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68
Q

Describe Pulse Repetition Interval (PRI)

A

The time period between the start of one pulse and the start of the next pulse.

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69
Q

Describe Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF)

A

The number of pulses occurring in one second.

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70
Q

As the frequency of a radar increases, what happens to the;

  • Resolution
  • Equipment and Weight req’d
  • Power and Operating range
  • Interference
A

Resolution - Increases
Equipment and Weight req’d - Decreases
Power and Operating range - Decreases
Interference - Increases

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71
Q

Name the 3 radar transmission characteristics

A

Directional Information
Range Information
Relative Velocity between target and radar

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72
Q

How does a radar determine the relative velocity between itself and a target?

A

Doppler Effect

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73
Q

Radars fall broadly into what 3 types?

A

Pulse System, Continuous Wave, Pulse Doppler

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74
Q

Increasing the refraction occurs with what in changes in; Pressure, Temp, Moisture

A

Pressure - No difference
Temperature - Decreasing
Humidity - Increasing

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75
Q

What does MTI stand for? (radar)

A

Moving Target Indicator

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76
Q

What 4 characteristics are used to describe a radar?

A

Installation Env - Ground/Airbourne etc
Functional Characteristics - Search, Track etc
Transmission Char. - Pulse, CW etc
Oper. Freq - D-Band etc

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77
Q

Radar visual displays are usually of what 2 kinds?

A

Raw Video

Synthetic Video

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78
Q

3 applications of Radar are?

A

Search
Tracking
Fire-Control

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79
Q

Describe what a Search Radar does?

A

Scans wide areas at a lower frequency of return to the same point.

Can only distinguish targets that are far apart.

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80
Q

Describe what a Tracking Radar does?

A

Scans a narrow area more frequently.

Must be directed onto a target as their beams are narrower.

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81
Q

Describe what a Fire-Control Radar does?

A

Specifically direct weapon systems onto a target.

Emits a very narrow, intense beam to ensure accurate tracking information.

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82
Q

Describe a Search Radar’s characteristics? (PRF, Antenna Rotation etc)

A
  • Low PRF
  • Slow Antenna Rotation
  • Low Freq, Scan rate
  • Large in Size
  • Serves predominantly as an early warning indicator
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83
Q

Describe a Tracking Radar’s characteristics? (PRF, Antenna Rotation etc)

A
  • High PRF
  • Higher Antenna Rotation
  • Used when continuous flow of data required on discrete targets.
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84
Q

Describe a Fire-Control Radar’s characteristics? (PRF, Antenna Rotation etc)

A
  • Highest PRF
  • Very high Antenna Rotation (Often electronically scanned)
  • Very narrow beam width
  • Extreme accuracy, limited range
  • Initial target detection difficult
  • Multiple modes: Designation, Acquisition, Track
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85
Q

Least is _____

____ is best.

86
Q

To operate efficiently a Direct Indicating Compass System (DICS) must have

A

Horizontality
Sensitivity
Aperiodicity

87
Q

What does DICS stand for?

A

Direct Indicating Compass System

88
Q

How can you make a compass more sensitive?

A

Longer magnet
Increase pole strength
Reduce friction

89
Q

A magnetic compass is subject to disturbance and movement caused by ….

A

Acceleration/ Deceleration
Manoeuvre (pitch/roll/turns)
Turbulence

90
Q

A gyro-magnetic compass may also be known as ….

A

Direction Indicator (DI)

91
Q

The Detector Unit in the GMC may also be known as a ….

92
Q

What will impact the accuracy of GMC when traveling in an E/W direction?

A

Acceleration

93
Q

What will impact the accuracy of GMC when traveling in an N/S direction?

94
Q

What happens to the signal from the fluxvalve when the a/c is manoeuvring?

A

The signal is cut-off

95
Q

What are you looking for in a good compass swing area?

A

Low Magnetic Interference

96
Q

List some reasons for conducting a magnetic swing

A
  • Following a/c major servicing
  • Doubt in accuracy
  • Following a lightning strike
  • When compass components are replaced
  • After compass subject to a significant shock
  • When carrying unusual ferromagnetic loads
97
Q

What does ADF stand for?

A

Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)

98
Q

An ADF is a NDB. What does NDB stand for?

A

Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)

99
Q

What frequency do NDBs typically operate?

A

190-690 kHz

100
Q

What instruments may show the you the relative bearing of a ADF?

A
  • HSI
  • Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)
  • Multifunctional Display (MFD)
101
Q

An Auto Dir. Finding (ADF) system is made up of what components?

A
  • 2 perpendicular magnet cores wrapped with 2 coils of wire (Fixed Loop Coils).
  • Field Coils -Search Coil
  • Goniometer - Control Circuits
  • Sense Aerial
102
Q

Name some of the different errors an ADF may face

A
  • Night Effect - Changing ionosphere behaviour.
  • Synchronous Transmission - Two separate signals interfering.
  • Bank - When turning due to the movement of the coils over the EM wave.
  • Coastal Refraction - Will be along the coast.
  • Quadrantal - Electrical field along longitudinal axis of a/c
103
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

VHF Omnidirectional Range

104
Q

How many signals does a VOR transmit?

A

2

Omnidirectional + Rotating

105
Q

Describe the 2 signals that a VOR transmits.

A

Omnidirectional REFERENCE signal (30 Hz)

Rotating DIRECTIONAL signal (30 Hz, 1800RPM)

106
Q

What physics concept does a VOR take advantage of in order to determine bearing?

A

Phase difference between 2 EM signals

107
Q

The VOR transmits the Omnidirectional signal when the radial antenna is pointing _____.

108
Q

VOR uses what type of EM wave?

A

Space Wave (LOS)

109
Q

How many reserved bandwidths are there for VOR and ILS?

110
Q

VOR performance will depend on?

A

A/C altitude
Transmitter Power
Transmitter Height

111
Q

How accurate do we say a VOR is?

112
Q

Ground Beacon error can be caused by:

A

Uneven terrain (valleys, hills etc), trees, buildings etc

113
Q

When VOR radials deviate from their standard track due to terrain and start reflecting off of buildings, it is known as?

A

Scalloping

114
Q

Describe VOR Interference and Ambiguity

A

Interference - Receive 2 signals from separate ground beacons.

Ambiguity - When the a/c converges on the VOR the radials tighten.

115
Q

What does DME stand for?

A

Directional Measuring Equipment

116
Q

In relation to a DME, what is the TRANSPONDER and what is the INTERROGATOR?

A

Transponder - Ground Beacon

Interrogator - A/C

117
Q

The a/c transmits how many pulse pairs per second?

A

25 pulse pairs per second

118
Q

The DME transponder alters the reply frequency by +/- 63 MHz to prevent _______ ________

A

Destructive Interference

119
Q

What does protected range and altitude mean?

A

The range and altitude outside which signals of the same frequency may have originated from a different transmitter.

120
Q

What does TACAN stand for?

A

TACtical Air Navigation

121
Q

TACAN is the Military equivalent of _____

122
Q

TACAN is ____ accurate than civilian ______

A

MORE accurate than civilian VOR/DME

123
Q

In a TACAN, the DME operates in the UHF band, with every UHF frequency paired with _______

A

a VHF band frequency.

124
Q

A TACAN can be co-located with a VOR. This is known as ____

125
Q

In a TACAN, the Omnidirectional pulse fires when the directional pulse is pointing _____

126
Q

TACAN has ___ channels.

Each channel is number _ to ___ with each having an _ or _ designation.

A

252 channels

Number 1 to 126, with X or Y.

127
Q

What is the bearing accuracy of the TACAN?

A

+/- 0.5 deg

128
Q

What frequency band does a DME operate on?

129
Q

VOR determines _____

DME determines _____

A

VOR - DIRECTION

DME - RANGE

130
Q

What does HSI stand for?

A

Horizontal Situation Indicator

131
Q

The desired heading to a Beacon is set using the ___

A

CRS (Course)

132
Q

List common inputs to the HSI.

A
  • Magnetic Heading
  • VOR/ILS
  • DME
  • TACAN
  • NDB
133
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

VHF Omnidirectional Range

134
Q

What does TACAN stand for?

A

TACtical Air Navigation

135
Q

What does ILS stand for?

A

Instrument Landing System

136
Q

What does DME stand for?

A

Directional Measuring Equipment

137
Q

What does NDB stand for?

A

Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)

138
Q

In addition to the common nav inputs, what other information can be displayed on the HSI?

A 
TCAS - Term. Coll Avoid Sys
INS - Inertial Nav Sys
IRS - Inertial Ref Sys
Radios
Special purpose - Threat warning, Weather, moving map, A2A radar.
139
Q

What does LLZ stand for? (in relation to ILS)

140
Q

What does GP stand for? (in relation to ILS)

141
Q

What does an ILS enable?

A

Runway approach under instrument flight conditions.

142
Q

The right lobe of the LLZ (Localiser) is amplitude modulated by how much?

143
Q

The left lobe of the LLZ (Localiser) is amplitude modulated by how much?

144
Q

As you drift from centreline, the _____ of a LLZ (localiser) lobe increases.

145
Q

If you approach from right of centreline the aircraft will receive more of the ____ Hz signal.

146
Q

If you approach from left of centreline the aircraft will receive more of the ____ Hz signal.

147
Q

The LLZ (localiser) operates in HF/VHF/UHF band? (Choose one)

148
Q

The glidepath transmitter operates in the HF/VHF/UHF band? (Choose one)

149
Q

The localiser (LLZ) modulates signal in the _________ direction.

A

HORIZONTAL

150
Q

The glidepath(GP) transmitter modulates signal in the _________ direction.

151
Q

The UPPER LOBE of the glidepath signal is modulated at ___ Hz.

152
Q

The LOWER LOBE of the glidepath signal is modulated at ___ Hz.

153
Q

If you are receiving more of the 90 Hz modulated signal, you are ____ the glidepath.

154
Q

If you are receiving more of the 150 Hz modulated signal, you are ____ the glidepath.

155
Q

Aircraft using ILS can fall into one of how many ILS Operational Performance categories?

156
Q

Information about the specific associated with glideslope can be found in the __ ____

157
Q

Name the 5 ILS Operational Performance categories.

A 
Category I
Category II
Category IIIA
Category IIIB
Category IIIC
158
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category I a/c?

A

DH - Not below 200ft.

RVR - Not less than 550m.

159
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category II a/c?

A

DH - Not below 100ft.

RVR - Not less than 300m.

160
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category IIIA a/c?

A

DH - With dual autopilot; Not below 50ft.

RVR - Not less than 200m.

161
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category IIIB a/c?

A

DH - With dual autopilot; Lower than 50 ft or no DH.

RVR - Not less than 75m.

162
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category IIIC a/c?

A

DH - With dual autopilot; No DH limits. Guidance to and along runway & taxiways.

RVR - No external visual reference.

163
Q

List some ILS errors

A

Scalloping - Rapidly oscillating indications.

Beam bend - Gentle curve of the approach path.

FM Transmission - Frequencies just below 108MHz can produce spillage into LLZ frequencies causing interference.

Weather - Heavy snow or rain may attenuate ILS signals. Reducing range and degrading accuracy.

164
Q

What does MFD stand for?

A

Multi-Function Display

165
Q

What does EFIS stand for?

A

Electronic Flight Information System

166
Q

List the key components of EFIS

A
  • ADS (Air Data System)
  • ADC (Air Data Computer)
  • AHRS (Attitude and Heading Reference System)
  • EICAS (Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System) or ECAM (Engine Central Aircraft Monitor)
  • Integrated Avionics Unit
  • Data Bus
  • PFDs (Primary Flight Displays)
  • MFDs (Multi-Functions Displays)
  • IESI (Integrated Electronic Standby Instrument)
167
Q

What does AHRS stand for?

A

Attitude and Heading Reference System

168
Q

What does ADAHRS stand for?

A

Air Data Attitude and Heading Reference System

169
Q

What does EICAS stand for?

A

Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System

170
Q

Why might you need to be careful when reading fuel flow to the engines on MFDs?

A

The display may be presenting individual feeds if you have separate engines. Summing of flows needs to be done to determine total flow.

171
Q

The data bus contains what? (List L to R with respect to the diagram in notes)

A

Bus Controller
3 x Remote Terminal
Bus Monitor

172
Q

The two main types of display are

A

MFDs and PFDs

173
Q

A total failure of display will be indicated by a _______

A

BLANK SCREEN

174
Q

Failure of the feed to the display will be indicated by ______

A

RED CROSSES (X)

175
Q

The MFD can display various information. This can be …

A

Airspace Info
Charts
Airways
TCAS

176
Q

MIL_STD-……. is the high speed data bus network used to connect equipment.

A

MIL-STD-1773

177
Q

What piece of equipment is known as the “Heart of processing” and processes all the data from the a/c’s avionics and formats it.

A

Integrated Avionics Unit

178
Q

What does INS stand for?

A

Inertial Navigation System

179
Q

What does GPS stand for?

A

Global Positioning System

180
Q

An INS uses accelerometers and gyros to determine and track ____, ____ and ___.

A

POSITION
ORIENTATION
and
VELOCITY

181
Q

List the components of the INS (5)

A
  • Frame mounted Gimbals and motors
  • Accelerometers and Gyros on a gyro-stabilised platform
  • A computer
  • Aircrew interface
  • Cockpit displays
182
Q

INS gyros are contained in a ____ ______ unit

A

FLUID FILLED

183
Q

How many Gyros do you need to cover ROLL, PITCH and YAW?

184
Q

Gyros are used in an INS for what purpose?

A

Keep the platform holding the accelerometers stable

185
Q

The integrator is used to convert acceleration to _____

186
Q

The FIRST stage of the alignment process of the INS is ______

187
Q

What is the rate of INS heating during warmup?

A

15degC/min

188
Q

During INS heating the operating temp is about _____

189
Q

What are the two kinds of levelling done to an INS?

A

Fine

Coarse

190
Q

The gyro compassing during alignment of the iNS aligns the platform with ____ ______

A

TRUE NORTH

191
Q

The E-W gyro detects the _____ ________

A

EARTHS ROTATION

192
Q

Once the - gyro reads zero azimuth gimbal is stopped.

A

E-W

This is when the Earth’s rotation has no component affecting the platform.

193
Q

Once aligned a _____ ‘____’ light is illuminated

A

GREEN ‘READY’

194
Q

Strapdown INS/IRS systems are typically c_____, more r_____ and more r_____ than gimballed systems.

A

CHEAPER
more RELIABLE
more RUGGED

195
Q

Maximum error in SCHULER tuning occurs at __._ minutes and __._ minutes following disturbance.

A
  1. 1 mins

63. 3 mins

196
Q

Some INS errors are

A
  • Gimbal lock (Gimballed system)

- Compounding of disturbances from turbulence or vibration

197
Q

Name the 3 SEGMENTS associated with GPS

A

SPACE
CONTROL
USER

198
Q

GPS satellites are in the ___ segment

199
Q

GPS sats transmit on what 2 frequencies?

A

L1 - 1575.42 MHz

L2 - 1227.6 MHz

200
Q

C/A code is transmitted on what freq(s)?

201
Q

P code is transmitted on what freq(s)?

202
Q

The 2 services available from GPS are ____ and ____

A

SPS - Standard Positioning Service

PPS - Precise Positioning Service

203
Q

What GPS service will provide you with the most accurate service?

A

PPS - Precise Positioning Service

204
Q

PPS is primarily intended for …..

A

Military Users

US, NATO and AUS

205
Q

What does GNSS stand for?

A

Global Navigation Satellite System

206
Q

List types of GPS receiver

A
  • Continuous tracking
  • Sequential
  • Multiplex
  • All-in view
207
Q

List some GPS errors

A
  • Insufficient satellite availability
  • Ionospheric Effect
  • External interference and masking - LOS
  • Multipath effects (signal reflection from buildings)
208
Q

Describe Differential GPS

A

The use of a ground station to minimise GPS errors.

209
Q

When utilising Differential GPS; corrections are applied to the GPS signal at the ____ receiver.

210
Q

What does GNSS stand for?

A

Global Navigation Satellite System

Ground School - C Middleton (12 decks)

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