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Ground School - C Middleton > 3 Comms and EW > Flashcards

3 Comms and EW Flashcards

1
Q

EM Waves are affected by what 4 behaviours?

A

Reflection
Refraction
Diffraction
Attenuation

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2
Q

Define Reflection

A

Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection

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3
Q

Define Refraction

A

Caused by a change of velocity as an electromagnetic wave passes from one medium to another.

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4
Q

Define Diffraction

A

Deflection of waves around edges of obstacles placed in their path

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5
Q

Define Attenuation

A

Reduction (fading) of a signal

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6
Q

What 2 variables vary the amount of diffraction?

A

Wavelength

Size of the gap

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7
Q

What do we use to refract waves in the atmosphere?

A

Ionosphere

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8
Q

What do we use to refract waves in the atmosphere?

A

Ionosphere

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9
Q

What propagation mechanism is used to take advantage of the ionosphere?

A

Refraction

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10
Q

Describe Doppler

A

The apparent frequency shift from the point of the observer

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11
Q

What is a surface wave? (Bands?)

A

Wave that follows the curvature of the Earth’s surface. Used for long distances

VLF, LF, MF to some extent

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12
Q

What is a sky wave? (Bands?)

A

Wave that refracts off of the layers of the atmosphere (ionosphere). Can be used for very long distances.

HF is predominantly used due to need for refraction.

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13
Q

What is a space wave? (Bands?)

A

NOT one that goes to space!

Combines LOS and Earth-reflected pathways.

VHF, UHF bands used.

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14
Q

What are the effects of the atmosphere on propagation via refraction? (Pres, Moisture, Temp)

A

Pressure has no significant impact

Increase in moisture increases refraction

Decrease in Temp increases refraction

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15
Q

Name the 3 different types of refraction

A

Sub-Refraction (away from surface)
Normal
Super-Refraction (towards to the surface)

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16
Q

What is ducting?

A

Waves trapped between layers in the atmosphere.

Can be at ground level or at higher altitudes.

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17
Q

What is scatter?

A

Regions of turbulence containing variations in refractive index, deflect small portions of energy and can be picked up.

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18
Q

What are the 3 primary properties of EM wave energy

A

Wavelength
Amplitude
Frequency

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19
Q

What are the EM bands (low > high Hz)

A 
Radio
Microwaves
IR
Visible
UV
X-ray
Gamma Ray
Cosmic Ray
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20
Q

What orientation are the electric and magnetic fields shown?

A

Electric - Vertical

Magnetic - Horizontal

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21
Q

….. frequency waves are more susceptible to attenuation.

A

Higher

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22
Q

Describe the EM bands with frequency ranges

A

3KHz>VLF<30KHz>LF<300KHz>MF

MF<3MHz>HF<30MHz>VHF<300MHz>UHF

UHF<3GHz>SHF<30GHz>EHF<300GHz

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23
Q

Sky wave is affected mostly by what 2 factors?

A

Angle of Incidence

Frequency

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24
Q

Define the Maximum Useable Freq of a sky wave

A

Highest frequency at which refraction can take place at a given angle of incidence.

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25
Q

Space waves use what EM bands?

A

VHF, UHF

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26
Q

What is the ground wave portion of a sky wave?

A

Due to the width of the transmission cone, this is the ‘surface wave’ that will occur

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27
Q

What is the dead space portion of the sky wave?

A

The area past where by the ground wave has weakened significantly. But before where the return from the refraction of the atmosphere can be picked up.

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28
Q

What are the FREQUENICES, Types of Propagation (Surf, Sky, Space), and Uses of HF, VHF, UHF?

A

HF > 3-30 MHz/ SKY WAVE - single and multiple hops few thousand miles/ reliable continuous wave(CW) and radio transmission (RT)

VHF > 30-300MHz/ SPACE WAVE - within radio horizon/ Marker beacons, ILS Localizer, Radio telephone, Nav aids: VOR, PLB

UHF > 300MHz-3GHz/ SPACE WAVE - within radio horizon/ Radio telephone, ILS glide path, Pulse radio altimeters, TACAN, VORTAC, Search and GCI radars

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29
Q

What is a limitation of HF?

A

Noise contamination

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30
Q

What is a limitation of VHF/UHF?

A

Operating range - typically LOS comms.

Power has little impact on extending range

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31
Q

What is a limitation of bandwidth?

A

Data rate vs capacity.

This has limitations due to the power required to transmit successfully.

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32
Q

What are the 2 types of radio systems?

A

Guided - Wires/cables

Unguided - Waves through atmosphere

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33
Q

Describe the radio system

A

Message In – [Transducer] – Baseband Signal –[Modulator and Power Amp]– Aerial

Channel

Aerial–[Demodulator]–Baseband Recovered–[Transducer]–Message Out + Noise

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34
Q

How many frequencies are available and what are their spacing, in VHF and UHF?

A

VHF - 1300 frequencies at 8.33KHz spacing

UHF - 7000 frequencies at 25KHz spacing

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35
Q

Aircraft comms usually use what freq bands?

A

UHF - Military aircraft control

VHF - Civil and Military aircraft control

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36
Q

What are the 3 components of the V/UHF radio system?

A

Adapter Unit
Control Unit
Aerials

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37
Q

What does the ADAPTER unit do in a V/UHF radio system?

A

Converts data from series to parallel.
Can provide 1KHz tone.
For use in tactical situations where speech is not advisable

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38
Q

What does the CONTROL unit do in a V/UHF radio system?

A

Selects radio function (Tx+Rx, Tx+Rx+Guard, Tx+Rx+Homing, Tx+Rx+G+H)
Mode selection
Manual Frequency Selection

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39
Q

Why do we typically have 2 UHF aerials?

A

UHF may attenuate significantly across aircraft

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40
Q

Describe some points of Intercom Discipline

A
  • Mic should be off unless speaking
  • Monitor radio before, during and after speaking
  • Procedure should be followed
  • Crew members should NOT switch off/leave intercom without informing other crew members.
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41
Q

What is the difference between PRIMARY and SECONDARY Radar?

A

Primary - Operates independently of subject a/c

Secondary - A signal is used to trigger a response from equipment in the subject a/c.

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42
Q

What is the purpose of SECONDARY Radar

A
  • Used to detect and identify an a/c and determine range and bearing.
  • Important function in Identification of Friend or Foe (IFF).
  • The interrogator may be co-located with search radar or as a standalone system.
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43
Q

What is the name of the piece of equipment in the a/c that an interrogator seeks to interogate?

A

Transponder

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44
Q

What frequency does an interrogator interrogate at?

A

1030 MHz

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45
Q

What frequency will a transponder reply at when interrogated?

A

1090 MHz

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46
Q

A transponder provides automatic communication with who?

A

Air Traffic Control

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47
Q

How many possible transmit codes are available to a transponder?

A

4096

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48
Q

What does SSR stand for?

A

Secondary Surveillance Radar

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49
Q

SSR and … could be referred to as siblings?

A

IFF

IFF - Mil
SSR - Civvy/Mil

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50
Q

SSR (Secondary Surveillance Radar) can be degraded/ rendered inaccurate due to:

A

FRUITing - Friendly UnIntentional Transmission
Garbling - Multiple a/c in close proximity (Red Arrows)
Sidelobe Signals - Transponder triggered by radar sidelobes and interrogator beam.
Transponder Suppression - When the transponder is unable to respond due to it taking a very short (125 microsec) break.

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51
Q

How long are the codes that pilots set the transponder to respond with?

A

4 digits

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52
Q

What are the 3 SSR transponder modes?

A

A, C, S

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53
Q

Mode S provides a …-way data link?

A

TWO-way

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54
Q

Each a/c fitted with Mode S is assigned a …… address code

A

Unique

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55
Q

The Mode S signal, known as ‘Squitter’. Is received by ATC and who?

A

Other Mode S capable a/c

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56
Q

Mode S transmits information every …. second(s)?

A

1

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57
Q

Mode S feeds into what larger system?

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS)

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58
Q

Having unique IDs in Mode S removes what phenomena?

A

FRUITing and Garbling

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59
Q

What does TCAS stand for?

A

Traffic Alert and Call Avoidance System

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60
Q

Name the Military IFF modes.

A

1, 2, 3, 5

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61
Q

Name the Civilian SSR modes

A

A, C, S

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62
Q

Describe Mode 1

A

Military mode that comprise the framing pulses and information pulses set on COCKPIT control panel.

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63
Q

Describe Mode 2

A

Same as Mode 1. Military mode that comprise the framing pulses and information pulses.

However, NOT selectable in flight but preset on the transponder.

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64
Q

Describe Mode 3/A

A
  • Est. and maintain ID of a/c
  • Est. position of a/c
  • Facilitate hand off between ATS units
  • Supplement primary radar
  • Detect a/c squawking 7700, 7600, 7500.
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65
Q

Describe Mode C

A

Provides information on the vertical position of an a/c in flight

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66
Q

What are the 2 levels of Mode S?

A

Elementary

Enhanced Surveillance

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67
Q

Describe Mode S

A

Co-operative radar surveillance system employing ground-based interrogators and airborne transponders.

Evolutionary improvement to the existing SSR system in Mode3/A and C.

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68
Q

Describe Mode 5

A

CLASSIFIED, Mil ONLY, secure IFF system.

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69
Q

Define and describe the 3 key emergency squawk codes

A

7700 - Emergency situation
7600 - 2-way comms lost with ground
7500 - Unlawful interference i.e. hijacking

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70
Q

Name some examples of Link Units

A 
Ground Stn
Reconnaissance a/c or unit
Offensive a/c or unit
AWACS a/c
Capital Ships
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71
Q

What are the 3 types of EW?

A 
Electronic Support Measures (ESM)
Electronic Attack (EA)
Electronic Protection (EP)
72
Q

What does ESM stand for?

A

Electronic Support Measures

73
Q

What does EA stand for?

A

Electronic Attack

74
Q

What does EP stand for?

A

Electronic Protection

75
Q

What does RWR stand for?

A

Radar Warning Receiver

76
Q

Describe Range Advantage

A

The ability of you radar to see an object before it sees you

77
Q

The RWR provides you with…

A

Range Advantage

Direction Finding

78
Q

An RWR uses what techniques to determine direction?

A

Amplitude and Phase comparisons

79
Q

Within EA we have ECM. What does ECM stand for?

A

Electronic Counter Measures

80
Q

ECM is used to _____ the effectiveness of a radar

A

REDUCE the effectiveness

81
Q

ECM techniques can fall under 2 categories. These are…

A

Electronic Jamming

Electronic Deception

82
Q

Define Electronic Deception

A

Deliberate radiation, re-radiation, alteration, absorption or reflection of EM energy.

Done to confuse, distract, or seduce an enemy or their systems.

83
Q

List some means of Electronic Deception

A 
Decoys
Chaff
Tactics
Stealth
IR Countermeasures
84
Q

Electronic Protection (EP) is all about making it as _____ and as _____ as possible for an adversary to have an impact on your operations.

A

DIFFICULT and as COSTLY as possible

85
Q

EP is provided by …

A
  • Freq Agility
  • SOPs
  • Equipment Design
  • Parallel Ops
  • Planning
86
Q

To reduce the effectiveness of an incoming threat. Your deception signals need to be accepted by the adversaries missile’s ______.

87
Q

ESM is used to _____, ______ and _____ sources of intentional and ________ radiated EM energy.

A

ESM is used to INTERCEPT, IDENTIFY and LOCATE sources of intentional and UNINTENTIONAL radiated EM energy.

88
Q

What factors affect Radar Cross Section?

A

Shape
Size
Aspect
Build Materials

89
Q

The aim of the IR jammer is to ….

A

….disrupt the modulated signal coming from the IR missile so as to cause errors in the missile guidance.

90
Q

EP involves all actions taken to ______ ______, ______ and ______ from any effects of friendly, or enemy, employment of EW that ______, ______ or ______ friendly combat capability.

A

EP involves all actions taken to PROTECT PERSONNEL, FACILITIES and EQUIPMENT from any effects of friendly, or enemy, employment of EW that DEGRADE, NEUTRALIZE or DESTROY friendly combat capability.

91
Q

Reducing RCS seeks to minimise the amount of …..

A

RADAR ENERGY reflected back towards to radar.

92
Q

The aim of IR decoys is to …..

A

present a target to the missile that is more compelling than the a/c.

93
Q

What does DIRCM stand for?

A

Directional Infra Red Countermeasures

94
Q

How does DIRCM work?

A
  • Detects incoming missile with Missile Warning System (MWS).
  • IRCM head applies false signal to missile.
  • False signal jams missile guidance.
  • A/C no longer in missile FOV.
95
Q

What is the purpose of the ground marshallers?

A

To ensure a/c are manoeuvred safely on the ground

96
Q

When marshalled on the ground, who is responsible for the safety of the a/c?

A

The a/c commander is always responsible for the safety of the a/c

97
Q

Describe the AFFIRMATIVE signal?

98
Q

Describe the NEGATIVE signal?

A

Thumbs Down

99
Q

Describe the STOP signal?

A

Crossed arms above head

100
Q

Describe the THIS WAY signal?

A

Straight arms raised above head

101
Q

Describe the PROCEED TO NEXT MARSHALLER signal?

A

Arms pointing/moved towards the direction of the next marshaller.

102
Q

Describe the CONNECT ELECTRICAL POWER signal?

A

Two fingers into fist

103
Q

Describe the DISCONNECT ELECTRICAL POWER signal?

A

Two fingers out of fist

104
Q

Describe the START ENGINE signal?

A

Arms above head.

  • Left hand of marshaller Fingers/flashes indicating engine number.
  • Right hand of marshaller. Around in circle.
105
Q

Describe the CUT ENGINE signal?

A

Chop across neck

106
Q

Describe the FIRE signal?

A

Infinity symbol in one hand and pointing towards fire with other

107
Q

Describe the FLAPS LOWER signal?

A

Open flat hands apart

108
Q

Describe the FLAPS RAISE signal?

A

Close flat hands together

109
Q

Describe the CHOCKS IN signal?

A

Bring hands and thumbs (pointing in) together at 6 oclock

110
Q

Describe the CHOCKS OUT signal?

A

Move hands and thumbs (pointing out) apart from 6 oclock

111
Q

Describe the MOVE AHEAD signal?

A

Both arms straight out in front then brought towards the body

112
Q

Describe the SLOW DOWN signal?

A

Hands moved in a downwards direction with palms facing down

113
Q

Describe the TURN LEFT signal?

A

Marshaller’s right hand pointing to your left with other moving in direction required.

114
Q

Describe the TURN RIGHT signal?

A

Marshaller’s left hand pointing to your right with other moving in direction required.

115
Q

Describe the BRAKES ON signal?

A

Closing fists with arms out front

116
Q

Describe the BRAKES OFF signal?

A

Opening fists with arms out front

117
Q

Describe the REQUEST TO MOVE PERSONNEL TOWARDS A/C signal?

A

One arm pointing towards personnel and other straight in the air

118
Q

Describe the CLEARANCE TO MOVE PERSONNEL TOWARDS A/C signal?

A

A/c commander single arm towards face. Palm to face.

119
Q

“Chop across neck” indicates what signal?

A

CUT ENGINE

120
Q

“Thumbs down” indicates what signal?

121
Q

“Crossed arms above head” indicates what signal?

122
Q

What are the “actions on” if visual is lost with the ground marshall?

A

STOP immediately and seek further assistance

123
Q

Name the 3 types of radiotelephony transmissions

A

Clearance
Instructions
Information

124
Q

What time reference should be used unless told otherwise?

125
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“True or Accurate”?

126
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“I wish to know or obtain”?

127
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“Taxi on active runway in opposite direction to use”?

128
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“What’s the readability of my transmission”?

A

HOW DO YOU READ

129
Q

What is the range of the readability scale?

130
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“Yes”

131
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“No”

132
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“I repeat for clarity or emphasis”

A

I SAY AGAIN

133
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“Ignore”

134
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“I have finished transmitting and don’t expect a response”

135
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“Verify something is correct”

136
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“I have received and understood last transmission”

137
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“Let me know you received and understood message”

A

ACKNOWLEDGE

138
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“Establish contact with next ATC unit. Your details have been passed”

139
Q

What is the PROWORD for

“A formal handover has not been arranged, your details have not been passed”

140
Q

The suffix CONTROL refers to what type of service?

A

CONTROL - Area Control

141
Q

The suffix RADAR refers to what type of service?

A

RADAR - Radar (in general)

142
Q

The suffix APPROACH refers to what type of service?

A

APPROACH - Approach Control

143
Q

The suffix TOWER refers to what type of service?

A

TOWER - Aerodrome Control

144
Q

The suffix DEPARTURE refers to what type of service?

A

DEPARTURE - Approach Control Radar Departure

145
Q

The suffix GROUND refers to what type of service?

A

GROUND - Ground Movement Control

146
Q

The suffix ZONE refers to what type of service?

A

ZONE - Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone (MATZ) crossing

147
Q

The suffix TALKDOWN refers to what type of service?

A

TALKDOWN - Precision Approach Radar

148
Q

The suffix INFORMATION refers to what type of service?

A

INFORMATION - Flight Information

149
Q

The suffix RADIO refers to what type of service?

A

RADIO - Air/Ground Communication Service

150
Q

The suffix DELIVERY refers to what type of service?

A

DELIVERY - Clearance Delivery

151
Q

List good RT Techniques

A
  • Receiver Vol set to optimum level
  • Freq check for interference
  • Mic correct distance from mouth
  • NORMAL tone
  • Steady speech rate
  • Constant volume
  • PAUSE before and after numbers
  • No hesitations or ‘er’s
  • No excessive use of courtesies
  • Ensure push to talk depressed
  • Use standard R/F words and phrases
152
Q

Emergencies can happen where?

A

On the ground
In the Air
Without Warning

153
Q

If an emergency occurs, follow what 3 word rule of thumb?

A

Aviate, Navigate, Communicate

154
Q

What frequencies are used for emergencies?

A
  1. 5 MHz

243. 0 MHz

155
Q

Name the 3 standard emergency Mode 3/A squawks

A

7700 - Emergency
7600 - Total Radio Failure
7500 - Unlawful Interference

156
Q

What single word does “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY” indicates?

157
Q

What single word does “PANPAN PANPAN PANPAN” indicates?

158
Q

Describe what “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY” conveys?

A

Distress - A/c is threatened by serious or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance

159
Q

Describe what “PANPAN PANPAN PANPAN” conveys?

A

Urgency - Safety concern for a/c, other vehicle or pax but not requiring immediate assistance

160
Q

In an emergency transmission you should include what information?

A
  • Callsign
  • Type of a/c
  • Nature of emergency
  • Captain’s intentions and assistance required
  • Present or last known position, level and heading
  • Pilot quals (if relevant)
  • Any other information
161
Q

“Securite Securite Securite” is used for what purpose?

A

Inform all air traffic that a message contains info affecting safety

162
Q

What is the distance between the Tx (Transmitter) and Rx (Receiver) known as?

A

Skip distance

163
Q

What do EM waves consist of?

A

Electric + Magnetic Field

164
Q

What function on the intercom station box can be set to bypass the press to talk switch?

165
Q

What part of the crew comms system (CCS) is provided at each of the principal crew stations and permits individuals to select Tx and Rx as required?

A

Intercom Stn Box

166
Q

What frequencies does IFF/SSR use?

A

1030 MHz - Interrogate

1090 MHz - Transponder

167
Q

Why was Mode S introduced?

A

Support the automation of Air Traffic systems

168
Q

Which Mil IFF and Civ SSR modes are the same?

A

Mil Mode 3

Civ Mode A

169
Q

Which Mil IFF modes can be set in the cockpit?

A

Mode 1 + Mode 3

170
Q

What are the 3 types of EW?

A

ESM, EA, EP

171
Q

What is the name for actions taken to intercept, identify and locate intentional and unintentional radiated EM energy?

172
Q

What is the name for actions taken to prevent or reduce an enemy’s effective use of the EM spectrum, such as jamming and EM deception?

173
Q

What equipment is designated to detect, localize and identify threat radars so that appropriate countermeasures can be taken?

A

RWR - Radar Warning Receiver

174
Q

What is designed and programmed to identify threats, give warning to the crew and, where available, generate countermeasures?

A

Defensive Aid Suite (DAS)

175
Q

List some examples of possible measures that provide Electronic Protection?

A
  • Planning
  • Equipment Design
  • Frequency Diversity and Agility
  • Spread Spectrum

Ground School - C Middleton (12 decks)

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