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AS PE > 2.1 Diet and nutrition and their effect on physical activity and performance > Flashcards

2.1 Diet and nutrition and their effect on physical activity and performance Flashcards

1
Q

How many calories should men eat in a day?

A

2500

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2
Q

How many calories should women eat in a day?

A

1940

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3
Q

What percentage of a healthy diet should be carbohydrates?

A

55%

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4
Q

What percentage of a healthy diet should be proteins?

A

15%

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5
Q

What percentage of a healthy diet should be fats?

A

no more than 30%

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6
Q

What is the definition of carbohydrates?

A

Sugars and starches stored in the body as glycogen and converted to glucose to fuel energy production.

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7
Q

What is the definition of protein?

A

Amino acids essential for the growth and repair of cells and tissues

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8
Q

What is the definition of enzyme?

A

Biological catalyst which increases the speed of chemical reactions

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9
Q

What part of a heathy diet accounts for 75% of energy requirements?

A

carbohydrates

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10
Q

What are the 2 forms that carbohydrates can be consumed?

A

1 starches, such as rice and potatoes, which are stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles.
2 sugars, such as fruit and honey, which circulate in the blood stream as glucose.

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11
Q

Why are carbohydrates an essential part of a marathon runner’s diet?

A

Glycogen and glucose provide the fuel for aerobic and anaerobic energy production. Therefore, they are a crucial part of the diet for endurance performers, such as marathon runners. The best foods to consume are starches to maximise blood glucose levels. Otherwise surplus glucose, associated with a high sugar diet, will be converted into triglycerides (body fat).

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12
Q

What foods are proteins found in?

A

milk, eggs , meat and soya

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13
Q

Why are proteins essential for a healthy diet?

A

Amino acids from proteins are essential for growth and repair of cells and tissues. Used to make muscle proteins, haemoglobin, enzymes, antibodies and collagen, they can also be broken down down to provide energy aerobically if no other fuel is available.

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14
Q

Why do athletes have a far higher requirements for proteins than others?

A

Athletes have far higher protein requirements than their sedentary counterparts to build new muscle cells and compensate for the increased muscle breakdown during and after intense activity.

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15
Q

What is the definition of fats?

A

Triglycerides which provide the body with fatty acids for energy production.

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16
Q

What is the definition of saturated fatty acids?

A

A type of fat molecule typically solid at room temperature, mainly found in animal products which, when consumed excessively, can be associated with heart disease.

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17
Q

What is the definition of unsaturated fatty acids?

A

A type of fat molecule typically liquid at room temperature, mainly found in sunflower, olive and fish oils, which can help to lower cholesterol.

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18
Q

What is the definition of vitamins and minerals?

A

Essential organic and inorganic nutrients required for healthy body function.

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19
Q

Why are fats essential to a healthy diet?

A

Fats are an important part of the diet and serve to insulate nerves, form cell membranes, cushion organs and provide an energy store. They provide essential fatty acids and the fat-soluble vitamins A, D and E. Fats can also be broken down for aerobic energy production and have twice the energy yield of carbohydrates.

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20
Q

What are some examples of saturated fatty acids?

A

butter and bacon

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21
Q

Why should saturated fatty acids be limited?

A

They need to be limited to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

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22
Q

What are some example of unsaturated fatty acids?

A

avocado and soya beans

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23
Q

What is omega-3s?

A

fish oil

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24
Q

Why is omega-3s beneficial for athletes?

A

Omega-3s (fish oil) may be particularly beneficial for athletes, boosting the delivery of oxygen, improving endurance and recovery rates, and reducing inflammation and joint stiffness.

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25
Q

Why are minerals necessary to a healthy diet?

A

They are necessary for bone and tooth health, controlling body fluids, enzyme formation, breaking down food to release energy and normal nerve function.

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26
Q

What foods are minerals found?

A

meat, cereal, fish, dairy foods, vegetables, fruit, nuts

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27
Q

What are the 3 types of minerals necessary for a healthy diet?

A

Calcium
iron
phosphorous

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28
Q

What is calcium important for in a healthy diet?

A

important for bone health, muscle contraction, blood clotting and nerve transmission

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29
Q

What is iron important for in a healthy diet?

A

Important for the formation of haemoglobin, enzyme reactions and the immune system

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30
Q

What is phosphorous important for in a healthy diet?

A

Important for bone health and energy production

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31
Q

What are minerals?

A

Minerals are essential inorganic nutrients required in small quantities to maintain healthy body functions.

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32
Q

What are vitamins?

A

Vitamins are essential organic nutrients required in small quantities to maintain healthy body functions.

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33
Q

What are the 2 types of vitamins?

A

1 fat-soluble
2 water-soluble

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34
Q

What are fat-soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamins stored in the body and found mainly in fatty foods and animal products such as vegetable oils, dairy products and eggs.

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35
Q

What are the 4 types of fat-soluble vitamins?

A

A, D, E and K

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36
Q

Why is vitamin A important?

A

It is an antioxidant and important for eye health, cell and bone growth

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37
Q

Why is vitamin D important?

A

It is important for bone health and protects against cancer and heart disease.

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38
Q

Why is vitamin E important?

A

It is an antioxidant and important for skin, eye ad immune system health.

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39
Q

Why is vitamin K important?

A

it is important for blood clotting and bone health

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40
Q

What type of vitamin is vitamin A?

A

fat-soluble

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41
Q

What type of vitamin is vitamin D?

A

fat-soluble

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42
Q

What type of vitamin is vitamin E?

A

fat-soluble

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43
Q

What type of vitamin is vitamin K?

A

Fat-soluble

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44
Q

What are water-soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamins that are not stored and require regular intake.

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45
Q

What foods are fat-soluble vitamins found in?

A

found mainly in fatty foods and animal products such as vegetable oils, dairy products and eggs.

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46
Q

What foods are water-soluble vitamins found in?

A

fruit, vegetables, grains, milk and dairy foods

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47
Q

What are the 2 types of water-soluble vitamins?

A

C and B

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48
Q

Why is vitamin C important?

A

Important for skin, blood vessel, tendon, ligament and bone health

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49
Q

Why is vitamin B important?

A

important for the breakdown of food, haemoglobin formation and skin, eye and nervous system health

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50
Q

What is fibre and why is it important to a healthy diet?

A

It is an important component of a balanced diet for the normal function of the large intestine.

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51
Q

What foods can fibre be found in?

A

Cereals, bread, beans, lentils, fruit and vegetables

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52
Q

What is the advantage of having a high-fibre diet?

A

A high0fibre diet can reduce cholesterol, risk of diabetes and obesity.

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53
Q

Why is water essential to a healthy diet?

A

It is essential to allow chemical reactions and dissolve and move substances around the body. It is also required to regulate temperature by moving heat to the skin surface for evaporation (sweating) or to the lung tissue for expiration as water vapour.

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54
Q

Why is hydration important?

A

Water is essential for hydration before, during and after training and competition, especially in hot climates and endurance activities, such as a triathlon. Dehydration can result in decreased plasma volume, stroke volume and increase temperature and heart rate. Endurance and strength will suffer as a result.

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55
Q

What is the definition of energy?

A

The ability to perform work (Joules or calories)

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56
Q

What is the definition of energy expenditure?

A

The sum of basal metabolic rate, the thermic effect of food and the energy expended through physical activity.

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57
Q

What does BMR stand for?

A

Basal metabolic rate

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58
Q

What is the definition of basal metabolic rate?

A

The minimum amount of energy required to sustain essential physiological function at rest, which can account for as much as 75% of total energy expenditure.

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59
Q

What is the definition of thermic effect of food?

A

The energy required to eat, digest, absorb and use food taken in, which accounts for a very small percentage of the total energy expenditure.

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60
Q

What does TEF stand for?

A

Thermic effect of food

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61
Q

Why is is essential for performers to mee their energy needs?

A

Every performer has different nutritional needs and it is crucial performers meet their energy needs during periods of training to improve performance while maintaining health. Failure to consume sufficient calories can result in muscle loss (atrophy), decreased intensity and duration of performance, slower recovery rates and increased risk of fatigue, injury and illness.

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62
Q

What factors need to be considered when understanding an individual’s energy requirements or daily calorie need?

A

age, gender, size, environment, lifestyle, metabolic rate

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63
Q

What is the definition of physical activity energy expenditure?

A

The total number of calories required to perform daily tasks, which can be estimated using MET values.

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64
Q

What is the definition of metabolic equivalent value ?

A

The ratio of a performer’s working metabolic rate to their resting metabolic rate.

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65
Q

‘Light activities’ have a MET value of what?

A

less than 3.0

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66
Q

‘Moderate activities’ have a MET value of what?

A

3.0-5.9

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67
Q

‘Vigorous physical activity’ has a MET value of what?

A

6.0 and above

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68
Q

What is the definition of energy intake?

A

The total amount of energy from food and beverages consumed and measured in joules or calories.

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69
Q

What is the definition of energy balance?

A

The relationship between energy intake and energy expenditure.

70
Q

If energy intake matches energy expenditure, what is the effect?

A

Weight will be maintained

71
Q

If energy intake is greater than energy expenditure, what is the effect?

A

Weight will be gained ad the percentage of body fat may rise, having negative health and performance implication.

72
Q

If energy intake is lower than energy expenditure, what is the effect?

A

Weight will be lost. This may be beneficial as part of a weight loss programme, but be carefully monitored with an athlete to minimise loss of muscle mass and performance.

73
Q

What is the definition of a ergogenic aid?

A

A substance, object or method used to improve or enhance performance

74
Q

What sports are mostly being affected by the use of illegal drugs in terms of regulation and public perception?

A

cycling and athletics

75
Q

What is the World Anti=Doping Association’s mission?

A

To lead a collaborative worldwide movement for doping-free sport and compiles the lists of prohibited substances and methods used in sport. However, fighting the pace of pharmacological advances makes the testing for banned substances difficult.

76
Q

What is the definition of pharmacological aids?

A

A group of ergogenic aids taken to increase the levels of hormones or neural transmitters naturally produced by the body, including anabolic steroids, erythropoietin and human growth hormone.

77
Q

What is the definition of anabolic steroids?

A

A group of illegal synthetic hormones resembling testosterone to promote protein synthesis for muscle growth, recovery and repair.

78
Q

Why are pharmacological aids taken?

A

To increase the levels of hormones or neural transmitters naturally produced by the body

79
Q

What are 3 types of pharmacological aids?

A

1 anabolic steroids
2 Erythropoietin (EPO)
3 Human growth hormone (HGH)

80
Q

What are anabolic steroids?

A

A group of synthetic hormones which resemble the male hormone testosterone

81
Q

Why do athletes take anabolic steroids?

A

They are taken to promote protein synthesis and muscle growth.
Quality and quantity of training can be increases as strength and speed of recovery improves.

82
Q

What forms of anabolic steroids are available?

A

tablet, capsule, solution (for injection) and cream form

83
Q

How can the use of anabolic steroids be detected?

A

urine sample

84
Q

Who are some athletes that have been caught taking anabolic steroids?

A

Sprinters Dwain Chambers and Marion Jones

85
Q

What type of performance is the use of anabolic steroids usually associated with?

A

sprinters, throwers, baseball and rugby players

86
Q

What are the general negative health effects of using anabolic steroids?

A

irritability, aggressiveness, paranoia, acne, liver damage, heart failure and hormonal disturbances.

87
Q

What are the effects of taking anabolic steroids on males?

A

testes shrink, sperm count decreases, hair loss and breast tissue development

88
Q

What are the effects of taking anabolic steroids on females?

A

facial hair growth and a deepening of the voice

89
Q

What are the performance benefits of taking anabolic steroids?

A

Increase muscle mass and strength
Increased speed of recovery
Increased intensity ad duration of training

90
Q

What is EPO?

A

A naturally produced hormone responsible for the production of red blood cells.

91
Q

Why do athletes use EPO?

A

When injected by athletes, the increased red blood cell count increases oxygen transport, aerobic capacity and, therefore, the intensity and duration of performance before fatigue.

92
Q

What types of athletes is the use of EPO usually associated with?

A

Endurance performers, such as marathon runners and triathletes

93
Q

Why is EPO difficult to detect?

A

It is difficult to detect through blood or urine samples due to the naturally circulating levels which can be raised with aerobic training.

94
Q

To avoid a positive test result for EPO, what do athletes also take?

A

It is common for an athlete abusing EPO to also receive plasma infusions and take blood thinners to reduce the risk of serious health consequences and a positive test result.

95
Q

What is the definition of recombinant erythropoietin (RhEPO)?

A

Illegal synthetic product copying natural erythropoietin hormone responsible for red blood cell production.

96
Q

What is the definition of hyper-viscosity?

A

Excessively thickened blood with resistance to flow

97
Q

EPO abuse can lead to hyper-viscosity. Why is this so bad?

A

This is thick and sticky blood which flows slowly, decreasing cardiac output and significantly raising the risk of blood clots and heart failure.

98
Q

What are the performance benefits of using EPO?

A

Increased red blood cell and haemoglobin count
Increased oxygen transport and aerobic capacity
Increased intensity and duration of performance before fatigue

99
Q

What are the risks of taking EPO?

A

Increased blood viscosity
Decreased cardiac output
Increased risk of blood clots and heart failure
Decreased natural production of EPO

100
Q

What is the definition of EPO?

A

Illegal synthetic product copying natural growth hormone to increase protein synthesis for muscle growth, recovery and repair.

101
Q

Which athletes are associated with taking HGH?

A

Maximal and explosive strength-based performers such as power lifters, bodybuilders, sprinters and throwers

102
Q

Why is HGH difficult to detect?

A

The naturally circulating levels already in the body

103
Q

What are the performance benefits of taking HGH?

A

Increased muscle mass and strength
Increased fat metabolism and decreased fat mass
Increased blood glucose levels
Increased speed of recovery
Increased intensity and duration of training

104
Q

What are the risks of taking HGH?

A

Abnormal bone and muscle development
Enlargement of the vital organs, potentially leading to multi-organ failure
Increased risk of certain cancers and diabetes.

105
Q

What is the definition of physiological aids?

A

A group of ergogenic aids used to increase the rate of adaptation by the body to increase performances, including blood doping, intermittent hypoxic training and cooling aids

106
Q

What is the definition of blood doping?

A

An illegal method of increasing red blood cell content by infusing blood prior to competition.

107
Q

What is an example of an illegal physiological aid ?

A

blood doping

108
Q

What are 2 examples of legal physiological aids?

A

hypoxic training and cooling aids

109
Q

How does blood doping work?

A

A volume of blood is removed from the athlete and the red blood cells frozen around 4 weeks prior to competition. The body naturally replenishes the lost blood and a couple of hours before an event the red blood cells are reinfused in a saline solution. This increases total blood volume, red cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity.

110
Q

What are the performance benefits of blood doping?

A

increased red blood cell and haemoglobin count
increased oxygen transport and aerobic capacity
increased intensity and duration of performance before fatigue

111
Q

What are the risks of blood doping?

A

Increased blood viscosity
Decreased cardiac output
Increased risk of blood clots and heart failure
Risk of transfusion reactions and infections such as HIV

112
Q

What is the definition of Intermittent hypoxic training?

A

Interval training with work intervals performed under hypoxic conditions

113
Q

What does IHT stand for?

A

intermittent hypoxic training

114
Q

What is the definition of hypoxia?

A

A condition where the body is subjected to an inadequate oxygen supply to maintain normal function

115
Q

What is the definition of buffering capacity?

A

The ability to resist changes in pH - for example, the ability to reduce the negative effect of hydrogen ions on muscular contraction.

116
Q

What does hypoxic mean?

A

low partial pressure of oxygen

117
Q

How is IHT be performed?

A

IHT can be performed with aerobic and high-intensity anaerobic intervals where a mask supplying low partial pressure oxygen air is worn during the exercise interval and removed during the relief interval. An altitude generator can control the percentage of oxygen in the air down to 9.5%, simulating conditions around 6,000m in a room, sleeping tent or during exercise using a mask.

118
Q

What type of athlete would use IHT?

A

Endurance performers such as marathon runners and triathletes benefit, as well as team game players, especially to acclimatise before an event at altitude.

119
Q

How long do the IHT methods take?

A

IHT methods range from 4-8 weeks of high-intensity work intervals of 1-3 minute duration or aerobic work intervals of 15-40 minutes under hypoxic conditions. Relief intervals would range from 1 to 40 minutes under normal conditions. Hypoxic air can range from 9.5 to 14% oxygen compared to 21% at sea level.

120
Q

What are the performance benefits of using IHT?

A

Acclimatisation for events at altitude.
Increased red blood cell, haemoglobin and oxygen-carrying capacity.
Increased intensity and duration before fatigue.
Increased mitochondria and buffering capacity, delaying OBLA

121
Q

What are the risks of using IHT?

A

Any benefit is quickly lost when IHT stops.
May lose motivation and disrupt training patterns.
Hard to reach normal work rates.
Decrease immune function and increase risk of infection.
Dehydration

122
Q

What does OBLA stand for?

A

onset of blood lactate accumulation

123
Q

What is the definition of OBLA?

A

The point where there is a dramatic rise in blood lactate causing the onset of fatigue

124
Q

What is the definition of cooling aids?

A

A range of products, such as ice vests, packs and baths, used to reduce core temperature, treat injury and speed up recovery

125
Q

What is the definition of thermal strain?

A

Additional pressure placed on the body by an increase in temperature that can cause short- and long-term negative effects.

126
Q

What is the definition of cardiovascular drift?

A

Upward drift of heart rate during sustained steady-state activity associated with an increase in body temperature

127
Q

What is the purpose of pre-event cooling aids?

A

They can be used before an event to reduce core body temperature in a bid to sustain intensity and speed while reducing thermal strain and the cardiovascular drift. This may reduce overheating, sweating, dehydration, cramp, dizziness and early fatigue.

128
Q

What is the purpose of using cooling aids for injury treatment?

A

They can be used to treat injuries during or after an event by reducing pain and swelling. Nerve endings are numbed to reduce pain and arterioles vasoconstrict to reduce blood flow and minimise swelling.

129
Q

What the PRICE procedure mean?

A

A procedure followed when an athlete in injured. - protect, rest, ice, compress, elevate

130
Q

What is the purpose of using cooling aids after an event?

A

Cooling aids can be used after an event to speed up recovery by reducing exercise-induced muscle damage and decreasing delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS). During the ice bath, blood vessels constrict, removing waste and lactic acid from the muscle tissue. After the ice bath, blood vessels dilate, flushing the muscle tissue with nutrient-rich oxygenated blood flow, healing and repairing damaged cells.

131
Q

What are the performance benefits of using cooling aids?

A

Reduced core body temperature.
Decreased sweating, dehydration and early fatigue.
Decreased injury pain and swelling.
Increased speed of recovery and repair.
decreased delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

132
Q

What are the risks of using cooling aids?

A

Difficult to perceive exercise intensity.
Ice burns and pain.
Hide or complicate injuries.
Chest pain and reduced efficiency in the elderly.
Dangerous for hypertensives or those with heart conditions (if used in the chest area).

133
Q

Why is nutritional awareness essential for athletes?

A

Nutritional awareness is essential for alite athletes to meet the energy balance required to maintain health, training and performance quality.

134
Q

What is the definition of glycaemic index?

A

A rating scale showing how quickly a carbohydrate affects blood glucose levels

135
Q

What does GI stand for?

A

glycaemic index

136
Q

What is the definition of hypoglycaemia ?

A

Low blood glucose levels associated with dizziness, shaking and raised heart rate

137
Q

3 hours before an event, what foods should an endurance performer eat?

A

Around 3 hours before an event, an endurance performer would eat a slow-digesting carbohydrate, such as porridge oats or beans and green vegetables. This would typically contain 1-4g per kg of complex or low glycaemic index carbohydrates to maximise glycogen stores and prevent glycogen depletion.

138
Q

1-2 hours before an events, what foods should an athlete eat?

A

1-2 hours before the event, a smaller, fast-digesting carbohydrate meal, such as honey on a bagel or energy bar, should be eaten to top up the glycogen stores and maintain blood glucose levels. An athlete should be careful taking glucose supplements immediately prior to an event as the body may try and counteract the raised glucose levels, leaving an athlete dizzy and fatigued. This is known as rebound hypoglycaemia.

139
Q

During an athlete, what should an athlete eat?

A

The body can absorb around 660-90g of carbohydrate per hour. It is recommended for athletes who compete for longer than an hour to consume regular small amounts (30-60g) of fat-digesting carbohydrates to maintain blood glucose levels and preserve muscle glycogen stores.

140
Q

As a post-event meal, what should an athlete eat?

A

Rapid post exercise recovery is aided by 1-1.5g per kg of carbohydrate per hour. This should be consumed within 30 minutes of the event finishing and repeated at 2 hour intervals for up to 6 hours post event. Moderate and fast-digesting carbohydrates will promote faster recovery

141
Q

What would the diet of a strength-based athlete look like?

A

5-6 small meals per day every few hours
Up to 30% lean protein to enhance muscle building and repair, such as tuna and turkey.
Complex carbohydrate to release energy slowly, control blood sugar levels and minimise the storage of fat, such as black beans and oatmeal.
Limited fat intake, which also provides energy and is important for hormone production, such as flaxseeds rich in omega-3 fatty acids

142
Q

What should a pre-training meal consist if?

A

30-60 minutes before training, a small meal should be eaten with equal quantities of fast-digesting carbohydrate and protein, such as white bagels or rice with whey protein or egg whites. These are fast-digested and quickly accessed during a hard training session.

143
Q

What should a post-training meal consist of?

A

As soon as practicably possible, but within 2 hours, a meal consisting of fast-digesting carbohydrates and protein should be consumed. This will replace lost glycogen and satisfy the far higher need for protein to boost protein synthesis, and muscle and strength gains. Due to the preparation and digestion time associated, many strength trainers opt for liquids, such as protein shakes, as they more easily digested.

144
Q

What is the definition of glycogen/carbohydrate loading?

A

The manipulation of carbohydrate intake in the week before competition to maximise stores of glycogen.

145
Q

What are the 4 phases of the classic protocol of carbohydrate/glycogen loading?

A

Day 1: glycogen-depleting bout of endurance exercise
Day 2-3: high protein, high fat diet
Day 4: Glycogen-depleting bout of endurance exercise
Day5-7: high carbohydrate diet while training is tapered or reduced to resting

146
Q

What are the performance benefits of glycogen loading?

A

Increased glycogen stores.
Increased endurance capacity.
Delays fatigue.
Increased time to exhaustion by up to 30%

147
Q

What are the risks of glycogen loading?

A

Hypoglycaemia in the depletion phase.
Poor recovery rates in the depletion phase.
Lethargy and irritability in depletion phase.
Gastrointestinal problems.
Increased risk of injury.
Affects mental preparation pre-competition

148
Q

What can losing 2% of body weight in sweat mean for performance?

A

Decreased heat regulation and increased temperature.
Increased blood viscosity
Increased heart rate
Increased fatigue
Decreased cognitive function and skill level

149
Q

What is the definition of electrolytes?

A

Salts and minerals, such as sodium and potassium, that conduct electrical impulses. Lost through the sweat but essential to replace in order to prevent early fatigue

150
Q

What are the 3 types of sports drinks?

A

1 hypotonic solutions
2 isotonic solutions
3 hypertonic solutions

151
Q

What are hypotonic solutions?

A

Sports drink which contain a lower concentration of glucose than the blood stream (4% glucose). This quickly replaces fluids lost by sweating while still providing small amounts of glucose for energy production.

152
Q

What type of athletes use hypotonic solution sports drink?

A

Used for hydration without the energy boost, such as jockeys and gymnasts

153
Q

What are isotonic solutions?

A

Sports drinks which contain equal concentrations of glucose to the blood stream (5-8% glucose). Absorbed at the same rate as water, they quickly rehydrate and supply glucose for energy production.

154
Q

What type of athletes use isotonic solution sports drink?

A

Middle-distance and long-distance runners and games players

155
Q

What are hypertonic solutions?

A

Sports drinks which contain a higher concentration of glucose than the blood stream (15% glucose). Absorbed at a slower rate than water, they are usually used post-exercise to maximise glycogen replenishment in recovery. The high concentrations of glucose can cause dehydration and additional water is needed to dilute the carbohydrate for use and storage and therefore not often used during exercise.

156
Q

What type of athletes use hypertonic solution sports drinks?

A

Ultra-distance athletes may use hypertonic solutions to meet their energy production requirement, but they should be used in conjunction with isotonic solutions to replace fluids.

157
Q

What is the definition of creatine supplementation?

A

Consumption of creatine monohydrate to increase stores of PC to increase intensity and duration of performance

158
Q

What does PC stand for?

A

phosphocreatine

159
Q

What is creatine?

A

Creatine is produced naturally in the body from amino acids and can be consumed by eating meat. Almost all creatine is stored in the muscle tissue as PC and sed to fuel very high-intensity energy production, typically for weightlifters and sprinters

160
Q

What are the performance benefits of creatine supplementation?

A

Increased PC stores.
increased fuel for very high-intensity energy production (ATP-PC system).
Increased intensity and duration of training.
Increased maximum and explosive strength.

161
Q

What are the risks of creatine supplementation?

A

Increased weight gain.
Increased water retention.
Muscle cramps.
Gastrointestinal problems.
Long-term effects on health unclear

162
Q

What is the definition of caffeine?

A

A stimulant used to heighten the central nervous system and mobilise fats to prolong aerobic energy production.

163
Q

What are the performance benefits of the use of caffeine?

A

Increased nervous stimulation.
Increased focus and concentration.
Increased mobilisation of fats.
Preservation of muscle glycogen.
Increased endurance performance.

164
Q

What are the risks of the use of caffeine?

A

Diuretic effect leading to dehydration.
Insomnia and anxiety.
Gastrointestinal problems

165
Q

What is the definition of bicarbonate?

A

An alkaline which acts as a buffer to neutralise the rise in lactic acid associated with intense anaerobic activity. Its use is known as ‘soda loading’.

166
Q

What are the performance benefits of the use of bicarbonate?

A

Increased buffering capacity.
Increased tolerance to lactic acid, delaying OBLA.
Increased intensity and duration of performance.

167
Q

What are the risks of the use of bicarbonate?

A

Possible gastrointestinal problems.
Unpleasant taste, causing nausea

168
Q

What is the definition of nitrates?

A

Inorganic compounds which dilate blood vessels, reducing blood pressure and increasing blood flow to the muscles

169
Q

What is the performance benefits of the use of nitrates?

A

Reduced blood pressure.
Increased blood flow.
Increased intensity of performance.
Delays fatigue.

170
Q

What are the risks of the use of nitrates?

A

Headaches, dizziness or light-headedness.
Long-term effects on health unclear.
Possible carcinogenic risk

AS PE (16 decks)

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