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Opthalmo 22 > 2019 > Flashcards

2019 Flashcards

1
Q

Cylindrical lenses are used for correcting:
A) Presbyopia
B) Hyperopia
C) Astigmatism

A

C) Astigmatism

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2
Q

Amblyopia:
A) Can be a result of untreated congenital cataract, strabismus or uncorrected high refractive error
B) Treatment in adulthood is an effective as in childhood
C) Doesn ́t affect the stereoscopic vision

A

A) Can be a result of untreated congenital cataract, strabismus or uncorrected high refractive error

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3
Q

Which eye ball muscles are innervated by the VI cranial nerve?
A) Medical rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique
B) Lateral rectus
C) Superior oblique, inferior oblique

A

B) Lateral rectus

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4
Q

Presbyopia:
A) Requires plus lens correction for all distances
B) Starts developing around the age of sixty
C) Is a natural part of ageing process

A

C) Is a natural part of ageing process

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5
Q

What is false regarding acanthamoeba infection?
A) Manifests as keratitis
B) Contact lens users are at particular risk
C) Is easily managed with fluroqinolones

A

B) Contact lens users are at particular risk

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6
Q

Link the conditions with their surgical treatment:
1. cataract
2. glaucoma
3. retinal detachment
A) vitrectomy
B) Phacoemulsification
C) Trabeculectomy
a. 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C
b. 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C

A

b. 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – A

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7
Q

What is used for diagnosing and monitoring glaucoma?
A) Visual field
B) Fundus examination
C) All mentioned

A

C) All mentioned

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8
Q

Which ones of the following are the parts of the uvea:
A) Iris, cornea, choroid
B) Ciliary body, retina, optic disc
C) Iris, ciliary body, choroid

A

C) Iris, ciliary body, choroid

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9
Q

Which of the following bones form the superior wall of the orbit:
A) Orbital plate of frontal bone, lesser wing of sphenoid bone
B) Zygomatic bone, orbital process of palatine bone, lesser wing of sphenoid
C) Orbital plate of ethmoid bone, lacrimal bone, body of sphenoid

A

A) Orbital plate of frontal bone, lesser wing of sphenoid bone

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10
Q

Blow out orbital fracture is the traumatic deformity of which if the following walls:
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Internal

A

B) Inferior

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11
Q

Which one of the following is the thickest bone of the orbit?
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Lateral

A

C) Lateral

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12
Q

What is the most common cause for anterior uveitis?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Fungal infection
C) Bacterial infection

A

A) Rheumatoid arthritis

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13
Q

What is NOT a cause of acute painless loss of vision?
A) Retinal detachment
B) Central retinal artery occlusion
C) Acute angle closure

A

C) Acute angle closure

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14
Q

Which statement about the pupil is false? (Streitfall, alle sind richtig)
A) Anisocoria is a condition characterized by an unequal size of pupils
B) In uveitis the pupil is often irregular due to posterior synechiae
C) Third cranial nerve is involved in the pupillary light reflex

A

B) In uveitis the pupil is often irregular due to posterior synechiae

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15
Q

Which ones of the eyeball muscles are innervated by the IV cranial nerve?
A) Medical rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique
B) Superior oblique
C) Superior oblique, inferior oblique

A

B) Superior oblique

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16
Q

Assign the refractive error with the proper correcting lens:
A) Myopia – concave, hyperopia – cylindrical, astigmatism – convex
B) Myopia – convex, hyperopia – concave, astigmatism – cylindrical
C) Myopia – concave, hyperopia – convex, astigmatism – cylindrical

A

C) Myopia – concave, hyperopia – convex, astigmatism – cylindrical

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17
Q

Which of the following structures secretes the aqueous humor into the posterior chamber?
A) Iris
B) Processes of cilliary body
C) Muscles of the cilliary body

A

B) Processes of cilliary body

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18
Q

How thick the human cornea is?
A) 1 mm
B) 2 mm
C) 0.5 mm

A

C) 0.5 mm

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19
Q

The layers of the cornea, starting with the most external one, are:
A) Descemet ́s membrane, epithelium, stroma, Bowman ́s layer, endothelium
B) Epithelium, Descemet ́s membrane, endothelium, stroma, Bowman ́s layer
C) Epithelium, Bowman ́s layer, stroma, Descemet ́s membrane, endothelium

A

C) Epithelium, Bowman ́s layer, stroma, Descemet ́s membrane, endothelium

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20
Q

What does the RAPD stand for in the ophthalmological examination?

A) Recurrent Acute Posterior – pole Detachments
B) Relative Afferent Pupillary defect
C) Rapid Accessory Pupil degeneration

A

B) Relative Afferent Pupillary defect

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21
Q

Point the wrong correlation of testing method and the condition it may detect:
A) Amsler grid test – wet macular degeneration
B) Cornel reflex test – strabismus
C) Tonometry – cataract

A

C) Tonometry – cataract

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22
Q

What is the Seidel test used for?
A) To determine whether the eye is producing enough teasrs to keep it moist
B) To assess the presence of the corneal leakage
C) To locate the corneal epithelium erosions

A

B) To assess the presence of the corneal leakage

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23
Q

What is the optical power of the human lens?
A) Around 40 D
B) Around 60 D
C) Around 20 D

A

C) Around 20 D

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24
Q

What is the optical power of the human cornea?
A) Around 40 D
B) Around 60 D
C) Around 20 D


A

A) Around 40 D

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25
Q

Which eyeball muscles are innervated by the III cranial nerve?
A) Medical rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique
B) Superior oblique
C) Lateral rectus

A

A) Medical rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique

26
Q

Trabeculectomy is:
A) Laser procedure that is used to lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma
B) Surgical procedure used to lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma
C) Laser procedure used to treat diabetic retinopathy

A

B) Surgical procedure used to lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma

27
Q

Intraocular hypertension is intraocular pressure over
A) 15 mmHg
B) 21 mmHg
C) 32 mmHg

A

B) 21 mmHg

28
Q

Aphakia is a term used to describe:
A) Vision development disorder in which an eye fails to achieve normal visual acuity, even
with prescription eyeglasses or contact lenses
B) Change in optical power of the eye to maintain clear image or focus of the eye on an
object as its distance varies
C) The absence of the lens of the eye

A

C) The absence of the lens of the eye

29
Q

Which of the following is a false statement about cataract:
A) In infants, cataract may cause amblyopia
B) Age – related cataract is commonly nuclear, cortical or subscapular in location
C) the most common cause of cataract is ocular trauma

A

C) the most common cause of cataract is ocular trauma

30
Q

What is the most common intraoccular tumor in childhood ?
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Melanoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma

A

A) Retinoblastoma

31
Q

Which one is NOT a sign of non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
A) Neovascularization
B) Exudates
C) Microaneurysms

A

A) Neovascularization

32
Q

Intermediate uveitis is the inflammation of:
A) Choroid
B) Iris and anterior ciliary body
C) Posterior ciliary body (pars plana)

A

C) Posterior ciliary body (pars plana)

33
Q
  1. How to assess the iridocorneal angle?
    A) Performing Goldman applanation tonometry
    B) Using gonioscopy lens
    C) Performing macular OCT
A

B) Using gonioscopy lens

34
Q

Which of the following glaucoma medications do NOT decrease secretion of the aqueous humor?
A) Prostaglandin analogues
B) Beta – blockers
C) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

A) Prostaglandin analogues

35
Q

Which of the following glaucoma medications cause conjunctival hyperaemia, lengthening, and darkening of the lashes?
A) Prostaglandin analogues
B) Beta – blockers
C) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

A) Prostaglandin analogues

36
Q

Opacification of the posterior capsule is one of the most common complications after cataract surgery. The treatment of choice in such cases is:
A) Laser YAG capsulotomy
B) Laser YAG iridotomy
C) Iridectomy

A

A) Laser YAG capsulotomy

37
Q

What is the most common intraocular tumour in adults?

A) Retinoblastoma
B) Melanoma
C) Astrocytoma

A

B) Melanoma

38
Q

Which of the following glaucoma medications can exacerbate asthma and chronic airway disease or cause bradycardia?
A) Prostaglandin analogues
B) Beta – blockers
C) alpha2- agonists

A

B) Beta – blockers

39
Q

Disorder of the sight due to the eye and brain not working well together resulting in decreased vision in an eye that otherwise typically appears normal is called:
A) Diplopia
B) Strabismus
C) Amblyopia

A

C) Amblyopia

40
Q

The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:
A) Yellow
B) Blue
C) Green

A

C) Green

41
Q

What is the main treatment for anterior uveitis?
A) Steroids and mydriatics – cycloplegics
B) Antibiotics
C) Anty – VEGF

A

C) Anty – VEGF

42
Q

A field defect often described as a „shadow“ or „curtain“ is characteristic for:
A) Age – related macular degeneration
B) Acute angle – closure glaucoma
C) Retinal detachment

A

C) Retinal detachment

43
Q

What are the benefits of vitamin and mineral supplements for patients with AMD?
A) They stop neovascularization
B) They slow progression of the disease in people who have intermediate AMD
C) They particularly help people with early AMD

A

B) They slow progression of the disease in people who have intermediate AMD

44
Q

Which statement about anterior uveitis is false:
A) Cells and flare in anterior chamber are typical findings
B) Symptoms include eye pain, photophobia and decreased vision
C) Purulent discharge in vitreous

A

C) Purulent discharge in vitreous

45
Q

Herpes simplex causes all conditions mentioned below apart from:
A) Dendritic corneal ulcer
B) Acute retinal necrosis in immunodeficient patients
C) Purulent conjunctivitis

A

C) Purulent conjunctivitis

46
Q

What is a common cause of excessive tearing and purulent conjunctivitis in toddlers?
A) Viral infection
B) Nasolacrimal duct stenosis
C) Allergy

A

B) Nasolacrimal duct stenosis

47
Q

During a typical cataract surgery:
A) Lens nucleus is vaporized with laser
B) Corneal suture are laid
C) Intraocular lens is implanted

A

C) Intraocular lens is implanted

48
Q

Duration of the diabetes and poor control of blood sugar are the most important risk factors for development of diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following are also risk factors for DR?
A) Pregnancy
B) Smoking
C) All of above

A

C) All of above

49
Q

Which type of glaucoma can occur in patient with diabetic retinopathy?
A) Congenital glaucoma
B) Secondary glaucoma
C) None of the above

A

B) Secondary glaucoma

50
Q

Synoptophore is used for: (Synoptophore)
A) Measurement of intraocular pressure
B) Assessment of eye ́s refraction
C) Assessment of binocular single vision

A

C) Assessment of binocular single vision

51
Q

The optical power is too low (usually because the eye is too short) and parallel rays of light converge towards a point behind the retina. What is it?
A) Astigmatism
B) Myopia
C) Hypermetropia

A

C) Hypermetropia

52
Q

A hinged partial thickness corneal stromal flap is first created with a rapidly moving automated blade. The flap is lifted and the laser applied onto the stromal bed. This is:
A) DSAEK
B) PRK
C) LASIK

A

C) LASIK

53
Q

These are a common symptom particularly in middle aged patients. They take the form of spots or cobwebs which move when the eye moves and obscure vision only slightly. What disease is it:
A) Retinal detachment
B) Floaters
C) Phegmatogenous retinal detachment

A

B) Floaters

54
Q

Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) may result from:
A) The hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation; an abnormality of the
venous wall (inflammation)
B) The hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation; an increased ocular
pressure
C) The hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation; an abnormality of the venous wall (inflammation); an increased ocular pressure

A

C) The hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation; an abnormality of the venous wall (inflammation); an increased ocular pressure

55
Q

What can be confirmed by performing a cover test:
A) Cataract
B) Glaucoma
C) Strabismus

A

C) Strabismus

56
Q

Which answer about the anatomy and function of retina is false:
A) Optic nerve head should have an orange – pink color, clear and well defined borders
B) Fovea is a well vascularized zone
C) Rods have little role in color vision and are concentrated in the outer edges of retina

A

B) Fovea is a well vascularized zone

57
Q

The probability of a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is NOT increased patients who:
A) Have high hypermetropia
B) Have undergone cataract surgery particularly if this was complicated by vitreous loss
C) Have experienced a detached retina in the fellow eye

A

A) Have high hypermetropia

58
Q

What are drusen?
A) Yellow fat and protein deposits in the macula
B) Abnormal vessels
C) Characteristic central scotomas

A

A) Yellow fat and protein deposits in the macula

59
Q

What is the possible treatment for wet AMD?
A) Laser therapy
B) Anti – VEGF injections
C) There is no treatment

A

B) Anti – VEGF injections

60
Q

Which of the following is the most common type of retinal detachment?
A) Exudative
B) Rhegmatogenous
C) Tractional

A

B) Rhegmatogenous

Opthalmo 22 (9 decks)

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