Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Opthalmo 22 > 2021 > Flashcards

2021 Flashcards

1
Q

In order to diagnose and confirm wet AMD, we should perform:
A) fluorescein angiography
B) pachymetry
C) perymetry

A

A) fluorescein angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ptosis is:
A) Inability to close the eyelids completely
B) Measured with an exophthalmometer
C) Measured by the distance between upper lid, margin and corneal light reflex (MDR)

A

C) Measured by the distance between upper lid, margin and corneal light reflex (MDR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If the sympathetic supply is damaged the patient suffers from:
A) Horners syndrome
B) slight ptosis
C) a + b

A

C) a + b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient who is myopic reports a sudden vision loss which covers the superior p… of his vision. He describes it as a „falling curtain“. The most probable diagnosis is:
A) Retinal detachment
B) Glaucoma
C) corneal ulcer

A

A) Retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A 25 year old male reports pain and blurring of vision of his left eye and Photophobia. Additionally, his left eye is red. The patient most likely suffers from:
A) Uveitis
B) Glaucoma
C) Retinal detachment

A

A) Uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which symptom is not typically connected with retinoblastoma?
A) macular edema
B) white pupillary reflex (leukocoria)
C) squint

A

A) macular edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common type of conjunctivitis:
A) allergic
B) viral
C) bacterial

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Intravitreal injections of VEGF inhibitors are not used in:
A) Diabetic retinopathy
B) Wet AMD
C) Retinal detachment

A

C) Retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the DME stand for?
A) dilated myotic effect
B) densed macular edema
C) diabetic macular edema

A

C) diabetic macular edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What CANNOT bet the cause of leukocoria?
A) Congenital cataract
B) Retinopathy of prematurity
C) Glaucoma

A

C) Glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For the diagnosis of age-related macular degeneration (AMD), which of the following is NOT typically used:
A) OCT
B) Tonometry
C) Amsler test

A

B) Tonometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Between the ganglion cel laver and inner nuclera layer lays:
A) inner plexiform layer
B) inner and outer segments of photoreceptors
C) externa limiting membrane

A

A) inner plexiform layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What value of c/d would be considered normal:
A) 1
B) 19
C) 0,2

A

C) 0,2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can cause congenital cataract:
A) rubella
B) all of the above
C) Down syndrome

A

B) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Between the cornea anteriorly and the lens and Iris posteriorly lies in the:
A) Anterior chamber
B) Ciliary body
C) Posterior chamber

A

A) Anterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The power of the intraocular lens implant to be used in the operation is calculated beforehand by measuring:
A) The curvature of the cornea (and thus optical power) optically
B) The length of the eye ultrasonically
C) A + B

A

C) A + B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The patient complains of sudden painless loss of all or part of the vision. What disease do you suspect:
A) Central retinal artery occlusion
B) Conjunctivitis
C) AMD

A

A) Central retinal artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which electrophysiological examination is used for assessment of visual pathway?
A) pattern electroretinogram
B) Visually evoked potential
C) Multifocal electroretinogram

A

B) Visually evoked potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This is used extensively in ophthalmology to provide information about the vitreous, retina and posterior coats of the eye, particularly when they cannot be clearly visualized:
A) Ultrasound
B) Keratometry
C) MRI

A

A) Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following might suggest proliferative diabetic retinopathy? Select the best one.

A) Intravitreal hemorrhage
B) Dural exudates
C) Micro aneurysms

A

A) Intravitreal hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A positive Seidel test occurs in:
A) dry eye syndrome
B) wet macular degeneration
C) corneal perforation and leakage

A

C) corneal perforation and leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This is a common painless condition in which an obstructed meibomian gland causes a granuloma within the tarsal plate:
A) A chalazion
B) An abscess
C) A stye

A

A) A chalazion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can cause amblyopia:
A) all of the above
B) strabismus
C) congenital cataract

A

A) all of the above

24
Q

„A raised, usually pigmented, lesion is visible at the back of the eye; this may be associated with an area of retinal detachment“. This is a description of:
A) astrocytoma
B) melanoma
C) age related macular degeneration

A

B) melanoma

25
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible complication of uveitis:
A) secondary glaucoma
B) corneal ulcer
C) secondary cataract

A

B) corneal ulcer

26
Q

In the diagnosis of primary open angle glaucoma, the following tests are performed:
A) Tonometry, Ophthalmoscopic Evaluation of the optic nerve disc, Field of view
B) OCT, fluorescein angiography, keratometry
C) Fluorescein angiography, Electroretinography, Hirschberg test

A

A) Tonometry, Ophthalmoscopic Evaluation of the optic nerve disc, Field of view

27
Q

A surface oil layer produced by the:
A) conjunctival goblet cells
B) lacrimal gland
C) tarsal meibomian glans

A

C) tarsal meibomian glans

28
Q

What is the commonest cause of treatable blindness in the world?
A) Trachoma
B) Glaucoma
C) Cataract

A

C) Cataract

29
Q

Patient present with redness of the eye, discharge, ocular irritation. It is:
A) Bacterial conjunctivitis
B) Uveitis
C) Squint

A

A) Bacterial conjunctivitis

30
Q

Pick the appropriate order of steps in phacoemulsification
A) Corneal incision, capsulorhexis, phacoemulsification, irrigation and aspiration, lens insertion
B) Corneal incision, phacoemulsification, capsulorhexis, irrigation and aspiration, lens insertion
C) Corneal incision, irrigation and aspiration, capsulorhexis, phacoemulsification, lens insertion

A

A) Corneal incision, capsulorhexis, phacoemulsification, irrigation and aspiration, lens insertion

31
Q

Non-infectious anterior uveitis is the most associated with…..
A) sarcoidosis
B) HLA B 27 positive serology
C) HLA B 51 positive serology

A

B) HLA B 27 positive serology

32
Q

Hyperopic patients who are developing cataract are in a risk of:
A) all of the above
B) shallow AC
C) increased IOP

A

A) all of the above

33
Q

Patients with the PEX syndrome are in a group of higher risk for:
A) retinal detachment
B) AMD
C) lens dislocation

A

C) lens dislocation

34
Q

Currently accepted “gold standard“ in tonometry is:
A) Tono- Pen tonometry
B) Non-contact Air-Puff
C) Goldmann applanation tonometry

A

C) Goldmann applanation tonometry

35
Q

Emmetropia’s definition is:
A) Parallel rays of light from optic infinity focus on a single point in front of the retina. The eye
is „too long“.
B) Parallel rays of light from optic infinity focused on a single point on the retina.
C) Parallel rays of light from optic infinity focused on a single point behind the retina. The eye is „too short“.

A

B) Parallel rays of light from optic infinity focused on a single point on the retina.

36
Q

What is fluorescein used for in ophthalmology:
A) Angiography
B) Identifying corneal abrasions
C) All of the above

A

C) All of the above

37
Q

Eye hit with tennis or squash ball often develops:
A) blow out orbital fracture
B) perforation of the eyeball
C) central retinal artery occlusion

A

A) blow out orbital fracture

38
Q

While working in the laboratory a colleague inadvertently sprays his eyes with an alkali solution. What is the immediate treatment? What should you do next?
A) The eyes must be washed out with copious quantities of water immediately.
B) The patient should then be taken to an eye emergency clinic.
C) A, b are correct

A

C) A, b are correct

39
Q

. „Painful, infective keratitis, often caused by bad use of soft contact lenses. Topical chlorhexidine, polyhexamethylene biguanide (PHMS) and propamidine are used to treat the condition.“ This is the description of:
A) herpes simplex keratitis
B) fungal keratitis
C) acanthamoeba keratitis

A

C) acanthamoeba keratitis

40
Q

Which of these drugs is a pupil constrictor?
A) tropicamide
B) pilocarpine
C) atropine

A

B) pilocarpine

41
Q

The probability of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment increases in patients who:
A) are high myopes
B) both of the above
C) have been subjected to recent severe eye trauma

A

B) both of the above

42
Q

Please choose the incorrect information about the lens:
A) it is the first major refractive element of the eye (the second is cornea with its tear film)
B) the zonular fibres transmit changes in the ciliary muscle allowing the lens to change its shape and refractive power
C) grows throughout life

A

A) it is the first major refractive element of the eye (the second is cornea with its tear film)

43
Q

Intracranial hypertension can cause:
A) scleritis
B) retinal detachment
C) bilateral optic disc swelling

A

C) bilateral optic disc swelling

44
Q

The upper lid margin usually overlaps the upper corneal limbus by:
A) 1-2 mm
B) 3-4 mm
C) 2-3 mm

A

A) 1-2 mm

45
Q

What surgery is used as a treatment for glaucoma?
A) LASEK
B) Vitrectomy
C) Iridectomy

A

C) Iridectomy

46
Q

Synoptophore- this machine permits the assessment of:
A) refractive state of the eye
B) binocular single vision
C) shape of the cornea

A

B) binocular single vision

47
Q

Which of the following muscles is responsible for accommodation?
A) The orbicularis oculi muscle
B) The iris sphincter muscle
C) The ciliary muscle

A

C) The ciliary muscle

48
Q

Anisocoria is when:
A) one pupil is larger than the other
B) illumination pupil constricts
C) constriction of pupil when viewing a close object

A

A) one pupil is larger than the other

49
Q

Astigmatism is caused by:
A) irregular corneal surface
B) extrafovealfixalion
C) abnormal axial lentght of the eyeball

A

A) irregular corneal surface

50
Q

SLT is one of the treatment methods for:
A) retinal detachment
B) cataract
C) glaucoma

A

C) glaucoma

51
Q

In approximately 20% of patients clarity of the posterior capsule decreases in the months following cataract surgery when residual epithelial cells migrate across its surface. Vision becomes blurred and there may be problems with glare. A small hole can be made with a laser:
A) Capsulorhexis
B) YAG-Iridotomy
C) YAG-Capsulotomy

A

C) YAG-Capsulotomy

52
Q

The features of diabetic retinopathy include:
A) Macular edema
B) Retinal haemorrhages
C) All of the above are true

A

C) All of the above are true

53
Q

What can be confirmed by performing a cover test:
A) squint
B) glaucoma
C) cataract

A

A) squint

54
Q

Lagophthalmos:
A) Dryness of the eyes after a long fly across different time zones.
B) Inability to close the eyelids completely
C) Inflammatory cells in the anterior chamber of the eye.

A

B) Inability to close the eyelids completely

55
Q

Classically urethritis, conjunctivitis and a seronegative arthritis may also be associated with anterior uveitis, it is a:
A) Reiter’s disease
B) Behcet’s disease
C) Bowel disease

A

A) Reiter’s disease

56
Q

Uveitis is usually treated with:
A) Anti-VEGF and vitrectomy
B) Antibiotics
C) Steroids and mydriatics

A

C) Steroids and mydriatics

57
Q

The leavator of the eyelid is innervated by which nerve?
A) I
B) IV
C) III

A

C) III

Opthalmo 22 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions