237 Study Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Define atelectasis.

A

closure or collapse of alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common type of atelectasis?

A

acute atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are common causes of atelectasis?

A
  • post operation
  • immobilization with shallow, monotonous breathing pattern
  • excess secretions or mucus plug
  • chronic airway obstruction (e.g. lung cancer)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of atelectasis?

A
  • Usually insidious
  • Cough, sputum production, and increasing dyspnea
  • Tachycardia, tachypnea, pleural pain and central cyanosis may be anticipated
  • Difficulty breathing in supine position and is anxious
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What steps can you take to prevent atelectasis?

A
  • Frequent turning
  • Early mobilization
  • Strategies to expand lungs and manage secretions
  • Deep breathing every 2 hours
  • Incentive spirometry
  • Directed cough
  • Suctioning
  • Aerosol nebulizer treatment followed by chest physical therapy
  • Bronchoscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the components of the ICOUGH program?

A

I - incentive spirometry

C- coughing and deep breathing

O - oral care (brushing teeth and mouth wash twice daily)

U - understanding (patient and staff education)

G- getting out of bed at least 3x daily

H - head-of-bed elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the pathophysiology of atelectasis?

A
  • reduced alveolar ventilation or any type of blockage that impedes the passage of air to and from the alveoli
  • Monotonous low tidal breathing pattern may cause airway closure and alveolar collapse. Can be caused by anesthesia or analgesic agents, supine positioning, splinting of chest wall because of pain, abdominal distension
  • Impaired cough mechanism
  • Excessive pressure on the lung tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is involved in the assessment and diagnostics for atelectasis?

A
  • Increase work of breathing and hypoxemia
  • Decreased breath sounds and crackles
  • Chest x-ray, SpO2-low saturation (<90%) or lower PaO2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What risk factors are there for atelectasis?

A
  • Post op patients are at a high risk due to the effects of anesthesia or analgesic agents (surgical procedures: upper abdominal, thoracic, or open-heart surgery).
  • Immobilized
  • People with shallow, monotonous breathing patterns
  • Those in a supine position
  • Patients with impaired cough mechanisms
  • Excessive pressure on the lungs
  • Airway obstruction (cancer, mucus)
  • Pain can impair the cough reflex
  • Increased abdominal pressure/distension
  • Age
  • Exposure to pollutants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are signs and symptoms of infection with chronic atelectasis?

A
  • Chest pain
  • Sputum production with yellow/green colored expectorant
  • Pain on deep breathing
  • Pain on exhalation, inhalation or both
  • Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What assessments and assessment outcomes are involved with identifying atelectasis?

A
  • Monitor vital signs (RR higher, temp, SpO2)
  • Do a respiratory assessment (thorax and lungs)
  • Monitor change in behaviour, mental status, and LOC
  • Increased work of breathing (tachypnea, use of accessory muscles, tripod position breathing)
  • Hypoxemia (check skin, nails, lips color)
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Decreased breath sounds
  • Crackles over affected areas
  • Chest X-ray (revealing patchy infiltrates or consolidation areas)
  • V/Q Scan
  • Pulse Oximetry (SpO2) lower than 90%
  • Low PaO2
  • Physical assessment of dependent (lower part), basilar, and posterior areas of lung
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What lab values are relevant with atelectasis?

A
  • Less than 90% SpO2 (Sa02)or lower than normal PaO2 (normal PaO2 is 80 - 100 mm Hg)
  • Blood gasses- low PA02 (partial pressure of arterial oxygen).
  • Using a spirometer ​​airflow values greater than 80% is normal.
  • WBC if query infection, Sputum culture
  • Difference between alveolar and arterial o2- normal value is less than 10 mm Hg (torr)– Atelectasis Increased A-a O2 gradient
  • L/S ratio: 2:1 concentration of lecithin rapidly increases-sphingomyelin concentration decreases
  • Decreased Po2 and o2 content
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What diagnostic findings are associated with atelectasis?

A
  • Chest X-ray would reveal patchy infiltrates or consolidated areas (MOST COMMON)
  • Thoracentesis is done to remove fluid from the pleura
  • Bronchoscopy, CT, imaging tests can confirm a diagnosis.
  • Sp02 may be lower (less than 90%)
  • Lower partial pressure of oxygen (Pa02)
  • V/Q scan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is atelectasis managed using pharmacological agents?

A
  • Nebulizer or MDI (metered dose inhaler) treatments with a bronchodilator medication or sodium bicarbonate to assist with the expectoration of secretions
  • Expectorants (such as guaifenesin) to thin and aid in removal of secretions or mucous plugs
  • Use of oxygen therapy titrated to keep 02 saturations within acceptable range
  • Antibiotics, antivirals to assist with the removal of infections
  • If it is due to obstruction caused by lung cancer, various pharmacological interventions (Eg. chemotherapy & radiation) can be directed at shrinking the tumor to open airways and provide ventilation to the collapsed area
  • Analgesics may be used if hypoventilation is caused by pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some treatments for atelectasis?

A
  • Frequent turning
  • Early ambulation
  • Lung volume expansion maneuvers (deep-breathing exercises, incentive spirometry)
  • Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) therapy (simple mask and one-way valve system)
  • Continuous or intermittent positive pressure breathing
  • Chest percussion and postural drainage
  • Bronchoscopy
  • Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
  • Coughing/suctioning secretions
  • Chest physical therapy to loosen secretions
  • Radiation to shrink size of neoplasms causing compression of lung tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a pleural effusion?

A
  • Collection of fluid in the pleural space
  • Usually secondary to another disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are common causes of a pleural effusion?

A
  • Heart failure (most common cause)
  • Bacterial pneumonia
  • Lung cancer
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Pulmonary infection (often viral)
  • Radiation therapy to the chest
  • Nephrotic syndrome
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Liver disease
  • Connective tissue disease
  • Tuberculosis
  • Infection
  • Smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are clinical manifestations of a pleural effusion?

A
  • Those caused by the underlying disease process (eg. pneumonia, lung diseases) ; size of the effusion can affect severity of symptoms
  • Severity of symptoms relates to the size of the effusion, speed of formation, and underlying lung disease
  • May include:
    • Fever
    • Dyspnea
    • Chest pain- increased with breathing and coughing (pleuritic pain)
    • Small (dyspnea minimal) vs large effusion (shortness of breath present, lots of pressure on lungs from fluid)
    • Asymmetrical chest expansion
    • Decreased tactile fremitus
    • Orthopnea (difficulty breathing unless sitting up or standing)
    • Shallow, rapid breathing– crackles
    • Fatigue, Loss of appetite, LOC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a pleural effusion?

A
  • Typically secondary to other disease processes such as pneumonia, malignant effusions
  • Abnormal volume of fluid accumulates into pleural space. Fluid has pathological significance. Can be serous, purulent, or sanguineous.
  • Clear fluid may be transudate - which is filtrate of plasma moving through capillary tissues = occurring when there is an imbalance in hydrostatic or oncotic pressures - not diseased
  • This can indicate that the pleural membranes are NOT diseased - in this case HF is the most common cause
  • Or it can be exudate -which is leakage of blood, lymph or other fluid into tissues/cavities= which usually results from bacteria or tumors within the pleural surfaces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is involved in the assessment of a pleural effusion?

A
  • VS - increased Resp rate, shallow resps, tachycardia, decreased Sp 02, Increased HR and BP
  • Respiratory assessment-
    • Decreased or absent breath sounds over lung field
    • Decreased tactile fremitus
    • dull flat sound on percussion.
    • Asymmetrical chest expansion - delayed or diminished expansion on side of effusion
  • Patient may appear in respiratory distress on observation evidenced by:
    • increased work of breathing
    • Tachypnea
    • use of accessory muscles, or
    • have orthopnea when lying supine.
  • Neurological assessment
    • Pt may appear confused
    • Reduced level of consciousness
  • Tracheal deviation may be noted away from the affected side (rare).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What lab values are associated with a pleural effusion?

A
  • Pleural fluid analyzed by:
    • Bacterial culture
    • Gram stain
    • Acid-fast bacillus stain (for TB)
    • Interferon-gamma concentrations
    • Red and white blood cell counts
    • Chemistry studies (glucose, amylase, dehydrogenase, protein)
    • Cytology analysis for malignant cells
    • pH (different pH results can be indicative of the type of effusion)
  • CBC
    • Increased white blood cells count
  • Sputum culture
  • Blood gases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What diagnostic tests are involved in diagnosing a pleural effusion?

A
  • Chest X-ray, chest CT scan, and thoracentesis used to confirm the presence of fluid (in the pleural space)
  • In some cases, lateral decubitus X-ray is obtained (have patient lay on affected side in side-lying position, which allows for layering out of fluid, producing a visible air-fluid line)
  • Pleural biopsy (to look for cancer, infection, or other condition)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is involved in the pharmacological management of a pleural effusion?

A
  • Objective is to treat the underlying cause in order to prevent the re-accumulation of fluid
  • Use of chemical pleurodesis to ensure recurrence of fluid build up does not occur (prevents fluid accumulation) → Chemical irritating agents are installed into the pleural space (bleomycin or talc)
  • Chemotherapy to treat cancer (cancer can cause pleural effusion)
  • Pain management
  • Antibiotics to treat underlying infections
  • If pleural effusion is a result of treatment of conditions, such as HF, diuretics may be used
  • Bronchodilators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the treatment modalities for a pleural effusion?

A
  • Prevent re-accumulation of fluids:
    • Thoracentesis to remove fluid (specimen analysis, relief of dyspnea and respiratory compromise)
      • Prepare and position patient for thoracentesis, offering support throughout.
      • Record thoracentesis fluid amount and send for appropriate lab testing
  • Tube Thoracostomy (chest drainage using a large diameter intercostal tube)
  • Pain management of test tube and least painful positioning
  • Chemical pleurodesis (for malignant effusions, obliterates the pleural space to prevent re-accumulation of fluid)
  • Surgical pleurectomy, insertion of a drainage catheter, implantation of a pleuroperitoneal shunt
  • Patient education of drainage system and care of catheters if outpatient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is anemia?

A

Condition in which the hemoglobin concentration is lower than normal and reflects the presence of fewer than the normal number of erythrocytes within circulation. As a result, O2 delivered to body tissues is decreased. By far the most common hematologic condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the different classifications of anemia?

A
  • Hypoproliferative: caused by a defect in their production (marrow cannot produce adequate #s of erythrocytes
  • Hemolytic: By destruction of erythrocytes
  • Bleeding: by the loss of erythrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are some complications of anemia?

A
  • Heart failure
  • Paresthesias
  • Delirium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are risk factors associated with anemia?

A
  • A diet lacking in certain vitamins and minerals (such as iron, vitamin B12, folate, and iron)
  • Family history
  • Excessive blood loss due to injury, surgery, heavy menstruation
  • Age - people over 65 are at risk
  • Chronic conditions (IBD, HIV/AIDS, cancer, autoimmune diseases, and chronic kidney disease)
  • Mediterranean origin
  • Medications inhibiting effective absorption of nutrients
  • Alcoholism affecting production of RBCs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the pathophysiology associated with anemia?

A
  • The level of hemoglobin is lower than normal in the circulation causing less oxygen being delivered to the body tissues
  • Many different types that can affect the reason as to why there is low hemoglobin:
  • Decreased erythrocyte (RBC) production due to bone marrow damage either due to medications, chemicals or lack of factors needed for RBC formation = hypoproliferative anemia
  • Premature RBC destruction -> causing hemoglobin to be released into plasma -> which is then converted into bilirubin causing the concentration within the blood to increase-> leading to tissue hypoxia = known as hemolytic anemia
  • Bleeding causing a loss of RBCs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of anemia?

A
  • The more rapid the anemia develops the more severe the symptoms.
  • A healthy person can tolerate as much as 50% gradual reduction, where as the rapid reduction can be tolerated to >30%. 30% rapid loss can cause vascular collapse.
  • Tachypnea on exertion and fatigue (most common)
  • Those who are more active will have more significant symptoms.
  • Nausea, vomiting, malena
  • Neuro symptoms; weakness, ataxia, muscle pain
  • Fatigue
  • Jaundice with hemolytic anemia
  • General malaise
  • Tongue (smooth and red with iron deficiency anemia and beefy red and sore with megaloblastic anemia)
  • Cheilosis
  • Iron-deficiency may crave ice, starch, or dirt (pica)
  • Nails can become brittle, ridged, and concave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What assessments are involved in identifying anemia?

A
  • History/Genetics of Anemia in family:
  • Sickle cell anemia
  • Appearance:
    • Pallor in hands, mouth, conjunctiva
    • Condition of nails
    • History of menstrual cycles for female patients
  • Vital signs: low BP, high HR (if related to bleeding), decreased Sp02
  • Respiratory: dyspnea, tachypnea
  • Nutritional assessment
    • Looking for potential deficiency in iron, vitamin B12, and folic acid
    • Certain dietary approaches are at higher risk (e.g. strict vegetarians)
  • Health History
    • Medications (some can depress bone marrow activity, induce hemolysis, interfere with folate metabolism)
    • Alcohol use
  • Cardiovascular:
    • Distended neck veins, edema, chest pain on exertion, murmurs, gallops
    • Hypotension (below baseline)
    • Hypertension (above baseline)
  • GI system
    • Stool assessment for occult blood
  • Neurologic
    • Assess for peripheral numbness and paresthesias
  • Ataxia
  • Poor coordination
  • Confusion
  • Possibility of delirium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What lab values are associated with anemia?

A
  • Depends on the type of anemia (note: MCV measures the size and volume of red blood cells).
  • Hypoproliferative
    • Iron deficiency: decreased MCV, decreased reticulocytes
    • Vitamin b12: increased MCV
    • Folate deficiency: increased MCV
  • Bleeding (RBC loss)
    • Bleeding: decreased Hgb, Hct, and MCV
    • Increased reticulocytes
  • Hemolytic
    • Altered erythropoiesis: decreased MCV, increased reticulocytes
    • Drug induced anemia and autoimmune anemia: increased presence of spherocytes
  • Serum iron levels, total iron binding capacity. Vitamin B12 and folate levels. Haptoglobin and erythropoietin levels.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What diagnostic findings are related to anemia?

A
  • Hemoglobin
  • Hematocrit
  • Reticulocyte count
  • RBC indices - mean corpuscular volume and red cell distribution width
  • Iron studies
  • Serum B12 and folate levels
  • Haptoglobin
  • Erythropoietin levels
  • Bone marrow aspiration
  • Endoscopy - GI Bleed??
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What pharmacological management is involved in the treatment of anemia?

A
  • Transfusion of packed RBCs
  • Supplemental iron, vitamin B12, folic acid
  • Transfusions or IV fluid replacement to increase blood volume
  • Erythropoesis Stimulating Agents (
  • O2 therapy
  • IV fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the treatment modalities for anemia?

A
  • Managing fatigue (MOST COMMON SYMPTOM)
  • Maintaining adequate nutrition (iron, B12, folic acid, and protein)
  • Maintaining adequate perfusion - replacing lost volume with transfusions or IV fluids. Supplemental O2
  • Promoting adherence with prescribed therapy - Educate on purpose of med, how to take, over what time, and manage side effects. Consequences of stopping meds (corticosteroids)
  • Education on taking iron on an empty stomach unless GI upset
  • Taking a stool supplement
  • Blood transfusion
  • Monitoring for signs and symptoms of heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

For post care of thoracentesis, what should you monitor for?

A
  • Assess insertion site for bleeding and/or drainage
  • Monitor for :
    • Increased chest tightness
    • Uncontrollable cough
    • Blood tinged, frothy mucous
    • Sudden, uncontrollable pain
    • Signs of hypoxemia: increased respiratory rate, rapid pulse, anxiety, restlessness
  • Nursing Assessments:
    • Vital signs
    • Respiratory assessment (note any diminished breath sounds near the insertion site)
  • Interventions:
    • Oxygen, notify physician
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are interventions to ensure adequate perfusion related to anemia?

A
  • Monitor hemoglobin and ferritin levels
  • Vital signs to assess for hypoxemia
  • Supplemental oxygen and medications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are interventions to address fatigue that is related to anemia?

A
  • Prioritize activities and develop schedule with periods of activities balanced with rest
  • At least daily physical activity/exercise as tolerated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What interventions address ensuring adequate nutrition related to anemia?

A
  • Supplements: iron, folic acid, Vitamin B12
  • Protein rich diet – not tea and toast
  • Limit alcohol – inhibits absorption of nutrients and diminishes appetite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What interventions can address a patient with anemia adhering to prescribed therapy once discharged?

A
  • Assess ability to maintain healthy diet once home – need family support? Meals on Wheels?
  • Affordability of supplements – need assistance?
  • Strategies to manage side effects of supplements (constipation with iron therapy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What principles are involved in setting priorities?

A
  1. Make sure you have the big picture of all the patient’s problems.
  2. Determine the relationship among the problems.
  3. Setting priorities is a dynamic, changing process.
  4. Develop a multidisciplinary problem list, and refer to it frequently.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the steps involved in setting priorities?

A
  1. Ensure patient and caregiver safety and prevent infection transmission.
  2. Assign high priority to first-level priority problems.
  3. Attend to second-level priority problems.
  4. Address third-level priority problems.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define clinical judgment.

A

The definition of clinical judgment used for this concept presentation is “an interpretation or conclusion about a patient’s needs, concerns, or health problems, and/or the decision to take action (or not), use or modify standard approaches, or improvise new ones as deemed appropriate by the patient’s response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What two ways is priority setting defined?

A
  1. Differentiating between problems needing immediate attention and those requiring subsequent action
  2. Deciding what problems must be addressed in the patient records
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some methods of assigning priorities to patient needs?

A
  • ABC method
  • In emergency departments: life, limbs, and vision
  • Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the priority levels within Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A

Priority 1: Physiological needs - life threatening problems

Priority 2: Safety and security

Priority 3: Love and belonging

Priority 4: Self-esteem

Priority 5: Personal goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When thinking about first-level priority problems, what does “ABCs plus V and L” represent?

A

Airway problems

Breathing problems

_C_ardiac and _c_irculation problems

+

Vital signs concerns (e.g., fever, hypertension, hypotension)

Lab values that are life-threatening (e.g, low blood sugar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are considered second-level priority problems?

A
  • Mental status change (e.g., confusion, decreased alertness)
  • Medical problems requiring immediate attention (e.g., a diabetic who hasn’t had insulin)
  • Pain
  • Urinary elimination problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

By what process do nurses arrive at clinical decisions? Think of Tanner’s model.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Using an interpretivist view of clinical judgment, what attiributes are associated with it?

A
  • Holistic view of the patient situation
  • Process orientation
  • Reasoning and interpretation
  • Ethical comportment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does reflecting in action and reflecting on action refer to?

A

Reflection-in-action refers to the nurse’s understanding of patient responses to nursing actions while care is occurring. Reflection-on-action is consideration of the situation after the patient care occurs. In reflection-on-action, the nurse contemplates a situation and considers what was successful and what was unsuccessful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are casts used for?

A
  • Immobilize a reduced fracture
  • Correct a deformity
  • Apply uniform pressure to underlying soft tissue
  • Support and stabilize weakened joints
  • Materials: nonplaster (polyurethane), plaster
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some of the teaching needs associated with having a cast?

A
  • Cast care: keep dry; do not cover with plastic
  • Positioning: elevation of extremity; use of slings
  • Hygiene
  • Activity and mobility
  • Report the following signs and symptoms: pain not relieved by elevating cast limb or by analgesics; changes in sensation, movement, skin colour, or temperature; and signs of infection or pressure areas
  • Monitor neurovascular status and the potential for complications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What nursing interventions are there for patients with casts or immobilizers?

A
  • Assess and maintain adequate neurovascular status:
  • Assess circulation, sensation, and movement
  • Five P’s (pain, paresthesia, pallor, pulse, paralysis)
  • Notify physician at once of signs of compromise
  • Elevate extremity to heart level
  • Encourage movement of fingers or toes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is traction?

A
  • The application of pulling force to a part of the body
  • Promotes and maintains alignment of the injured part of the body
  • Surgical procedures such as open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF) have largely replaced the use of most forms of traction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the principles of effective traction?

A
  • Traction must be continuous to be effective
  • Weights are not removed unless intermittent traction is prescribed
  • The patient must be in good body alignment in the centre of the bed
  • Weights must hang freely and not rest on the bed or floor
  • Prevent complications such as skin breakdown (repositioning), nerve damage, infection, circulatory impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is an external fixator?

A

Used to manage open fractures with soft-tissue damage

Provide support for complicated or comminuted fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What nursing care is related to external fixators?

A
  • Reassure patient concerned by appearance of device
  • Discomfort is usually minimal, and early mobility may be anticipated with these devices
  • Elevate to reduce edema
  • Monitor for signs and symptoms of complications, including infection
  • Provide pin care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Define immobility.

A

Inability to move about freely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are some metabolic hazards of immobility?

A
  • Slowed wound healing, abnormal labs, muscle atrophy, decreased subcutaneous fat
  • endocrine metabolism, calcium resorption, gastrointestinal function (constipation), negative nitrogen balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are some respiratory hazards of immobility?

A

atelectasis, hypostatic pneumonia, dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, crackles, wheezes, decreased air entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are some cardiovascular hazards of immobility?

A
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • thrombus
  • embolus
  • pulmonary emboli
  • deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are some musculoskeletal hazards of immobility?

A
  • loss of endurance, strength, and muscle mass;
  • decreased stability and balance,
  • osteoporosis,
  • joint contracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are some urinary elimination hazards of immobility?

A
  • urinary stasis
  • urinary tract infection
  • urinary retention
  • decreased bowel movements
  • distended bladder or abdomen
  • decreased bowel sounds
  • constipation
  • anorexia, decreased appetite
  • renal calculi, urinary tract infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are some integumentary hazards of immobility?

A
  • ischemia
  • pressure ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are some of the psychosocial effects of immobility?

A
  • Decreased social interaction
  • Social isolation
  • Sensory deprivation
  • Loss of independence
  • Role changes
  • Worry
  • Depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are some risk factors for immobility?

A
  • older adults due to physiological changes
  • acute and chronic conditions
  • chronic
  • injury/trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Why is immobility especially concerning in children?

A

May interfere with their growth and development and intellectual and psychomotor functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the different materials used for casts?

A
  • plaster
  • non-plaster
  • aircast
  • half slab
  • polyurethane (lighter)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are some complications of casts?

A
  • Compartment syndrome
  • Pressure injuries
  • Disuse syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does CSM stand for relative to patients in a cast?

A

C - circulation

S - sensation

M - movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Limb-threatening complication that occurs when perfusion pressure falls below tissue pressure within a closed anatomic compartment.

Involves a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the tissues distal to an area of injury that results in ischemic necrosis if prompt, decisive intervention does not occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the 5 Ps of neurovascular function to assess after a fracture?

A
  • Pain
  • Paresthesia
  • Pallor
  • Paralysis
  • Pulselessness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What interventions can you undertake to address compartment syndrome?

A
  • Reduce pressure by bivalving cast if full cast
  • posterior cast with tensor
  • fasciotomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Though use of traction has reduced, what type traction is still common?

A

Halo traction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When are external fixators used with fractures?

A
  • Manage open fractures with soft tissue damage
  • Provide support for complicated or comminuted fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Nursing care of fracture with external fixator.

A
  • Discomfort is usually minimal
  • Elevate the limb to reduce edema
  • Provide pin care
  • Monitor for signs and symptoms of complications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are early complications of fracture healing?

A
  • Shock
  • Fat embolism syndrome (signs include: hypoxemia, neurologic compromise, petechial rash)
  • Acute compartment syndrome (MOST IMPORTANT sign is severe, unrelenting pain) - often occurs within 12 -24 hours
  • DVT and PE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are delayed complications of fracture healing?

A
  • Delayed union and nonunion
  • Avascular necrosis
  • Reaction to internal fixation devices
  • Complex regional pain syndrome
  • Hetertrophic ossification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are some factors that enhance healing?

A
  • Immobilization of fracture fragments
  • Max fragment contact
  • Sufficient blood supply
  • Proper nutrition
  • Exercise: weight bearing for long bones
  • Hormones: growth hormone, thyroid, calcitonin, anabolic steroids
  • Electric potential across fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What factors can inhibit healing?

A
  • Over 40 years old
  • Bone loss
  • Avascular necrosis
  • Smoking
  • Comorbidities
  • Corticosteroids, NSAIDS
  • Extensive local trauma
  • Inadequate immobilization
  • Infection
  • Local malignancy
  • Malalignment of fracture fragments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are some causes of amputation?

A
  • progressive peripheral arterial disease (MOST COMMON REASON)
  • fulminating gas gangrene
  • trauma
  • congenital deformities
  • chronic osteomyelitis
  • malignant tumour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are some complications of amputations?

A
  • Hemorrhage
  • infection
  • skin breakdown
  • phantom limb pain
  • joint contracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What nursing interventions are associated with amputations?

A
  • Managing pain
  • Minimizing altered sensory perception
  • Promoting wound healing
  • Enhancing body image
  • Helping the patient resolve grieving
  • Promoting independent self-care
  • Helping the patient achieve physical mobility
  • Monitoring and managing potential complications
  • Promoting home, community-based, and transitional care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What teaching is critical to re-iterate with hip replacement patients?

A
  • Mobility limitations for life
  • No adduction (no crossing legs, use pillow to keep knees apart)
  • Hip cannot go below the knee
  • Use pillow between knees
  • No twisting so the hip does not dislocate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

After fracture, who most frequently experiences a fat embolism?

A

adults younger than 40 and men; also those with multiple fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are some of the signs of a fat embolism?

A
  • Respiratory signs including PAO2 less than 60 mm Hg, cough
  • Neuro changes
  • Cardio: techy, chest xray shows snowstorm infiltrate
  • Skin: pale, petechial rash occurs 2-3 days after symptoms begin
  • Critical assessment is in first 12-72 hours
  • fever greater than 39.5
  • May find fat in urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When assessing neurovascular compromise in cases of fracture, what element of assessment is important?

A

Check bilaterally and compare!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How often should you reposition someone to prevent skin breakdown if they cannot move themselves?

A

Every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The nurse teaches which intervention to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery?

A

Never cross the affected leg when seated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Define teaching and learning.

A

✘Teaching is an interactive process that promotes learning.

✘Teaching and learning begin when a person identifies a knowledge or skill deficit.

✘Teaching is most effective when it addresses the learner’s needs, learning style, and capacity.

✘With successful teaching, patients can learn new skills or change existing attitudes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the role of the nurse in teaching and learning?

A
  • In patient education
    • Create an environment to facilitate learning.
    • Use a patient-centered approach (include patient’s perspective)
    • Assess the learning needs of the patient (what they know versus what I need them to know)
    • Use the most appropriate educational strategy.
  • To be taught: information needed by the patient and family to make informed decisions regarding their care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the three learning domains?

A

Cognitive, affective, psychomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Define the cognitive domain of learning.

A

Includes all intellectual behaviors and requires thinking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Define the affective domain of learning.

A

Expression of feelings and acceptance of attitudes, opinions, or values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Define the psychomotor domain of learning.

A

Involves acquiring skills that require integration of mental and muscular activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

List the key basic learning principles.

A
  • Learning environment
  • Ability to learn
    • Emotional capability
    • Intellectual capability
    • Physical capability
    • Developmental stage
      • Learning in children
      • Adult learning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is an important consideration for emotional capacility?

A

Timing is important. Must consider anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are important elements to include in a discharge summary?

A
  • Use clear, concise descriptions in the patient’s own language
  • Provide step-by-step instructions for how to perform any procedure that the patient or family will be doing independently; reinforce explanation with printed instructions
  • Identify precautions to follow when performing self-care or administering medications
  • Review signs and symptoms of complications that a patient or family member needs to report to a health care practitioner
  • List names and phone numbers of health care providers and community resources that the patient or family member can contact
  • Identify any unresolved problem, including plans for follow up and continuous treatment
  • List actual time of discharge, mode of transportation, and who accompanies the patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

When does discharge planning happen?

A

Begins at admission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are some of the motivational factors for learning?

A
  • Social motives
  • Task mastery motives
  • Physical motives
  • Motivation and social learning theory
  • Motivation and transtheoretical model of change
  • A patient-centered approach to patient education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the goals of patient education?

A
  • Maintaining and promoting health and preventing illness
  • Restoring health
  • Coping with impaired functioning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What physical attributes should be considered for learning psychomotor skills?

A
  • Size (height and weight)
  • Strength
  • Coordination
  • Sensory acuity
  • Any physical condition (such as pain, fatigue, hunger) that depletes energy also impairs the ability to learn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

When teaching adult learners, what approaches generally work well?

A
  • They can be independent, self-directed learners, but become dependent in new situations
  • Helps when they are encouraged to draw on past experiences to solve problems
  • Also good to collaborate with them on educational topics and goals
  • Address needs or issues that are important to the adult early on
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Define motivation.

A

A person’s willingness or desire to learn; influences a person’s behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the stages of the transtheoretical model of change.

A
  • Precontemplation
  • Contemplation
  • Preparation
  • Action
  • Maintenance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is involved in the L.E.A.R.N.S model?

A

L - Listen to patient needs

E - Establish therapeutic relationship

A- Adopt an intentional approach to every learning encounter

R - Reinforce health literacy

N - Name new knowledge via teach-back

S - Strengthen self-management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is involved in the assessment phase of patient education?

A
  • Learning needs
  • Ability to learn
    • Health literacy
  • Motivation to learn
  • Teaching environment
  • Resources for learning
109
Q

Define health literacy.

A
  • Definition: a patient’s ability to find, access, read, and understand reliable health information to make informed decisions about their health
  • Depending on their health literacy, patients can either be well informed or misinformed
  • In addition, patient information needs to be presented clearly, avoiding medical terminology, jargon, and acronyms
110
Q

What are some examples of patient education related nursing diagnoses?

A
  • Deficient knowledge
  • Health maintenance
  • Health-seeking behaviours
  • Health self-management
  • Mastery of health-related skill
  • When health care problems can be managed through education, the foci of patient education are knowledge and skills.
111
Q

What activities are involved in the planning phase of patient education?

A
  • Develops a teaching plan
  • Sets goals and expected outcomes
  • Works with the patient to select a teaching method
  • Developing learning objectives
  • Setting priorities
  • Timing
  • Organizing teaching material
  • Maintaining attention and promoting participation
  • Building on existing knowledge
  • Selecting teaching methods
  • Selecting resources
  • Writing teaching plans
112
Q

What are teaching approaches during the implementation phased of patient education?

A

Teaching approaches

  • Telling
  • Selling
  • Participating
  • Entrusting
  • Reinforcing
113
Q

List some of the different teaching methods that nurses can use.

A
  • One-on-one discussion
  • Demonstrations
  • Role playing
  • Simulation
114
Q

What are some key aspects to consider when selecting the best teaching method?

A
  • Paying attention to learning barriers
  • Illiteracy and learning disabilities
  • Health literacy
  • Sensory alterations
  • Language
  • Cultural diversity
  • Needs of patients with severe illness
115
Q

What is involved in the evaluation phase of patient education?

A
  • It is necessary to determine whether the patient has learned the material.
    • Demonstration of skill taught
    • Teach back of information learned
  • This helps to reinforce correct behaviour and change an incorrect behaviour.
  • May need to modify approach if further patient teaching is needed.
116
Q

What are the elements to include in the documentation of patient education?

A
  • Purpose of teaching session
  • Patient engagement
  • Evaluation of patient learning
  • Any reinforcement required
117
Q

What is involved in the teaching approach ‘Telling’?

A
  • Useful when there is limited information to be taught. Nurse outlines the task and fives instructions. No real opportunity for feedback.
118
Q

What are the major cations?

A
  • Sodium
  • Potassium
  • Calcium
  • Magnesium
  • Hydrogen ions
119
Q

What are the major anions?

A

oChlorideo Bicarbonateo Phosphateo Sulfateo Proteinate ions

120
Q

What are the main causes of hyponatremia?

A
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • water intoxication
  • SIADH, and
  • losses by vomiting, diarrhea, sweating, and diuretics and other certain medications
121
Q

What are the signs of hyponatremia?

A
  • poor skin turgor
  • dry mucosa
  • headache
  • decreased salivation
  • decreased BP (orthostatic)
  • nausea
  • abdominal cramping
  • and neurologic changes
122
Q

What medical management is involved in hyponatremia?

A
  • water restriction
  • sodium replacement
  • AVP receptor antagonists
123
Q

What is the nursing management of hyponatremia?

A
  • assessment and prevention
  • monitoring of dietary sodium and fluid intake
  • identification and monitoring of at-risk patients and the effects of medications (diuretics and lithium)
124
Q

What are the causes of hypernatremia?

A
  • excess water loss
  • excess sodium administration
  • diabetes insipidus
  • heat stroke
  • near-drowning in sea water
  • and hypertonic IV solutions
125
Q

What are the manifestations of hypernatremia?

A
  • thirst
  • elevated temperature
  • dry, swollen tongue
  • sticky mucosa
  • neurologic symptoms
  • restlessness; and weakness
  • Thirst may be impaired in the older adult or ill
126
Q

What is the medical management of hypernatremia?

A

: hypotonic sodium solution or D5W (only if water needs to be replaced and not sodium)

127
Q

What is the nursing management of hypernatremia?

A
  • assessment and prevention
  • assess for over-the-counter (OTC) sources of sodium
  • offer and encourage fluids to meet patient needs
  • and provide sufficient water with tube feedings
128
Q

What are causes of hypokalemia?

A

GI losses, medications, alterations of acid–base balance, hyperaldosteronism, and poor dietary intake

129
Q

What are the manifestations of hypokalemia?

A

fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, dysrhythmias, hypotension, muscle weakness, leg cramps, paresthesias, glucose intolerance, decreased muscle strength, and deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)

130
Q

What is the medical management of hypokalemia?

A

increased dietary potassium, potassium replacement, and IV for severe deficit

131
Q

What is the nursing management of hypokalemia?

A

assessment (severe hypokalemia is life-threatening), monitoring of electrocardiogram (ECG), arterial blood gases (ABGs), I&O, and dietary potassium, and providing nursing care related to IV potassium administration

132
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalemia?

A

usually treatment-related, decreased renal excretion of potassium, rapid administration, and movement from ICF to ECF

133
Q

What are the manifestations of hyperkalemia?

A

cardiac changes and dysrhythmias, muscle weakness with potential respiratory and speech impairment, paresthesias, anxiety, and GI manifestations

134
Q

What is the medical management of hyperkalemia?

A

monitor ECG, cation exchange resin (Kayexalate), IV sodium bicarbonate, IV calcium gluconate, regular insulin and hypertonic dextrose IV, and b2-agonists; limit dietary potassium; and perform dialysis

135
Q

What is the nursing management for hyperkalemia?

A

assess serum potassium levels, mix well IVs containing K+, monitor medication effects, and initiate dietary potassium restriction and dietary teaching for patients at risk

136
Q

What level is hypocalcemia?

A

vSerum calcium lower than 2.18 mmol/L

137
Q

What are the causes of hypocalcemia?

A

hypoparathyroidism, malabsorption, pancreatitis, alkalosis, massive transfusion of citrated blood, kidney injury, medications, other

138
Q

What are the manifestations of hypocalcemia?

A

: tetany, circumoral numbness, paresthesias, hyperactive DTRs, Trousseau’s sign, Chovstek’s sign, seizures, respiratory symptoms of dyspnea and laryngospasm, abnormal clotting, and anxiety

139
Q

What is the medical management of hypocalcemia?

A

IV of calcium gluconate, calcium and vitamin D supplements, diet

140
Q

What nursing management is involved in hypocalcemia?

A

assessment as severe hypocalcemia is life-threatening, weight-bearing exercises to decrease bone calcium loss, patient teaching related to diet and medications, and nursing care related to IV calcium administration

141
Q

At what serum level is hypercalcemia?

A

2.6 mmol/L

142
Q

What are the causes of hypercalcemia?

A

malignancy and hyperparathyroidism, bone loss related to immobility

143
Q

What are the manifestations of hypercalcemia?

A

muscle weakness, confusion, incoordination, anorexia, constipation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal and bone pain, polyuria, thirst, ECG changes, and dysrhythmias

144
Q

What is the medical management of hypercalcemia?

A

treat underlying cause, administer fluids, furosemide, phosphates, calcitonin, and bisphosphonates

145
Q

What nursing management is involved in hypercalcemia?

A

assessment as hypercalcemic crisis has high mortality, encourage ambulation, fluids of 2.8 to 3.8 L/day, provide fluids containing sodium unless contraindicated and fibre for constipation, and ensure safety

146
Q

At what level is hypomagnesemia?

A

vSerum magnesium level less than 0.75 mmol/L

147
Q

What are the causes of hypermagnesemia?

A

alcoholism, GI losses, enteral or parenteral feeding deficient in magnesium, medications, rapid administration of citrated blood; contributing causes include diabetic ketoacidosis, sepsis, burns, and hypothermia

148
Q

What are the manifestations of hypomagnesemia?

A

neuromuscular irritability, muscle weakness, tremors, athetoid movements, ECG changes and dysrhythmias, and alterations in mood and level of consciousness

149
Q

What is the medical management of hypomegnesemia?

A

diet, oral magnesium, and magnesium sulfate IV

150
Q

What nursing management is associated with hypomagnesemia?

A

assessment, ensure safety, patient teaching related to diet, medications, alcohol use, and nursing care related to IV magnesium sulfate

151
Q

What often accompanies hypomagnesemia?

A

Hypocalcemia

152
Q

What other condition is common in magnesium-depleted patients?

A

Dysphagia

153
Q

What serum level is hypermagnesemia?

A

Greater than 0.95 mmol/L

154
Q

Define metastasis.

A

vThe abnormal cells have invasive characteristics and infiltrate other tissues. This phenomenon is metastasis – most commonly through lymphatic circulation

155
Q

What is involved in the malignant process?

A
  • Cell proliferation: uncontrolled growth, with the ability to metastasize, destroy tissue, and cause death
  • Cell characteristics: presence of tumour-specific antigens, altered shape, structure, and metabolism
  • Metastasis:
    • Lymphatic spread (most common)
    • Hematogenous spread
    • Angiogenesis
  • Carcinogenesis
156
Q

Define sepsis.

A

Sepsis is defined as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection.

157
Q

Define septic shock.

A

Septic shock is a subset of sepsis with circulatory and cellular/metabolic dysfunction associated with a higher risk of mortality

158
Q

What are the element of the quickSOFA relative to sepsis?

A

The qSOFA provides simple bedside criteria to quickly identify adult patients with suspected infection who are likely to have poor outcomes.

This screening tool is positive in those with suspected infection and at least 2 of the following criteria:

  • Respiratory rate ≥ 22/min
  • Altered mental status
  • Systolic blood pressure ≤ 100 mmHg

Positive screening should prompt further work-up for organ dysfunction and infection (if not already identified), and escalation of therapy or level of care

159
Q

What is the management of sepsis?

A

The Surviving Sepsis Campaign (SSC) Bundle (Levy, Evans, & Rhodes, 2018)

Initiate promptly upon recognition of sepsis/septic shock.

Prioritize resuscitation, diagnosis, and treatment by instituting the following interventions:

  • Measure lactate level (repeat lactate if initial lactate elevated [>2mmol/L]).
  • Obtain blood cultures before administering antibiotics.
  • Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics.
  • Begin rapid administration of 30mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate  4mmol/L.
  • Give vasopressors if hypotensive during or after fluid resuscitation, to maintain mean arterial pressure  65mm Hg
160
Q

What is the most common type of distributive shock?

A

septic shock

161
Q

What are the risk factors for septic shock?

A

•Risk factors include patients with immunosuppression, extremes of age < 1 and > 65, malnourishment, chronic illness, invasive procedures, and emergent and/or multiple surgeries

162
Q

What are common precursors to septic shock?

A

Bacteremia, pneumonia, and urosepsis

163
Q

What kind of bacteria most commonly causes septic shock?

A

gram-negative bacteria

164
Q

What is a central component of treating septic shock?

A

antibiotic treatment

165
Q

What are the four stages of sepsis?

A
  • SIRS- systemic inflammatory response syndrome
  • Sepsis
  • Septic Shock
  • MODS- multi organ dysfunction syndrome
166
Q

What are the clinical signs of SIRS?

A

Must meet 2 of the 4 criteria plus have clinical suggestion of possible SIRS

  • Temperature•> 38•< 36
  • Heart Rate•> 90
  • Respiratory Rate•> 20 or PaC02 <32
  • WBC> 12,000 or < 4,000 •> 10% band cells
  • Acutely Altered Mental Status
167
Q

How is sepsis diagnosed?

A
  • Blood cultures
  • Urinalysis and urine cultures
  • Wound culture
  • Sputum sample
  • Labs: CBC,PT, PTT, albumin, ALP, ALT, Bilirubin, Calcium, Urea, Creatinine, Electrolytes, Glucose, Lactate, Lipase, Magnesium
  • Chest x-ray SIRS criteria met plus a confirmed infection
168
Q

What are some characteristics of septic shock?

A
  • Sepsis
  • Decreased blood pressure
    • We fluid challenge the patient to increase the BP
  • Decreased organ function that is reversible
169
Q

What are some characteristics of Multi-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?

A
  • Severe septic shock with organ failure
  • Liver failure
  • Other organ failure that is not reversible
170
Q

What is the first line of treatment for sepsis?

A
  • Oxygen therapy
  • Fluids - IV 30mL/kg
  • Vasopressors
  • Antibiotics
171
Q

What is the second line of treatment for sepsis?

A
  • Corticosteroids
  • Insulin therapy
  • Dialysis
  • Mechanical ventilation
  • Blood transfusions
172
Q

What should MAP minimally be for organ perfusion?

A

60-65 mmHg

173
Q

What medications are used to increase blood pressure in sepsis?

A
  • Vasopressors
    • Vasoconstriction to elevate MAP through increasing the SVR
    • Stimulate alpha-1, beta-1, and beta-2 receptors in the body
    • Norepinephrine, epinephrine, vasopressin
  • Inotropes
    • Increase cardiac contractility (through increasing intracellular calcium)
    • Dopamine, dobutamine
174
Q

What is the most commonly identified agent in antibiotic-associated diarrhea in the hospital?

A

Clostridium difficile

175
Q

When do signs and symptoms of c-diff start?

A

•Signs and symptoms usually occur 5-10 days after starting antibiotics, but may occur as soon as the first day or up to two months later

176
Q

Who does c.diff commonly affect?

A

•Commonly affects older adults and individuals in hospitals and LTC

177
Q

How is c. diff diagnosed?

A

•Diagnosed with a stool test

178
Q

What are the manifestations of a severe infection with c. diff?

A
  • Watery diarrhea 10 to 15 times a day
  • Abdominal cramping and pain, which may be severe
  • Rapid heart rate
  • Fever
  • Blood or pus in the stool
  • Nausea
  • Dehydration
  • Loss of appetite
  • Weight loss
  • Swollen abdomen
  • Kidney failure
  • Increased white blood cell count
179
Q

What treatments are available for c. diff?

A
  • Stop taking the antibiotic when possible
  • Other antibiotics: vancomycin (Vancocin HCL, Firvanq) or fidaxomicin (Dificid). Metronidazole (Flagyl) may be rarely used if vancomycin or fidaxomicin aren’t available.
  • Surgery
  • Fecal transplant
  • Probiotics – may be controversial
180
Q

What complications are associated with c. diff?

A
  • Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
  • Dehydration
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias
  • Skin breakdown
181
Q

List three types of shock.

A
  1. Distributive
  2. Hypovolemic
  3. Cardiogenic
182
Q

What are two critical actions by the nurse in preventing death from sepsis?

A
  • Early recognition; know when your patient is deteriorating
  • Do not wait to give antibiotics; even if pharmacy is closed, find a way
183
Q

What kind of isolation precautions are needed with c. diff?

A

contact precautions

184
Q

How should you perform hand hygiene when caring for patients with c. diff?

A

Soap and water (alcohol-based hand sanitizers are not as effective)

185
Q

Organ failure associated with MODS usually begins in:

a) kidneys
b) lungs
c) liver
d) brain

A

b) lungs

It goes, lung, liver, GI system, kidneys

186
Q

What pulse pressure indicates shock?

A

A narrowed or decrease pulse pressure e.g. 90/70 (20, so less than 40 mm Hg)

187
Q

What is a notable difference between Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis?

A

Crohn’s is more systemic and can affect many other parts of the body.

188
Q

What diagnostic tests are typically involved in diagnosing Inflammatory Bowel Disease?

A

lab values, intestinal biopsies, CT scan, and barium studies

189
Q

What is involved in the assessment of a patient with IBD?

A
  • Perform health history to identify onset, duration, and characteristics of pain, diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus (cramping rectal pain), nausea, anorexia, weight loss, bleeding, and family history
  • Discuss dietary patterns, alcohol, caffeine, and nicotine use
  • Assess bowel elimination patterns and stool
  • Perform abdominal assessment
190
Q

What are some of the common diagnosis related to IBD?

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Acute pain
  • Deficient fluid
  • Imbalanced nutrition
  • Activity intolerance
  • Anxiety
  • Ineffective coping
  • Risk for impaired skin integrity
  • Risk for ineffective therapeutic regimen management
191
Q

What are some potential complications of IBD?

A
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias related to electrolyte imbalances
  • GI bleeding with fluid volume loss
  • Perforation of the bowel
  • Intraperitoneal infection
  • Complete large bowel obstruction
  • Peritonitis, abscess, and sepsis
192
Q

What are major goals in the nursing planning phase for a patient with IBD?

A
  • Attainment of normal bowel elimination patterns
  • relief of abdominal pain and cramping
  • prevention of fluid volume deficit
  • maintenance of optimal nutrition and weight
  • avoidance of fatigue
  • reduction of anxiety
  • promotion of effective coping
  • absence of skin breakdown
  • increased knowledge of disease process and therapeutic regimen, and
  • avoidance of complications
  • Emotional support from the family is critical post discharge
193
Q

What are some strategies for maintaining normal elimination patterns?

A
  • Identify relationship between diarrhea and food, activities, or emotional stressors
  • Provide ready access to bathroom or commode
  • Encourage bed rest to reduce peristalsis
  • Administer medications as prescribed
  • Record frequency, consistency, character, and amounts of stools
194
Q

What are some key topics for patient teaching for patients with IBD?

A
  • Understanding of disease process
  • Nutrition and diet (high protein, low residue, bland, high vitamin, etc.)
  • Medications
195
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A

Enlarged prostate

196
Q

This is one of the most common pathologic conditions in men older than 50 years of age.

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

197
Q

Crohn’s Disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by which pathophysiological process?

a) disaccharide deficiency
b) Gastric resection
c) Inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa
d) Infection disease

A

c) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa

198
Q

The presence of mucus and pus in the stool is indicative of what disease?

a) Intestinal malabsorption
b) Disorders of the colon
c) Ulcerative colitis
d) small bowel disease

A

c) ulcerative colitis

199
Q

What is a true statement regarding regional enteritis (Crohn’s disease)?

a) The lesions are in continuous contact with one another.
b) The clusters of ulcers take on a cobblestone appearance.
c) It is characterized by pain in the left abdominal quadrant?
d) It has a progressive disease pattern.

A

b) The clusters of ulcers take on a cobblestone appearance.

200
Q

Clients with irritable bowel disease are at significant risk for which condition?

a) Hypotension
b) DVT
c) Pneumonia
d) Osteoporosis

A

d) osteoporosis

201
Q

What is the most prominent sign of IBD?

a) Intermittent pain
b) Hyperactive sounds
c) Increased peristalsis
d) Abdominal distension

A

a) Intermittent pain

202
Q

What are manifestations of BPH?

A

feelings of urgency, urinary obstruction, urinary retention, and urinary tract infections

203
Q

What treatments are there for BPH?

A
  • Pharmacologic: alpha-adrenergic blockers, alpha- adrenergic antagonists or a combination of both, and antiandrogen agents
  • Catheterization if unable to void
  • Prostate surgery
204
Q

What are potential complications of prostate surgery?

A
  • Hemorrhage and shock – monitor catheter drainage system, monitor vital signs, administer fluids and blood
  • Infection – catheter care, antibiotic cream
  • DVT- compression stockings, encourage mobilization, assess leg circumference
  • Catheter obstruction – monitor catheter drainage system, irrigate the catheter
205
Q

What is the most common type of prostate surgery?

A

Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

206
Q

What are the risk factors for renal failure?

A

diabetes, hypertension, heart failure, acute dehydration

207
Q

What are the leading causes of chronic kidney failure in Canada?

A

Diabetes and hypertension

208
Q

What are the clinical manifestations and lab evidence of renal failure?

A
  • Fluid volume loss or excess
  • Anemia
  • Elevated serum creatinine, BUN, and decreased GFR (see stages page 1285)
  • Electrolyte abnormalities – most common hyperkalemia
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Proteinuria
209
Q

What is acute kidney failure?

A

When the kidneys cannot remove wastes or perform regulatory functions

210
Q

What are the four phases of acute kidney failure?

A
  1. initiation
  2. oliguria
  3. diuresis
  4. recovery (may take 3 - 12 months)
211
Q

True or false: acute kidney injury is sometimes reversible?

A

True

212
Q

What is the most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient?

A

Weight

1-kg weight gain is equal to 1,000 mL of retained fluid

213
Q

What are the major categories of acute kidney injury?

A
  • Prerenal (hypoperfusion of the kidney)
  • Intrarenal (actual damage to kidney tissue)
  • Postrenal (obstruction to urine flow)
214
Q

What is azotemia?

A

abnormal concentration of nitrogenous wastes in the blood

215
Q

What are some of the causes of acute kidney injury?

A
  • Hypovolemia
  • Hypotension
  • Reduced cardiac output and heart failure
  • Obstruction of the kidney or lower urinary tract
  • Bilateral obstruction of renal arteries or veins
216
Q

What are treatment options for renal failure?

A
  • Hemodialysis
  • Peritoneal dialysis (PD)
  • Continuous renal replacement therapies (CRRTs)
217
Q

What is the nursing care for excess fluid volume?

A
  • Assess for signs and symptoms of fluid volume excess; keep accurate I&O and daily weight records
  • Limit fluid to prescribed amounts
  • Identify sources of fluid
  • Explain to patient and family the rationale for the restriction
  • Assist patient in coping with the fluid restriction
  • Provide or encourage frequent oral hygiene
218
Q

What are some medication considerations relative to hemodialysis?

A
  • Depending on the time of hemodialysis will need to modify medication regimen as many medications are dialyzed out by the dialyzer.
  • You also need to hold antihypertensives before all dialysis as removing fluid causes hypotension
219
Q

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute renal failure?

A

Increased BUN

220
Q

What is involved in family-centered care?

A
  • Involves both patient and family members
  • Considers the impact of illness on family, as well as patient
  • Provides a context for patient teaching and need for services
221
Q

True or false:

A

Negative family responses have been associated with negative patient outcomes, while supportive positive family responses are associated with positive patient outcomes

222
Q

When gathering information about families, what should nurses ask about?

A
  • Cultural identity
  • Rituals
  • Values
  • Level of involvement
  • Decision making
  • Spiritual beliefs
  • Traditional behaviors
  • Past medical experiences
  • Concurrent family stressors
  • Expectations for treatment

*

223
Q

What are some family related considerations to prevent short term caregiver burden?

A
  • Open visitation policies but need for respite
  • Educating the family along with the patient
  • Helping families access services, support groups, and natural support networks
  • Supporting the caregiver r/t discharge planning (referrals to home care, community resources)
  • Validating and normalizing emotions
  • Managing criticism and advice from less involved family members
224
Q

What are some technology options for enhancing communication?

A
  • Cellular phones
  • Skype, FaceTime
  • Twitter, Facebook, other social media
  • Caring Bridge
  • World wide web
  • YouTube
  • Informational videos
225
Q

What are some common diagnoses regarding family dynamics and caregiving?

A
  • Compromised family coping
  • Ineffective family therapeutic regimen management
  • Readiness for enhanced family processes
  • Readiness for enhanced relationship
226
Q

What is involved in the planning phase of nursing care for families?

A
  • Family involvement increases likelihood of successful adaptation.
  • Development of appropriate nursing actions should be based on mutually established goals.
  • Interventive questioning sets up a sense of ownership and self-efficacy for families.
227
Q

What is involved in the Implementation phase for nursing care related to family dynamics?

A
  • Validating emotional responses
  • Summarizing each person’s viewpoint
  • Offering information – consequences of not following a healthy diet
  • Collaboration about possible solutions
  • Compromise: Healthy options that meet both their needs
228
Q

What are some pitfalls for the nurse to avoid in family-centered care?

A
  • Not considering the context of the family situation (resources, distance, health state)
  • Taking sides – act as a mediator
  • Giving too much advice prematurely – gather as much information beforehand
229
Q

Define family dynamics.

A

the term family dynamics is defined as interrelationships between and among individual family members or “the forces at work within a family that produce particular behaviors or symptoms

230
Q

What is the Calgary Family Assessment Model (CFAM)?

A

The CFAM6 is widely used by nurses to assess families.

The model is used to ask family members questions about themselves to gain understanding of the structure, development, and function at a point in time. Not all questions within the subcategories are asked at the first interview, and not all questions are appropriate for all families.

231
Q

What are some of the needs of families of critically ill patients?

A
  • Fell there is hope
  • Feel that hospital personnel care about the patient
  • Have a waiting room near the patient
  • Be called at home about changes in the patient’s condition
  • Know the prognosis
  • Have questions answered honestly
  • Receive info about the patient at least once per day
  • Have explanations in understandable terms
  • Be allowed to see the patient frequently
232
Q

Care of the dying should include a comprehensive approach that addresses what components?

A
  • Respecting the patient’s goals, preferences, and choices
  • Attending to the medical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs
  • Using the strengths of interdisciplinary resources
  • Acknowledging and addressing caregiver concerns
  • Building mechanisms and systems of support
233
Q

What are the characteristics of palliative care?

A
  • Comprehensive care for patients whose disease is not responsive to cure
  • Care also extends to the patient’s family
  • Palliative care emphasizes management of psychological, social, and spiritual problems as well as control of pain and other physical symptoms. The goal is to improve quality of life for persons who have a life-limiting illness that is usually at an advanced stage
  • This is a comfort-focused approach to care that may be used with cure-focused treatment
234
Q

What are the principles of palliative care?

A
  • The patient’s total care is best managed by an interdisciplinary team whose members communicate regularly
  • Pain and other symptoms must be managed
  • The patient and the family should be viewed as a single unit of care
  • Palliative care may also occur in the home – have palliative home care teams.
  • Bereavement care must be provided to family members
235
Q

What are some key communication considerations when working with a patient and their family during end of life care?

A
  • Reflect on your own experiences and values concerning illness and death
  • Deliver and interpret technical information without hiding behind medical terminology
  • Realize the best time for the patient to talk may be the least convenient for you
  • Be fully present during all communications
  • Allow the patient and the family to set the agenda regarding the depth of the conversation
  • Resist the impulse to fill “empty space”
  • Allow the patient and family sufficient time to reflect and respond
  • Prompt gently
  • Avoid distractions
  • Avoid the impulse to give advice
  • Avoid canned responses
  • Ask questions
  • Assess understanding, both your own and the patient’s
  • Create an appropriate time and space for conversation
  • Be aware of body language
  • Enable the patient or family to lead conversation
  • Explore what they know or their perceptions
  • Be comfortable with silence, acknowledge and encourage
  • Provide information at rate and depth the patient and family are able to grasp
236
Q

What is spirituality in the context of end-of-life care?

A
  • Spirituality includes religion but is not synonymous with religion
  • Addressing spirituality is an important component of the care of the dying patient
    • How a person derives meaning and purpose from life
    • One’s beliefs and faith
    • Sources of hope
    • Attitudes towards death
237
Q

What is the goal of symptom management during end-of-life care?

A

The goal of symptom management is to completely relieve each symptom or, if this is not possible, to decrease the symptom to a level that the patient can tolerate

238
Q

What are common symptoms at end-of-life that need to be managed?

A
  • Pain
  • Dyspnea
  • Fatigue
  • Anorexia, dehydration, and cachexia
  • Delirium and depression
  • Nausea
239
Q

When is palliative sedation used?

A
  • To address distressing, intractable symptoms (dyspnea, delirium, seizures, etc.)
  • Imperative that preconditions have been met
  • Providing psychological support to the family is important
    • Provide rationale
    • Discuss with the family
240
Q

What are some signs of approaching death?

A
  • Refusal of food and fluids
  • Urinary output decreases
  • Weakness and sleep
  • Confusion and restlessness
  • Impaired vision and hearing, seeing things
  • Secretions in throat
  • Breathing pattern irregular with periods of apnea
  • Incontinence
  • Decreased temperature control
241
Q

What is involved in after death care?

A
  • Determination of death – auscultating breath and heart sounds
  • Pronouncement and death certificate
  • Body becomes bluish/dusky, mottling, waxen, cool, releasing of body fluids, gasping when turning
  • Wrapping the body (shrouding)
  • Securing all valuables (try to give to family beforehand)
  • Transport to the morgue/pick up by funeral home
242
Q

What is a key distinction between palliative sedation and MAID?

A

Palliative sedation does not hasten dying

243
Q

How does the disease process of cancer begin?

A

A disease process that begins when an abnormal cell is transformed by the genetic mutation of cellular DNA

244
Q

What is the most common route of metastasis?

A

lymph node

245
Q

What are some common carcinogenic agents and factors?

A
  • Viruses and bacteria
  • Physical factors: ultraviolet rays of the sun, radiation, chronic irritation or inflammation
  • Chemical agents: tobacco, asbestos
  • Genetic and familial factors
  • Diet
  • Hormones
  • Role of the immune system
246
Q

What is primary prevention concerning cancer?

A

Primary prevention is concerned with reducing cancer risk in healthy people

247
Q

What is secondary prevention concerning cancer?

A

Secondary prevention involves detection and screening to achieve early diagnosis and intervention

248
Q

What are actions associated with primary prevention?

A
  • Avoid known carcinogens
  • Lifestyle and dietary changes to reduce cancer risk
  • Public and patient education
249
Q

What are some activities associated with secondary prevention?

A
  • Identification of patients at high cancer risk
  • Cancer screening
    • Self-breast examination
    • Self-testicular examination
    • Screening colonoscopy
    • Pap test
  • Public and patient education
250
Q

What are 3 categories of cancer management?

A
  • Cure
  • Control
  • Palliation
251
Q

What are some surgical treatments for cancer?

A
  • Diagnostic surgery
  • Biopsy: excisional, incisional, needle
  • Tumour removal: wide excision, local excision
  • Prophylactic surgery
  • Palliative surgery
  • Reconstructive surgery
252
Q

What is brachytherapy?

A

Internal readiation

253
Q

Are there different types of radiation?

A

Yes: curative, controlling, and palliative

254
Q

What is chemotherapy?

A
  • Agents used to destroy tumour cells by interfering with cellular function and replication
  • Curative, control, or palliative
255
Q

What are some of the adverse effects of chemotherapy?

A
  • Toxicity
  • GI effects: nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, mucositis, and stomatitis
  • Hematopoietic effects: myelosuppression
  • Renal damage
  • Cardiopulmonary system: potential cardiac toxicities
  • Reproductive system: potential sterility, potential reproductive cell abnormalities
  • Neurologic effects
256
Q

What nursing care is delivered for a patient on radiation?

A
  • Patient and family education
  • Include restrictions and precautions
  • Skin care
  • Oral care
  • Protection of care providers
257
Q

What are some related nursing diagnoses for a patient diagnosed with cancer?

A
  • Risk for infection
  • Impaired skin integrity
  • Impaired oral mucous membrane
  • Impaired tissue integrity
  • Imbalanced nutrition
  • Fatigue
  • Chronic pain
  • Anticipatory grieving
  • Disturbed body image
258
Q

What is bone marrow suppression?

A
  • Bone marrow suppression refers to a decrease in the ability of the bone marrow to manufacture cells (erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes) and is common with chemotherapy.
  • In addition to eliminating cancer cells, chemotherapy drugs eliminate normal cells that divide rapidly, such as hair and those in the bone marrow that form the different types of blood cells.
  • Does not affect already formed blood cells.
259
Q

What are some causes of thrombocytopenia?

A
  • Decreased production of platelets within the bone marrow (radiation or chemotherapy),
  • increased destruction of platelets (autoimmune disorders such as Immunologic Thrombocytopenic Purpura or Heparin induced Thrombocytopenia),
  • increased consumption of platelets (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation, major bleeding)
260
Q

What are clinical manifestations of thrombocytopenia?

A
  • bleeding, petechiae, nasal and gingival bleeding, excessive menstrual bleeding, excessive bleeding after surgery or dental extraction, severe – spontaneous bleeding in the nervous or GI system
261
Q

What diagnostic tests identify thrombocytopenia?

A

CBC and differential, bone marrow biopsy, manual examination of peripheral smear

262
Q

What treatments are there for thrombocytopenia?

A

platelet infusions, safety precautions

263
Q

What is the most common chronic sustained dysrhythmia seen in the older adult population and that should be immediately considered if the patient presents with an irregular rhythm?

A

Atrial fibrillation

264
Q

What is atrial fibrillation?

A

A condition in which the atria are contracting so fast – greater than 350 bpm – that they are unable to have adequate filling or contraction

265
Q

What is a major risk factor for atrial fibrillation?

A

Due to inadequate emptying, blood that remains in the atria is prone to forming clots, which increases the risk of thrombotic stroke or pulmonary embolus

266
Q

What approach to assessment can detect atrial fibrillation?

A

listen to apical rate & palpate the radial pulse at the same time - should be equal – if not make physician aware

267
Q

What diagnostic tool is used to confirm atrial fibrillation?

A

12 lead ECG

268
Q

What treatments are available for atrial fibrillation?

A

anticoagulants, beta blockers. Symptomatic: amiodarone, cardioversion