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Opthalmo 22 > 2018 > Flashcards

2018 Flashcards

1
Q

Ptosis may be caused by:

A) Oculomotor nerve damage
B) Horner’s Syndrome
C) Both answers are correct

A

C) Both answers are correct

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2
Q

The two major surgical techniques for repairing a retinal detachment are:
A) External (conventional approach), internal (vitreoretinal surgery)
B) External - iridectomy, internal (vitreoretinal surgery)
C) External - eye drops, internal (cataract surgery)

A

A) External (conventional approach), internal (vitreoretinal surgery)

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3
Q

If you suspect the Sjörgen’s syndrome, which test will you perform:

A) Hirschberg’s Test
B) Schirmer’s Test
C) Amsler’s Grid

A

B) Schirmer’s Test

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4
Q

What is the optical power of the human lens?
A) Around 40 D
B) Around 10 D
C) Around 20 D

A

C) Around 20 D

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT a stage of diabetic retinopathy (DR)?
A) Proliferative DR
B) Latent DR
C) Preproliferative DR

A

B) Latent DR

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6
Q

Duration of the diabetes and poor control of blood sugar are the most important risk factors for development of diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following are also the risk factors for DR?
A) Pregnancy
B) Smoking
C) all of the above

A

C) all of the above

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7
Q

One particular type of glaucoma can occur patients with diabetic retinopathy. Which one is it?
A) Congenital glaucoma
B) Secondary glaucoma
C) None of the above

A

B) Secondary glaucoma

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8
Q

The medical term for the failure of normal visual development in children is:
A) Strabismus
B) Diplopia
C) Amblyopia

A

C) Amblyopia

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9
Q

Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex) is noticeable in which of the following ophthalmic pathology?

A) Congenital glaucoma
B) Strabismus
C) Retinoblastoma

A

Retinoblastoma

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10
Q

Which of the following are the risk factors associated with retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)?
A) Birthweight below 1500g, exposure to supplemental oxygen
B) Family history of ROP, duration of ventilation
C) Birth weight below 1500g, retinal detachment

A

A) Birthweight below 1500g, exposure to supplemental oxygen

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11
Q

Lengthening and darkening of the lashes is the side effect of:
A) beta blockers
B) Carbonic anhydrase
C) prostaglandin analogues

A

C) prostaglandin analogues

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12
Q

Between the cornea anteriorly and the lens and iris posteriorly lies:
A) vitreous
B) trasal body
C) the anterior chamber

A

C) the anterior chamber

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13
Q

The optical power of the cornea in different planes is not equal. parallel rays of light passing through these different planes are brought to different points of focus. It is:
A) myopia
B) hyperopia
C) Astigmatismus

A

C) Astigmatismus

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14
Q

The levatory of the eyelid is innervated by which nerve?
A) II
B) III
C) IV

A

B) III

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15
Q

The thickness of the tear film is:
A) 5ym (eig. 1,2 bis 3 μm, wenn das Mikrometer μm heißen soll)
B) 10ym
C) 15ym

A

A) 5ym

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16
Q

Between the ganglion cell layer and inner nuclear layer lays:
A) inner and outer segments of photoreceptors
B) external plexiform layer
C) inner plexiform layer

A

C) inner plexiform layer

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17
Q

A surface oil layer is produced by the:
A) tarsal meibomian glands
B) lacrimal gland
C) conjunctival goblet cells

A

A) tarsal meibomian glands

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18
Q

Macular edema may be associated with:
A) Uveitis
B) Retinal vascular disease (e.g.diabetic retinopathy)
C) All of the above

A

C) All of the above

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19
Q

What can be confirmed by performing the cover test:
A) Cataract
B) Glaucoma
C) Strabismus

A

C) Strabismus

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20
Q

This inflammation of the superficial layer of the sclera causes mild discomfort. It is rarely associated with systemic disease. In which severe disease, systemic non-steroidal anti- inflammatory treatment may be helpful:
A) Episcleritis
B) Scleritis
C) Keratitis

A

A) Episcleritis

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21
Q

The probability of a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is NOT increased in patients who:
A) Have high hypermetropia
B) have undergone cataract surgery particularly if this was complicated by vitreous loss
C) Have experienced a detached retina in the fellow eye

A

A) Have high hypermetropia

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22
Q

What is the name of the test used to monitor central visual field?
A) Amsler’s grid
B) Ishihara’s test
C) Hirschberg’s test

A

A) Amsler’s grid

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23
Q

The usual cause of ectropion do not include:
A) third nerve palsy
B) involuntary orbiculares muscle laxity
C) scarring of the periorbital skin

A

A) third nerve palsy

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24
Q

A state when intraocular pressure is raised without evidence of visual damage or pathological optical disc cupping is called:
A) Normal tension glaucoma
B) Ocular hypertension
C) Relative pupil block

A

B) Ocular hypertension

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25
Q

Synoptophore is used for:
A) measurement of intraocular pressure
B) assesment of eyes refraction
C) assesment of binuclear single vision

A

C) assesment of binuclear single vision

26
Q

This is used extensively in ophthalmology to provide information about the vitreous, retina and posterior coats of the eye, particularly when they cannot be clearly visualized:
A) Ultrasound
B) Keratometry
C) MRI

A

A) Ultrasound

27
Q

The optical power is too low (usually bc the eye is too short) and parallel rays of light converge toward a point behind the retina. What is it?
A) Astigmatismus
B) Myopis
C) Hypermetropia

A

C) Hypermetropia

28
Q

A hinged partial thickness corneal stromal flap is first created with a rapidly moving automated blade. The flap is lifted , and the laser applied onto the stroll bed. This is:
A) DSAEK
B) PRK
C) LASIK

A

C) LASIK

29
Q

These are the common symptoms, particularly in the middle-and patients. the take the form of spots or cobwebs which move when the eye moves and obscure vision only slightly. What is it:
A) Retinal determent
B) Floaters
C) Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

A

B) Floaters

30
Q

Central retinal vein occlusion may result in (CRVO)
A) ther hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation, an abnormality of venous
wall
B) ther hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation, increased IOP
C) ther hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation, an abnormality of venous wall, increased IOP

A

C) ther hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation, an abnormality of venous wall, increased IOP

31
Q

A ________ is a diagnostic contact lens, with a built-in mirror that permits visualisation of the iridocorneal angle
A) 90D
B) 70D
C) Gonioscopy lens

A

C) Gonioscopy lens

32
Q

What is a common cause of chorioretinitis
A) autoimmune
B) TB
C) toxoplasmosis

A

C) toxoplasmosis

33
Q

conjunctivitis most likely to occur bilaterally the least
A) allergic
B) viral
C) bacterial

A

C) bacterial

34
Q

Abducens nerve would be most affected by a brainstem lesion at
A) pons
B) midbrain
C) medulla

A

A) pons

35
Q

The pupillary defect that affects the afferent arm of pupillary response is the
A) marcus gunn pupil
B) argyl robberson pupil
C) adies pupil

A

A) marcus gunn pupil

36
Q

In which chamber the aqueous fluid is being produced
A) anterior chamber
B) vitreus chamber
C) posterior chamber


A

C) posterior chamber


37
Q

which condition would result in an inaccurately high reading with applanation preassue
A) thin cornea
B) thick cornea
C) edematous cornea

A

B) thick cornea

38
Q

A 32-year-old white man with history of type 1 diabetes presents to you complaining of decreased vision. He has not seen an eye doctor in years. On exam you find numerous dot- blot hemorrhages, hard exudates and areas of abnormal vasculature in the retina. Pan-retinal photocoagulation might be dine in the patient to:
A) kill ischemic retina
B) tamponade retinal tears
C) ablate peripheral blood vessels

A

A) kill ischemic retina

39
Q

Find false statement about post synechiae
A) form between lens and iris
B) form between lens and cornea
C) they cause the pupil deformation

A

B) form between lens and cornea

40
Q

Color of fluorescin staining in corneal ulcer is
A) yellow
B) blue
C) green

A

C) green

41
Q

What is the main treat of anterior uveitis
A) steroids and mydriatics-cycloplegics
B) antibiotics
C) anti VEGF

A

A) steroids and mydriatics-cycloplegics

42
Q

What are drusen
A) yellow fat and protein in the macula
B) abnormal vessels
C) charackteristic central scotomas

A

A) yellow fat and protein in the macula

43
Q

What is the possible treatment for wet AMD
A) laser therapy
B) anti VEGF injections
C) there is no therapy

A

B) anti VEGF injections

44
Q

Most common type of retinal detatchment
A) exudative
B) rhegmatogenous
C) tractional

A

B) rhegmatogenous

45
Q

A field defect often described as a “shadow” or “curtain” is characteristic for:
A) chronic open angle glaucoma
B) AMD
C) acute closed angle glaucome
D) retinal detatchment

A

D) retinal detatchment

46
Q

what are the benefits of vitamin and mineral supplementation for patients with AMD
A) they stop neovascularisation
B) they slow progression of the disease in people who have intermediate AMD
C) they restore lost vision
D) they particularly help people with early AMD

A

B) they slow progression of the disease in people who have intermediate AMD

47
Q

which statement about anterior uveitis is false
A) cells and flare in anterior chamber are typical findings
B) purulent discharge is often present
C) symptoms include eye pain photophobia and decreased vision

A

B) purulent discharge is often present

48
Q

HSV causes all the conditions except
A) dendridic corneal ulcer
B) acute retinal necrosis in immunodeficient patients
C) purulent conjunctivitis

A

C) purulent conjunctivitis

49
Q

most common cause of excessive tearing and purulent conjunctivitis in toddlers
A) viral infection
B) nasolacrimal duct stenosis
C) allergy

A

B) nasolacrimal duct stenosis

50
Q

During a typical cataract surgery :
A) Lens nucleus is vaporized with Laser
B) Corneal suture are laid
C) Intraocular lens is implanted

A

C) Intraocular lens is implanted

51
Q

Retinal detachment can be diagnoses with
A) Ultrasound examination
B) Gonioscopy
C) Applanation tonometry

A

A) Ultrasound examination

52
Q

A positive Seidel test occurs in
A) Dry eye syndrome
B) Wet macular degeneration
C) Corneal perforation and leakage

A

C) Corneal perforation and leakage

53
Q

The areas of the uvea are :
A) Iris, cornea, choroid
B) ciliary body, retina, optic disc
C) Iris, ciliary body, choroid

A

C) Iris, ciliary body, choroid

54
Q

Blow out orbital fracture is a traumatic deformity of which wall
A) superior
B) inferior
C) lateral

A

B) inferior

55
Q

Which of the following is NOT used in the strabismus treatment ?
A) patching of the eye with poorer vision
B) patching of the eye with better vision
C) surgery on extraocular muscles

A

A) patching of the eye with poorer vision

56
Q

A patient accidentally splashes a large amount of bleached based cleaner in the eye. What should he do ?
A) wash it out immediately
B) Add acids to the eye
C) Administer oral antibiotics

A

A) wash it out immediately

57
Q

What is the medical term for white pupillary reflex ?
A) leukocoria
B) leukoplakia
C) leukodystrophy

A

A) leukocoria

58
Q

Myopia is not associated with
A) Keratoconus
B) Cataract
C) Shortened eyeball

A

C) Shortened eyeball

59
Q

Which refractive error can be associated with nuclear cataract ?
A) Far-Sightedness
B) Astigmatism
C) Near sightedness

A

C) Near sightedness

60
Q

In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctivitis characteristically there is usually
A) Copious purulent discharge
B) Copious muco-purulent discharge
C) Excessive watery lacrimation

A

C) Excessive watery lacrimation

Opthalmo 22 (9 decks)

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