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Opthalmo 22 > 2020 > Flashcards

2020 Flashcards

1
Q

The patient complains of a sudden painless loss of all or part of the vision. What disease can you suspect?
A) conjunctivitis
B) central retinal artery occlusion
C) AMD

A

B) central retinal artery occlusion

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2
Q

A positive Seidl’s test occurs in:
A) wet macular degeneration
B) dry eye syndrome
C) corneal perforation and leakage

A

C) corneal perforation and leakage

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3
Q

Ectopia lentis may be seen in:
A) homocystinuria, Marfan’s syndrome, giant cell arteritis
B) trauma, homocystinuria, Marfan’s syndrome
C) trauma, giant cell arteritis, Marfan’s syndrome

A

B) trauma, homocystinuria, Marfan’s syndrome

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4
Q

Intracranial hypertension can cause:
A) bilateral optic disc swelling
B) retinal detachment
C) scleritis

A

A) bilateral optic disc swelling

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5
Q

Exudative retinal detachment is when:
A) it is pulled off by contracting fibrous tissue on the retinal surface (e.g. as in the proliferative
retinopathy of diabetes mellitus)
B) a tear occurs in the retina, allowing liquified nitrous to gain entry to the subretinal space
and causing a progressive detachment
C) fluid accumulates in the subretinal space as a result of an exudative process, which may occur during toxaemia in pregnancy

A

C) fluid accumulates in the subretinal space as a result of an exudative process, which may occur during toxaemia in pregnancy

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6
Q

Uveitis is usually treated with
A) anti-VEGF and vitrectomy
B) antibiotics
C) steroids and mydriatics

A

C) steroids and mydriatics

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7
Q

Eye hit with tennis or squash ball often develops
A) blow out orbital fracture
B) central retinal artery occlusion
C) perforation of the eye ball

A

A) blow out orbital fracture

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8
Q

What is a common cause of excessive tearing and purulent conjunctivitis in toddlers

A) nasolacrimal duct stenosis
B) viral infection
C) allergy


A

A) nasolacrimal duct stenosis

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9
Q

The tear film (20um thick) covers the eternal ocular surface and comprises … layers
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3

A

C) 3

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10
Q

A surface oil layer produces by the
A) conjunctivial goblet cells
B) lacrimal gland
C) tarsal meibomian glands 


A

C) tarsal meibomian glands

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11
Q

Levator palpebrae superioris muscle is innervated by which nerve? A) III
B) II
C) VI

A

A) III

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12
Q

Retinal detachment can be diagnosed with:
A) ultrasound examination
B) applanation tonometry
C) gonioscopy


A

A) ultrasound examination

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13
Q

patient presents with redness of the eye, discharge, ocular irritation. It is:
A) bacterial conjunctivitis
B) Uveitis
C) Squint (Strabismus?)

A

A) bacterial conjunctivitis

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14
Q

In children the most common orbital tumour is:
A) neuroblastoma
B) Rhabdomyosarcoma
C) Retinoblastoma

A

B) Rhabdomyosarcoma

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15
Q

The upper lid margin usually overlaps the upper corneal limbus by:
A) 3-4 mm
B) It does not overlap the upper limbus
C) 1-2 mm

A

C) 1-2 mm

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16
Q

During slit lamp examination, you saw a dendritic ulcer on the cornea. How will you treat it?
A) acyclovir
B) cefuroxime
C) ciprofloxacin

A

A) acyclovir

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17
Q

Choose the typical symptom of retinoblastoma:
A) heterochromia of the eye
B) a White pupillary reflex (leukocoria)
C) enophthalmus

A

B) a White pupillary reflex (leukocoria)

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18
Q

Which of the following medication are not used to treat glaucoma:

A) alpha2-blockers
B) alpha2-agonists
C) prostaglandin analogs

A

A) alpha2-blockers

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19
Q

Factors thought to be important in the development of a diabetic retinopathy include:
A) duration of diabetes, diabetic control
B) Smoking, hypertension
C) All of the above

A

C) All of the above

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20
Q

Sign off anterior uveitits
A) keratic precipitates on the corneal endothelium
B) Posterior synechiae (adhesion between the lens and Iris) give the pupil an irregular
appearance
C) A+ B

A

C) A+ B

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21
Q

Between the cornea anteriorly and the lens and Iris posteriorly lies in the:
A) Posterior chamber
B) Anterior chamber
C) Ciliary body

A

B) Anterior chamber

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22
Q

Macular oedema may be associated with
A) retinal vascular disease (e.g. diabetic retinopathy)
B) uveitis
C) All of the above

A

C) All of the above

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23
Q

Fundus changes typical for non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy include:
A) optic disk pallor
B) microaneurysms and intraretinal haemorrhages
C) neovascularisation and vitreous haemorrhage

A

B) microaneurysms and intraretinal haemorrhages

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24
Q

A hinged partial thickness corneal stromal flap is first created with a rapidly moving automated blade. The flap is lifted and the laser applied onto the stromal bed. This is:
A) PRK
B) DSAEK
C) LASIK

A

C) LASIK

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25
Q

Lengthening and darkening of the lashes is a side effect for:
A) carbonic anhydrase
B) Beta-blockers
C) Prostaglandin analogues

A

C) Prostaglandin analogues

26
Q

The optical power of the cornea in different planes is not equal. parallel rays of light passing through these different planes are brought to different points of focus. It is:
A) myopia
B) Astigmatism
C) Hypermetropia

A

B) Astigmatism

27
Q

What is the name of the test used to monitor macular function?
A) Ishihara test
B) Hirschberg test
C) Amsler grid

A

C) Amsler grid

28
Q

What is not a treatment method for strabismus
A) patching of the eye with better vision
B) patching of the eye with poorer vision
C) surgery on extraocular muscles

A

B) patching of the eye with poorer vision

29
Q

Hyphema is:
A) blood in the anterior chamber
B) blood in the posterior chamber
C) pus in the anterior chamber 


A

A) blood in the anterior chamber

30
Q

A patient accidentally splashes a large amount of bleach-based cleaner in the eye. What should he do?
A) wash it out immediately
B) give oral antibiotics
C) add acids to the eye

A

A) wash it out immediately

31
Q

Which of the following is not a treatment of diabetic macular oedema?
A) laser photocoagulation
B) Iridectomy
C) intravitreal anti-VEGF injection

A

B) Iridectomy

32
Q

Between the ganglion cell layer and inner nuclear layer lays:
A) inner and outer segments of photoreceptors
B) Inner plexiform layer
C) External limiting membran

A

B) Inner plexiform layer

33
Q

If the sympathetic supply is damaged the patient suffer from:
A) A+ B
B) Slight ptosis
C) Horner’s syndrome

A

A) A+ B

34
Q

Synopthopore is used for: (Synoptophore)
A) assessment of eye’s refraction
B) Measurement of intraocular pressure
C) Assessment of binocular single vision

A

C) Assessment of binocular single vision

35
Q

Rods are responsible for
A) day vision
B) night vision
C) A+ B

A

B) night vision

36
Q

There are two major surgical techniques for repairing a retinal detachment:
A) external - iridectomy, internal (vitreoretinal surgery)
B) External- eyedrops, internal (cataract surgery)
C) External (conventional approach), internal (vitreoretinal surgery)

A

C) External (conventional approach), internal (vitreoretinal surgery)

37
Q

In approximately 20% of patients clarity of the posterior capsule decreases in the months following cataract surgery when residual epithelial cells migrate across its surface. Vision becomes blurred and there may be problems with glare. A small hole can be made with a laser:
A) Capsulohexis
B) YAG-Iridotomy
C) YAG-Capsulotomy

A

C) YAG-Capsulotomy

38
Q

Which electrophysiological examination is used for assessment of visual pathway

A) electro-oculogram
B) Multifocal electroretinogram
C) Visually evoked potential

A

C) Visually evoked potential

39
Q

In angle-closure glaucoma the pressure in the eye is over:
A) 16 mmHg
B) 30 mmHg
C) 10 mmHg

A

B) 30 mmHg

40
Q

What symptom does not belong to Horner’s syndrome

A) miosis
B) Ptosis
C) mydriasis

A

C) mydriasis

41
Q

Classically urethritis, conjunctivitis and a seronegative arthritis may also be associated with anterior uveitis, it is a:

A) Behcet’s disease
B) Reiter’s disease
C) Bowel disease

A

B) Reiter’s disease

42
Q

This inflammation of the superficial layer of the sclera causes mild discomfort. It is rarely associated with systemic disease. It is usually self-limiting but as symptoms are tiresome, topical anti-inflammatory treatment can be given. In rare, severe disease, systemic non- steroidal anti-inflammatory treatment may be helpful:
A) scleritis
B) Keratitis
C) episcleritis

A

C) episcleritis

43
Q

During a typical cataract surgery:
A) corneal sutures are laid
B) Lens nucleus is vaporised with laser
C) Intraocular lens is implanted 


A

C) Intraocular lens is implanted 


44
Q

The usual causes of ectropion do not include:

A) scarring of the periorbital skin
B) Third nerve palsy
C) Involuntary orbicularis muscle laxity

A

B) Third nerve palsy

45
Q

Which of the following sentences is correct?
A) the ability to accommodate increases with age
B) The ability to accommodate is the same for entire lifetime
C) The ability to accommodate decreases with age

A

C) The ability to accommodate decreases with age

46
Q

What is used for diagnosis and monitoring glaucoma?
A) fluorescein angiography
B) cover test
C) visual field test

A

C) visual field test

47
Q

What is pterygium?

A) malignant tumour of conjunctiva
B) Yellowish legions that never impinge on the cornea
C) Growth of bulbar conjunctiva, mostly located nasally, which may encroach onto the visual axis

A

C) Growth of bulbar conjunctiva, mostly located nasally, which may encroach onto the visual axis

48
Q

What is the most effective treatment for wet macular degeneration:
A) panretinal photocoagulation
B) lutein supplementation
C) Anti-VEGF intravitreal injections

A

C) Anti-VEGF intravitreal injections

49
Q

This is a common painless condition in which an obstructed Meibomian gland causes a granuloma within the tarsal plate
A) molluscum contagiosum
B) xanthelesmas
C) chalazion

A

C) chalazion

50
Q

A state when intraocular pressure is raised without evidence of visual damage or pathological optic disk cupping is called
A) relative pupil block
B) Normal tension glaucoma
C) Ocular hypertension

A

C) Ocular hypertension

51
Q

Patients must be advised not to swim when wearing contact lenses because of the risk of
A) contact lens induced papillary conjunctivitis
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) acanthoameba keratitis

A

C) acanthoameba keratitis

52
Q

Which of these parts of the cornea is non-regenerating?
A) The stroma
B) The endothelium
C) All of the above

A

B) The endothelium

53
Q

The power of the intraocular lens implant to be used in the operation is calculated beforehand by measuring:
A) A+ B
B) The length of the eye ultrasonically
C) The curvature of the cornea (and thus optical power) optically

A

A) A+ B

54
Q

Risk factors associated with retinopathy of prematurity include
A) birth weight below 1500 g
B) Gestation less than 32 weeks
C) All of the above

A

C) All of the above

55
Q

Which of the following muscles is responsible for accommodation?
A) the orbicularis oculi muscle
B) the iris sphincter muscle
C) the ciliary muscle

A

C) the ciliary muscle

56
Q

What is the medical term for white pupillary reflex?
A) leukocoria
B) leukoplakia
C) leukodystrophy

A

A) leukocoria

57
Q

What can be confirmed by performing a cover test?

A) squint (strabismus)
B) Glaucoma
C) Cataract

A

A) squint (strabismus)

58
Q

The middle layer of the human eye, known as the uvea, consists of:
A) the cornea and the sclera
B) The choroid, the ciliary body and the iris
C) The retina

A

B) The choroid, the ciliary body and the iris

59
Q

Anterior uveitis is an inflammation of:
A) the iris
B) The ciliary body
C) The choroid

A

A) the iris

60
Q

Drusen are a symptom of:
A) ocular hypertension
B) Retinitis pigmentosa
C) Age-related macular degeneration

A

C) Age-related macular degeneration

Opthalmo 22 (9 decks)

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