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Opthalmo 22 > 2016 > Flashcards

2016 Flashcards

1
Q

Which state is an imminent contraindication for cataract operation?
A) Cataract without light perception
B) Complete cataract
C) Cataract with good visual acuity

A

C) Cataract with good visual acuity

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2
Q

Before administering of which drug do you have to check if the patient does not have a cataract, which is qualified for surgery?
A) Tamsulosin
B) Preductal (Trimetazidine)
C) Metoprolol

A

A) Tamsulosin

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3
Q

In which situation can we perform a cataract surgery without implanting an intraocular lens?
A) In a person with mental retardation
B) In a far-sighted person, who wears glasses between +8dpt. and 10dpt.
C) In high myopia

A

C) In high myopia

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4
Q

Which type of cataract is a typical cataract after steroid use ?
A) Posterior subcapsule
B) Nuclear
C) Cortical

A

A) Posterior subcapsule

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5
Q

Which examination is not performed for the diagnosis of cataract ?
A) Intraoccular pressure
B) Visualfield
C) Ultrasonography

A

A) Intraoccular pressure

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6
Q

How do you measure refractory power of the intraocular lens ?
A) During the operation after removing the cataract
B) Before the operation with the help of evaluation of the optical power of the patient’s own
lens
C) Evaluation with the help of refractory power of the cornea and length of the eyeball

A

C) Evaluation with the help of refractory power of the cornea and length of the eyeball

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7
Q

Nuclear cataract can provoke development of:
A) Myopia (Nearsightedness)
B) Hyperopia (Farsightedness)
C) Presbyopia (Problem with focusing near objects, not to be confused with hyperopia)

A

A) Myopia (Nearsightedness)

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8
Q

Risk factors for developing glaucoma:
A) Age and diabetes
B) Smoking
C) Sunlight exposure

A

A) Age and diabetes

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9
Q

Which test is performed in newborn with the goal of determining advanced cataract ?
A) USG of the eyeball
B) test of the refractory power of the eyeball
C) testing visual acuity

A

A) USG of the eyeball

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10
Q

Which type of energy is used to break the lens in… ?
A) Laser with the wavelength of 532nm
B) Ultrasound
C) Laser with the wavelength of 192nm (Excimer laser)

A

B) Ultrasound

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11
Q

In which case do we diagnose glaucoma?
A) Concentric narrowing of visual field after stroke
B) Patient who has only temporal vision … overgrown and irregular vasculature in the course
of retinopathy
C) Sudden rise in intraocular pressure of up to 50 mmHg

A

C) Sudden rise in intraocular pressure of up to 50 mmHg

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12
Q

Which drugs against glaucoma are contraindicated in a patient with bronchial asthma?
A) Alpha-agonists
B) Pilocarpine and beta-adrenolytics (blocker)
C) Prostaglandin derivatives

A

B) Pilocarpine and beta-adrenolytics (blocker)

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13
Q

Indication for initial surgical treatment of retinal detachment
A) rhegmatogenous and exudative retinal detachment
B) rhegmatogenous and traction retinal detachment
C) Exudative and traction retinal detachment

A

B) rhegmatogenous and traction retinal detachment

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14
Q

Most common used treatment in age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is:
A) Laser therapy
B) Photodynamic therapy
C) Local (intra-vitreal) application of anti-VEGF

A

C) Local (intra-vitreal) application of anti-VEGF

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15
Q

Mark the most correct statement regarding the symptoms such as “light flashes” and “opaque”.
A) Evident signs of retinal detachment
B) They don’t have any diagnostic significance
C) They may be indicating rupture and detachment of the retina, but for the final diagnosis examination of the fundus of the eye is necessary

A

C) They may be indicating rupture and detachment of the retina, but for the final diagnosis examination of the fundus of the eye is necessary

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16
Q

Sign of age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is:
A) Reduction of visual acuity and pain of the eyeball
B) Distortion of image and abnormalities in OCT examination
C) Distortion of image and development of presbyopia

A

B) Distortion of image and abnormalities in OCT examination

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17
Q

In the case of retinal detachment fluid accumulation occurs between:
A) Retinal pigment epithelium and neurosensory retina
B) Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane
C) Retinal pigment epithelium and choriocapillary membrane, vascular membrane

A

A) Retinal pigment epithelium and neurosensory retina

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18
Q

Which cause of irreversible reduction of visual acuity is connected with ocular changes in diabetes?
A) Neo-vascular glaucoma
B) Bulging cataract
C) Uveitis

A

A) Neo-vascular glaucoma

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19
Q

What probable cause is responsible for enlarged diameter of cornea in newborns?
A) Friction due to chronic allergic conjunctivitis
B) Conical cornea (keratoconus)
C) Glaucoma

A

C) Glaucoma

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20
Q

In paralytic strabismus (squint):
A) Secondary angle (of deviation) is the same as the primary one (Deviation is the same in
non-paralytic strabismus)
B) Anopsia of the eye with strabismus
C) Both answers are incorrect

A

C) Both answers are incorrect

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21
Q

Heavy eye pain, tearing, deep irritation, infiltration of cornea … may be most probably the cause of ?
A) Amoebic ulceration of the cornea
B) Herpetic inflammation of the cornea
C) Chlamydial inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva

A

A) Amoebic ulceration of the cornea

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22
Q

In the case of chemical burns of the surface of the eye, it is important to:
A) Wash the eye with plenty of water and refer to the ophthalmologic emergency department,
with some dressing on the eye
B) Wash the eye with plenty of water and refer to the ophthalmologic emergency department, without some dressing on the eye
C) Wash the eye with fluid of the opposite pH of the substance, which caused the burns, and refer to ophthalmologic emergency department

A

B) Wash the eye with plenty of water and refer to the ophthalmologic emergency department, without some dressing on the eye

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23
Q

Cause of foreign objects in the cornea is most commonly:
A) Angle grinding metal without any eye protection
B) Use of burnt lime while renovating the house
C) Riding the motorcycle without any eye protection

A

A) Angle grinding metal without any eye protection

24
Q

In case of retinal detachment with many openings in a patient with advanced glaucoma you should:
A) Administer drugs for lowering the intraocular pressure, and wait for its effects
B) Diagnosing lack of effective treatment
C) Perform operational intervention as soon as possible

A

C) Perform operational intervention as soon as possible

25
Q

In a patient with bilateral inflammation of the iris with nodules/sediment on the cornea, as well as dry eyes, the most probable diagnosis is:
A) Sarcoidosis
B) Chronic chlamydial inflammation
C) Infection with chickenpox and shingles (herpes zoster)

A

A) Sarcoidosis

26
Q

Mark the incorrect statement regarding basal-cell carcinoma of the upper eyelid:
A) In the case of diagnosis, the patient may already have distant metastases
B) Treatment is surgical
C) Initially the tumor may resemble chronic inflammation of the eyelid

A

A) In the case of diagnosis, the patient may already have distant metastases

27
Q

Which kind of strabismus does not require surgical intervention
A) Accommodating convergent strabismus
B) Alternating divergent strabismus
C) Accompanying convergent strabismus (“strabismus concommitans”)

A

A) Accommodating convergent strabismus

28
Q

In primary open angle glaucoma (POAG), we can be sure that there is no progression of the disease if:
A) The patient has an intraocular pressure of less than 18 mmHg
B) Over a longer period of time repeated visual field tests, which give similar results
C) Patient does not complain about pain over a longer period of time

A

A) The patient has an intraocular pressure of less than 18 mmHg

29
Q

In a 40-year-old patient with recurrent acute inflammation of the iris in the right eye you should mark/determine:
A) Anti-HIV antibodies
B) HLA B 27
C) Antinuclear antibodies

A

B) HLA B 27

30
Q

In case of total retinal detachment without any light perception:
A) Scleral buckling with injection of gas into the vitreous chamber
B) Vitrectomy with silicone oil
C) Back away from any sort of treatment for the patient

A

B) Vitrectomy with silicone oil

31
Q

What drug does not belong to glaucoma drugs, which increase the outflow of fluid out of the eye?
A) Pilocarpine
B) Timolol
C) Latanoprost

A

B) Timolol

32
Q

In inflammation of the episclera (episcleritis):
A) Occurs strong inflammatory reaction in the anterior chamber, treatment consists of
administration of immunosuppressants.
B) Observation of mucopurulent discharge in a part of the conjunctiva (“saccus
conjunctivae”)
C) Segmental hyperaemia of the eyeball and treatment consists of administration of NSAIDs

A

C) Segmental hyperaemia of the eyeball and treatment consists of administration of NSAIDs

33
Q

After cataract surgery, which of the following is NOT an early side effect?
A) Cloudiness of posterior capsule
B) Bacterial inflammation of the inner eyeball
C) Rupture of the ciliary body

A

A) Cloudiness of posterior capsule

34
Q
  1. What refractory power will the reading glasses in a 60-year-old patient have, who has near sightedness of -3 dpt.?
    A) No need for reading glasses
    B) +3dpt.
    C) –6dpt.
A

A) No need for reading glasses

35
Q

In a 15-year-old patient with -1dpt. in the right eye, and -7 dpt. in the left the best method of correction is:
A) Glasses
B) Contact lenses
C) Laser refractive surgery

A

B) Contact lenses

36
Q

Side effects which look like neovascular glaucoma cannot appear in:
A) Diabetic proliferating retinopathy
B) Pseudoexfoliation glaucoma (pseudoexfoliation syndrome)
C) Central retinal vein occlusion


A

B) Pseudoexfoliation glaucoma (pseudoexfoliation syndrome)

37
Q

Following are causes of “red eye”, which have a good prognosis on preserving visual function. Which of the following does not belong?
A) Inflammation of the episclera
B) Corneal erosion
C) Acute angle closure 


A

C) Acute angle closure

38
Q

What should be the procedure in the case of white reflex on the fundus of the eye (leukokoria) in a newborn?
A) Antibiotic drops and control after 7-10 days
B) Immediate referral for fundus examination after mydriasis
C) Observation through the family doctor; up to the 12th month of life, leukokoria may be a
physiological phenomenon 


A

B) Immediate referral for fundus examination after mydriasis

39
Q

Edema of CN II (optic nerve) may appear in following diseases : 
 i. Elevated intracranial pressure
ii. Exudative AMD
iii.Central retinal vein occlusion
iv. Inflammation of the anterior part of uvea
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 4
C) Only1


A

A) 1 & 3

40
Q

All of the following statements are true, except:
A) Strabismus, which occurs in 6th month of life is physiological and does not require any diagnostic intervention
B) Bilateral congenital cataract inhibits development of sight and should be removed surgically in the early weeks of life
C) Child with bilateral congenital cataract requires broad diagnostics with regard to congenital infections (TORCH), metabolic diseases and chr

A

A) Strabismus, which occurs in 6th month of life is physiological and does not require any diagnostic intervention

41
Q

Risk factors for open angle glaucoma are:

A) Thin cornea, high myopia, cold hands
B) Thick cornea, high myopia, diabetes
C) Corneal thickness of 0,54 mm, IOP of 19 mmHg, diabetes 


A

A) Thin cornea, high myopia, cold hands

42
Q

In a diabetic patient, we diagnose an IOP of 24 mmHg. Open iridocorneal angle. Fundus, visual field, HRT and thickness of retinal fibers are OK. Correct diagnosis in this patient is:
A) Open angle glaucoma
B) Elevated IOP
C) None of the above 


A

B) Elevated IOP

43
Q

Gonioscopy is an examination which:
A) Excludes the presence of inflammatory cells in the anterior chamber
B) Excludes the presence of irregular vessels, responsible for increase in IOP
C) Estimation of the depth of the anterior chamber

A

B) Excludes the presence of irregular vessels, responsible for increase in IOP

44
Q

Cardinal symptoms in acute angle closure are:
A) Fixed pupil, cloudy cornea, shallow anterior chamber, high IOP
B) Wide pupil, cloudy cornea, correct anterior chamber, high IOP
C) Wide pupil, translucent cornea, deep anterior chamber, high IOP

A

A) Fixed pupil, cloudy cornea, shallow anterior chamber, high IOP

45
Q

Indicator for lack of effectiveness in treatment of congenital glaucoma is:
A) Adhesions in the trabecular meshwork
B) Increasing diameter of the cornea
C) Decrease in visual acuity

A

B) Increasing diameter of the cornea

46
Q

Indicate the right statement:
A) Prostaglandin derivatives as eye drops for treatment of glaucoma are contraindicated in
patients with peptic ulcer disease
B) Chronic use of beta-adrenolytics is first line choice in primary open-angle glaucoma
C) Trabulectomy decreases IOP more effectively than beta-adrenolytic eye drops

A

C) Trabulectomy decreases IOP more effectively than beta-adrenolytic eye drops

47
Q

Paralysis of accommodation: ?
A) Is routinely used in estimation for refractory power of artificial IOL
B) May show hyperopia
C) Is a good method of measuring the visual field in a patient with (…)

A

C) Is a good method of measuring the visual field in a patient with (…)

48
Q

Artificial lens:
A) May assure good visual acuity for far, and near vision without any correction
B) Has to be changed about every 10 years.
C) None of the above

A

C) None of the above

49
Q

Stroke/trauma to the orbit and fracture of the inferior wall causes
A) Trauma to nerves 3, 4 and 6
B) Convergent strabismus
C) Diplopia on upwards movement

A

C) Diplopia on upwards movement

50
Q

In diabetic retinopathy we do not use following method of treatment:
A) Laser coagulation of peripheral retina
B) Vitrectomy with silicone oil
C) Intravitreal injections with Pentoxifylline

A

C) Intravitreal injections with Pentoxifylline

51
Q

True statement is:
A) Luxation of the lens is a contraindication for cataract surgery
B) Cataract of the posterior capsule is connected with the use of steroids
C) In convergent strabismus we use the shortening of the lateral rectus

A

C) In convergent strabismus we use the shortening of the lateral rectus

52
Q

Terson syndrome:
A) Is connected with congenital cataract
B) Is a congenital syndrome of malformations in the vascular retina
C) Occurs in acute subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

C) Occurs in acute subarachnoid hemorrhage

53
Q

In a patient with -5 dpt. and advanced nuclear cataract:
A) The length of the eye may be normal: 22-24mm
B) We do not perform cataract surgery, because we can not measure the refractory power of
the IOL
C) Generally we perform cataract surgery, and the implantation of the IOL will be (performed?) during the second operation

A

A) The length of the eye may be normal: 22-24mm

54
Q

The farsighted eye is more prone/vulnerable to:
A) Primary angle closure glaucoma
B) Retinal detachment
C) Diabetic retinopathy 


A

A) Primary angle closure glaucoma

55
Q

USG examination is specifically helpful in:
A) Patients with cataract and bleeding into the vitreous body
B) Patients with advanced glaucoma
C) Patients with unobstructed view into the eye, but no

A

A) Patients with cataract and bleeding into the vitreous body

56
Q

In the case of retinitis pigmentosa:
A) There is no treatment
B) In the early phase of the disease, we should perform surgery (…)
C) We use laser therapy on ischemic parts of the retina

A

A) There is no treatment

57
Q

Which symptom separates acute angle closure and (…)? (kommt drauf an was da fehlt)
A) Type of pain
B) Pupil diameter
C) Corneal sensation

A

B) Pupil diameter

Opthalmo 22 (9 decks)

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