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Opthalmo 22 > 22 > Flashcards

22 Flashcards

1
Q

Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is:
A) corticosteroids
B) cycloplegics
C) antibiotics

A

B) cycloplegics

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2
Q

Corneal sensations are diminished in:
A) Herpes simplex
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Fungal infections

A

A) Herpes simplex

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3
Q

The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:
A) Yellow
B) Blue
C) Green

A

C) Green

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4
Q

In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctlvitis characteristically there is usually:
A) Copious purulent discharge
B) Copious muco-purulent discharge
C) Excessive watery lacrimation

A

C) Excessive watery lacrimation

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5
Q

A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due to:
A) vernal conjunctivitis and keratitis
B) Episcleritis
C) Vascular pterygium

A

B) Episcleritis

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6
Q

Fifth nerve palsy could cause:
A) Ptosis
B) Proptosis
C) Neuropathic keratopathy

A

C) Neuropathic keratopathy

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7
Q

Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear of:
A) Secondary glaucoma
B) Cortical cataract
C) Corneal perforation

A

C) Corneal perforation

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8
Q

The symptom that allows you to make a certain diagnosis of corneal ulceration is:
A) Ciliary injection
B) Blepharospasm
C) Miosis
D) Positive fluorescein test

A

D) Positive fluorescein test

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9
Q

The effective treatment of dendritic ulcer of the cornea is:
A) Surface anesthesia
B) Local corticosteroids
C) Acyclovir ointment

A

C) Acyclovir ointment

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10
Q

Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory granuloma of
A) Meibomian gland
B) Zies’s gland
C) Sweat gland

A

A) Meibomian gland

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11
Q

Cornea is supplied by nerve fibers derived from:
A) Trochlear nerve
B) Optic nerve
C) Trigeminal nerve

A

C) Trigeminal nerve

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12
Q

The thickest part of the cornea is formed by:
A) Epithelial layer
B) Substantia propria
C) Endothelium

A

B) Substantia propria

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13
Q

Commonest cause of posterior staphyloma is:
A) Glaucoma
B) Retinal detachment
C) High myopia

A

C) High myopia

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14
Q

Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:
A) Dry eye
B) Infective keratitis
C) Horner’s syndrome

A

A) Dry eye

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15
Q

The most common cause of bilateral or unilateral exophthalmos in adults:
A) Thyroid orbitopathy
B) Metastasis
C) Lymphoma
D) Meningioma

A

A) Thyroid orbitopathy

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16
Q

All of the following are part of uvea except:
A) Pars plana
B) Choroid
C) Schwalbe’s line

A

C) Schwalbe’s line

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17
Q

One of the earliest features of anterior uveitis includes:
A) Hypopyon
B) Posterior synechiae
C) Aqueous flare (tyndall, flare)

A

C) Aqueous flare (tyndall, flare)

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18
Q

In anterior uveitis the pupil is generally:
A) Of normal size
B) Constricted
C) Dilated

A

B) Constricted

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19
Q

Koeppe’s nodules are found in:
A) Cornea
B) Sclera
C) Iris

A

C) Iris

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20
Q

The aqueous humor is secreted by:
A) Epithelium of ciliary body
B) Posterior surface of iris
C) Lens

A

A) Epithelium of ciliary body

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21
Q

Which laser is used for capsulotomy?
A) Diode laser
B) Excimer laser
C) YAG neodymium laser

A

C) YAG neodymium laser

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22
Q

Unilateral aphakia is likely to be corrected by any of the following except:
A) Posterior chamber intraocular lens
B) Contact tens
C) Glasses

A

C) Glasses

23
Q

Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by:
A) Cataract extraction
B) canaling operation (trabeculectomy?)
C) Cyclo-destructive procedure
D) Miotics and Beta blockers

A

A) Cataract extraction

24
Q

Lens induced glaucoma is least likely to occur in:
A) Intumescent cataract (swelling cataract, Phakolytic)
B) Anterior lens dislocation
C) Posterior subcapsular cataract

A

C) Posterior subcapsular cataract

25
Q

Best site where intraocular lens is fitted:
A) Capsular ligament
B) Ciliary body supported
C) Capsular bag

A

C) Capsular bag

26
Q

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be:
A) Secondary glaucoma (in PD: secondary cataract)
B) Anterior uveitis
C) Bacterial endophthalmitis

A

C) Bacterial endophthalmitis

27
Q

The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is:
A) Surgical peripheral iridectomy
B) Yag laser iridotomy
C) Trabeculotomy

A

B) Yag laser iridotomy

28
Q

Neovascular glaucoma results from:
A) Thrombosis of central retinal vein
B) acute angle-closure glaucoma
C) Staphylococcal infection

A

A) Thrombosis of central retinal vein

29
Q

A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Congenital dacryocystitis
B) Keratoconus
C) Buphthalmos

A

C) Buphthalmos

30
Q

You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following would be an important point in diagnosing the case?
A) Shallow anterior chamber
B) Optic disc cupping
C) visual acuity and refractive error

A

B) Optic disc cupping

31
Q

A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is:
A) Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B) Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
C) Diabetes Mellitus

A

A) Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

32
Q

Commonest lesion which hinders (central) vision in diabetic retinopathy is:
A) Macular oedema
B) Microaneurysm
C) Retinal hemorrhage

A

A) Macular oedema

33
Q

Night blindness is caused by:
A) Central retinal vein occlusion
B) Dystrophies of retinal rods
C) Dystrophies of the retinal cones

A

B) Dystrophies of retinal rods

34
Q

The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is:
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Choroidal melanoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva

A

B) Choroidal melanoma

35
Q

Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results in one of the following field defects:
A) Lower nasal sector field defect
B) Upper nasal sector field defect
C) Upper temporal field defect

A

C) Upper temporal field defect

36
Q

Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by:
A) Marked swelling of the optic disc.
B) Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
C) Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye

A

B) Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye

37
Q

Optic nerve function is best studied by:
A) Direct Ophthalmoscope
B) Retinoscope
C) Perimetry

A

C) Perimetry

38
Q

The tear film (20um thick) covers the eternal ocular surface and comprises … layers
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3

A

C) 3

39
Q

A hinged partial thickness corneal stromal flap is first created with a rapidly moving automated blade. The flap is lifted and the laser applied onto the stromal bed. This is:
A) PRK
B) DSAEK
C) LASIK

A

C) LASIK

40
Q

Lengthening and darkening of the lashes is a side effect for:
A) carbonic anhydrase
B) Beta-blockers
C) Prostaglandin analogues

A

C) Prostaglandin analogues

41
Q

Sign off anterior uveitits
A) keratic precipitates on the corneal endothelium
B) Posterior synechiae (adhesion between the lens and Iris) give the pupil an irregular
appearance
C) A+ B

A

C) A+ B

42
Q

Classically urethritis, conjunctivitis and a seronegative arthritis may also be associated with anterior uveitis, it is a:
A) Behcet’s disease
B) Reiter’s disease
C) Bowel disease

A

B) Reiter’s disease

43
Q

Patients must be advised not to swim when wearing contact lenses because of the risk of
A) contact lens induced papillary conjunctivitis
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) acanthoameba keratitis

A

C) acanthoameba keratitis

44
Q

The power of the intraocular lens implant to be used in the operation is calculated beforehand by measuring:
A) A+ B
B) The length of the eye ultrasonically
C) The curvature of the cornea (and thus optical power) optically

A

A) A+ B

45
Q

ylindrical lenses are used for correcting:
A) Presbyopia
B) Hyperopia
C) Astigmatism

A

C) Astigmatism

46
Q

Link the conditions with their surgical treatment:
1. cataract
2. glaucoma
3. retinal detachment
A) vitrectomy
B) Phacoemulsification
C) Trabeculectomy
a. 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
b. 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C

A

b. 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A

47
Q

Blow out orbital fracture is the traumatic deformity of which if the following walls:
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Internal

A

B) Inferior

48
Q

What does the RAPD stand for in the ophthalmological examination?
A) Recurrent Acute Posterior – pole Detachments
B) Relative Afferent Pupillary defect
C) Rapid Accessory Pupil degeneration

A

B) Relative Afferent Pupillary defect

49
Q

Which type of glaucoma can occur in patient with diabetic retinopathy?
A) catract
B) Secondary glaucoma
C) None of the above

A

B) Secondary glaucoma

50
Q

The optical power is too low (usually because the eye is too short) and parallel rays of light converge towards a point behind the retina. What is it?
A) Astigmatism
B) Myopia
C) Hypermetropia

A

C) Hypermetropia

51
Q

What can be confirmed by performing a cover test
A) cataract
B) glaucoma
C) strabismus

A

C) strabismus

52
Q

What is the possible treatment for wet AMD?
A) Laser therapy
B) Anti – VEGF injections
C) There is no treatment

A

B) Anti – VEGF injections

53
Q

This is used extensively in ophthalmology to provide information about the vitreous, retina and posterior coats of the eye, particularly when they cannot be clearly visualized:
A) Ultrasound
B) Keratometry
C) MRI

A

A) Ultrasound

54
Q

What is a common cause of excessive tearing and purulent conjunctivitis in toddlers?
A) Viral infection
B) Nasolacrimal duct stenosis
C) Allergy

A

B) Nasolacrimal duct stenosis

Opthalmo 22 (9 decks)

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