2025 Physiology Exam 2 Flashcards

Lectures 6-11: Cardiovascular, Vascular and Lymphatics, Chemical Senses, Cardiovascular Physiology

1
Q

Pathway of Heartbeat

A

Begins in the sinoatrial (S-A) node… has natural and quickest leakage to Na+

Internodal pathway to atrioventricular (A-V) node

Impulse delayed in A-V node and bundle (allows atria to contract before ventricles to give 20% more blood into ventricle (which is already flowing down due to gravity))

A-V bundle takes impulse into ventricles.

Left and right bundles of Purkinje fibers take impulses to all parts of ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sinus Node

A

Specialized cardiac muscle connected to atrial muscle

Acts as pacemaker because membrane leaks Na+ and membrane potential is −55 to −60mV. The constant leak of Na+ makes resting potential to gradually rise

At −55 mV, fast Na+ channels are inactivated.

When membrane potential reaches −40 mV, slow Na+ and Ca++ channels open causing action potential.

After 100–150 msec Ca++ channels close and K+ channels open more thus returning membrane potential to −55mV.

Normal rate of discharge in sinus node is 70–80/min.
A-V node—40-60/min.
Purkinje fibers—15-40/min.

Sinus node is pacemaker because of its faster discharge rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Internodal Fibers

A

Transmits cardiac impulse throughout atria

Anterior, middle, and posterior internodal pathways

Anterior interatrial band carries impulses to left atrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Flow of Electrical Impulse

A

SA Node to Internodal Pathways to AV Node (slows down) to AV Bundles to Purkinje System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Parasympathetic Nerves Effects on Heart Rate

A

Parasympathetic (vagal) nerves, which release acetylcholine at their endings, innervate S-A node and A-V junctional fibers proximal to A-V node.
Acetylcholine decreases SN discharge and excitability of A-V fibers, slowing the heart rate.
Cause hyperpolarization because of increased K+ permeability in response to acetylcholine (increased negativity inside)

This causes decreased transmission of impulses maybe temporarily stopping heart rate.

Ventricular escape occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sympathetic Nerves Effects on Heart Rate

A

Releases norepinephrine at sympathetic ending

Causes increased sinus node discharge

Increases rate of conduction of impulse

Increases force of contraction in atria and ventricles
Norepinephrine increases permeability to Na+ and Ca+, causing a more + resting potential, accelerating self-excitation, and excitability of AV fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The Heart Anatomy

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Action Potential of Cardiac Muscle

A

Know this!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Refractory Period

A

Absolute Refractory - can not excite no matter what

Relative refractory - can excite if the stimulus is more than the original

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Results of Action Potential

A

Ca++ release from T- tubules, which are large, is a very important source of Ca++.

T-tubule Ca++ depends strongly on extracellular Ca++ concentration.

Heart’s T-tubules are bigger than those in skeletal muscle and rich in mucopolysaccharides.

Mucopolysaccharides bind and store Ca++.

Ca++ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum (after stimulation of ryanodine receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Actin-Myosin Cycle Post Ca++ Release

A

Steps of the actin-myosin cycle
Ca++ release: Nerve impulses trigger the release of Ca++ from the SR.

Ca++ binding: Ca++ binds to troponin C, which shifts tropomyosin.

Cross-bridge formation: Myosin heads bind to actin filaments, forming cross-bridges.

Power stroke: Myosin heads flex, pulling actin filaments into the myosin channel.

ADP release: ADP is released from the myosin head.

ATP binding: ATP attaches to myosin, allowing the cycle to repeat.

Regulation of the cycle
The cycle continues as long as Ca++ ions remain bound to troponin and ATP is available.
Muscle contraction usually stops when signaling from the motor neuron ends.

Muscle fatigue
Muscle contraction can also stop when the muscle runs out of ATP and becomes fatigued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cardiac Cycle

A

Systole: ventricular muscle stimulated by action potential and contracting (electrical conducting system)

Diastole: ventricular muscle reestablishing Na+/K+/Ca++ gradient and is relaxing

EKG
P: atrial wave
QRS: Ventricular wave (hides the atria repolarization)
T: Ventricular repolarization

KNOW THIS GRAPH… tells all need to know about the Cardiac Cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ventricular Pressure and Volume Curves

A

Diastole
Isovolumic relaxation
A-V valves open
Rapid inflow
Diastasis—slow flow into ventricle
Atrial systole—extra blood in and follows P wave
Accounts for 10–25% of filling
*** Coronary arteries get filled during the diastole due to the back fill of blood

Systole
Isovolumic contraction
A-V valves close (ventricular press > atrial press)
Aortic valve opens
Ejection phase
Aortic valve closes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ejection Fraction

A

End diastolic volume = 120 mL

End systolic volume = 50 mL

Ejection volume (stroke volume) = 70 mL

Ejection fraction = 70 mL/120 mL = 58%
(normally 60%)

If heart rate (HR) is 70 beats/minute, what is cardiac output?

Cardiac output = HR * stroke volume = 70/min * 70 mL = 4900 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Way to Increase Blood Pumped by Heart in a Minute

A

Chronotropic = beat faster, contract more often

Inotropic = beat harder, contraction harder

However, blood can only pump out the amount of blood it receives = Preload = Venous Return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Afterload

A

Amount of blood/pressure to be pumped against

Ex. Left Ventricle = pressure in the Aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Preload

A

Amount of blood the heart receives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Aortic Pressure Curve

A

Aortic pressure starts increasing during systole after the aortic valve opens.

Aortic pressure decreases toward the end of the ejection phase.

After the aortic valve closes an incisura occurs because of sudden cessation of back-flow toward left ventricle.

Aortic pressure decreases slowly during diastole because of the elasticity of the aorta plus blood flow to the periphery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Valvular Function

A

To prevent back-flow

The close and open passively, driven by pressure: backward pressure-close; forward pressure-open

Chordae tendineae are attached to AV valves

Papillary muscle, attached to chordae tendineae, contract during systole and help prevent back-flow (keep them tight).

Due to smaller opening, velocity through aortic and pulmonary valves exceeds that through the Avs.

Most work is external work or pressure-volume work.

A small amount of work is required to impart kinetic energy to the heart (1/2 mV2).

What is stroke volume in Figure 9-11?

External work is area of P–V curve.

Work output is affected by “preload” (end-diastolic pressure) and “afterload” (aortic pressure).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Frank-Starling Law of the Heart

A

More stretch on the heart, more forceful the contractions… to a point because then actin-myosin can’t overlap anymore to help create more forceful a contraction

Within physiological limits the heart pumps all the blood that comes to it without excessive damming in the veins.

Extra stretch on cardiac myocytes makes actin and myosin filaments interdigitate to a more optimal degree for force generation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pressure-Volume Diagram

A

1st Heart Sound = Mitral valve closes

2nd Heart Sound = Aortic valve closes

… Happen during systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pressure-Volume Diagram: Preload

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pressure-Volume Diagram: Afterload

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Autonomic Effects on Heart

A

Sympathetic stimulation causes increased heart rate, increased contractility, and vascular tone.

Parasympathetic stimulation decreases heart rate markedly and cardiac contractility slightly.

Vagal fibers go mainly to atria.

Fast heart rate (tachycardia) can decrease cardiac output because there is not enough time for heart to fill during diastole.

ANS = viscera efferent (controls the motor function of viscera)… any internal organ

Viscera = plural organs
Viscus = singular organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Venous Return and Cardiac Output Must be Equal

A

Venous return is the quantity of blood flowing from the veins into the right atrium each minute.
… it doesn’t seem to be equal because of how some blood goes to lungs

Cardiac output is the quantity of blood pumped into the aorta each minute by the heart. This is also the quantity of blood that flows through the circulation. Cardiac output is the sum of the blood flows to all the tissues of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Control of Cardiac Output by Venous Return

A

More the heart receives, the more it will pump out

Cardiac output is controlled by venous return. Various factors of the peripheral circulation that affect flow of blood into the heart from the veins are the primary controllers of cardiac output.

Factors:
Muscle Contraction
Gravity
Size of the lumen of the vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Venous Return Curves: Factors Affecting Venous Return

A

Three principal factors that affect venous return to the heart from the systemic circulation:
Right Atrial Pressure, which exerts a backward force on the veins to impede flow of blood from the veins into the right atrium.

Degree of filling of the systemic circulation (measured by the mean systemic filling pressure), which forces the systemic blood toward the heart (this is the pressure measured everywhere in the systemic circulation when all flow of blood is stopped).

Resistance to blood flow between the peripheral vessels and the right atrium (resistance to venous return)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Resistance to Venous Return

A

Two thirds of the so-called resistance to venous return is determined by venous resistance, and about one third is determined by the arteriolar and small artery resistance.

A decrease in this resistance to one-half normal allows twice as much flow of blood and, therefore, rotates the curve upward to twice as great a slope.

Conversely, an increase in resistance to twice normal rotates the curve downward to one-half as great a slope.

Venous Resistance is the #1 effector
Q= 1/R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Normal EKG

A

The P wave immediately precedes atrial contraction.

The QRS complex immediately precedes ventricular contraction.

The ventricles remain contracted until a few milliseconds after the end of the T repolarization wave.

The atria remain contracted until repolarized, but an atrial repolarization wave cannot be seen on the EKG because it is obscured by the QRS wave.

The P-Q or P-R interval on the electrocardiogram has a normal value of 0.16 seconds (0.12–0.20).

It is the duration of time between the beginning of the P wave and the beginning of the QRS wave.
This represents the time between the beginning of atrial contraction and the beginning of ventricular contraction.

The Q-T interval has a normal value of 0.36 seconds (0.36–0.40, QTc ≤ 0.46) and is the duration of time from the beginning of the Q wave to the end of the T wave
This approximates the time of ventricular contraction.

The heart rate can be determined with the reciprocal of the time interval between each heartbeat.

R-R interval = 0.83 sec
Heart rate = (60 sec)/(0.83 sec) = 72 beats/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Flow of Electrical Currents in the Chest Around the Heart

A

Ventricular depolarization starts at the ventricular septum and the endocardial surfaces of the heart.

The average current flows positively from the base of the heart to the apex.

At the very end of depolarization the current reverses from 1/100 second and flows toward the outer walls of the ventricles near the base (S wave).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Vectorial Analysis of EKG

A

The current in the heart flows from the area of depolarization to the polarized areas (from − to +).

The electrical potential generated can be represented by a vector, with the arrowhead pointing in the positive direction.

The length of the vector is proportional to the voltage of the potential.

The generated potential at any instance can be represented by an instantaneous mean vector.

The normal mean QRS vector is about 59 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

P Wave

A

Begins at sinus node and spreads toward A-V node.

This should give a + vector in leads I, II, and III.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Causes of Electrical Axis Deviation: Right

A

Hypertrophy of right ventricle (right axis shift) is caused by pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary valve stenosis, and interventricular septal defect. All cause slightly prolonged QRS and high voltage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

2 Things that Influence BP

A

Amount of Blood

Size of vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What Are the Major Functions of Circulatory System?

A

Transporting nutrients to the tissues

Transporting waste products away from the tissues

Transporting hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What Are the Components of the Circulatory System?

A

Most Blood is in the Venous System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What Is the Function of the Aorta
and Large Arteries?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What Is the Function of Arterioles?

A

Slows the BP as they are smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What Is the Function of Capillaries?

A

Internal Respiration

Small to the size RBCs must go through them 1 by 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What Are the Functions of Large
Veins and Venules?

A

The reservoir of blood

The Pressure is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What Is the Function of the Pulmonary Circulation?

A

Site of gas exchange
External Respiration

Respiratory membrane makes this happen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which Component of the Circulation Has the Largest Total Cross-sectional Area?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which Component of the Circulation Has the Highest Velocity of Blood Flow?

A

Capillaries have smallest velocity of blood

Velocity is inversely proportional to cross sectional area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Blood Pressure Throughout the Circulatory System

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Basic Theory of Circulatory Function

A

Blood flow to tissues is controlled in relation to tissue needs.

Cardiac output is mainly controlled by local tissue flow.

Arterial pressure is controlled independent of either local blood flow control or cardiac output control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What Is Blood Flow?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

There Are Dramatic Variations in Tissue Blood Flow in the Human Body

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What Are the Major Determinants of Blood Flow?

A

Flow is inversely proportional to resistance

Inflammation leads to vasodilation, decrease in resistance, increase in flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Characteristics of Blood Flow In Vessel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Turbulent Blood Flow

A

These causes are the causes of blood clots as well

Murmurs - noises in the heart

Bruits - noises in the vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is Blood Pressure

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Relationship Between Pressure, Flow, and Resistance

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is meant by Resistance in Blood Vessels

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Parallel and Serial Resistance Sites in the Circulation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What Is Vascular Conductance?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How Do Changes in Hematocrit
or Viscosity Effect Blood Flow?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Veins Are Very Distensible!

A

Veins are 8x more distensible than arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What Is Vascular Capacitance?

A

Veins have more capacitance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Volume–Pressure Relationship in the Circulation

A

Any given change in volume within the arterial tree results in larger increases in pressure than in veins.

When veins are constricted large quantities of blood are transferred to the heart thereby increasing cardiac output.

Add more volume of blood to arteries as veins, more pressure in arteries due to their structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What Are Arterial Pulsations?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What Are the Factors That Effect Pulse Pressure? (1 of 2)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What Are the Factors That Effect Pulse Pressure? (2 of 2)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Systolic and Diastolic Pressures in the Peripheral Circulation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Measurement of Systolic and Diastolic Pressures

A

First noise is the Systolic

Once noise disappears, that is diastolic

Result of turbulent blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Measurement of Systolic and Diastolic Pressures

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What Is Central Venous Pressure?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What Are Some Factors That Affect
Central Venous Pressure?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Venous Pressures in the Body

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Venous Valves and “Venous Pump”

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Local Control of Blood Flow

A

Each tissue controls its own blood flow in proportion to its needs.

Tissue needs include:
Delivery of oxygen to tissues
Delivery of nutrients such as glucose, amino acids, etc.
Removal of carbon dioxide hydrogen and other metabolites from the tissues
Transport various hormones and other substances to different tissues

Flow is closely related to metabolic rate of tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Short-Term Control of Blood Flow

A

Increases in tissue metabolism lead to increases in blood flow.

Decreases in oxygen availability to tissues increase tissue blood flow.

Two major theories for local blood flow are
The vasodilator theory
Oxygen demand theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Determinants of Blood Flow

A

Q = ∆P/R

Flow (Q) through a blood vessel is determined by:
The pressure difference (∆P) between the two ends of the vessel

Resistance (R) of the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Vasodilator Theory for
Blood Flow Control

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Effect of Tissue Oxygen Concentration on Blood Flow

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How Do Changes in Tissue Oxygen Concentration Effect blood flow?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Laplace’s Law: Myogenic Mechanism

77
Q

Long-Term Regulation of Blood Flow (1 of 2)

A

OXYGEN IS THE IMPORTANT TAKE AWAY

78
Q

What Is Angiogenesis?

A

Angiogenesis is the growth of new blood vessels.

79
Q

Humoral Regulation of Blood Flow

A

Vasoconstrictors
Norepinephrine and epinephrine
Angiotensin II
Vasopressin
Endothelin

Vasodilator agents
Bradykinin
Serotonin
Histamine
Prostaglandins
Nitric oxide

80
Q

What Role Does the Nervous System Have in Regulation of the Circulation?

A

Modified according to the needs

Redistribution of blood flow

Increasing pumping activity of the heart

Rapid control of arterial pressure

Regulates via the autonomic nervous system (Visceral Efferent or Visceral Motor)
Sympathetic - constrict blood vessels (chronotropic and inotropic effects of the heart)

Parasympathetic - dilate blood vessels

81
Q

The Autonomic Nervous System

A

Sympathetic chain ganglia on left side of spine.

Sympathetic only go to blood vessels

Sympathetic comes from T1 - L5

Parasympathetic comes out of cranial and sacral

Parasympathetic goes to the heart

82
Q

Sympathetic Innervation of Blood Vessels

A

Vaso contrict = increase resistance

83
Q

Vasomotor Center

A

In the brain stem

84
Q

VMC Affects Vessel Function Via Neurotransmitters

A

Postsympathetic fiber and effector organ (LOOK INTO MORE???)

The neurotransmitter for the vasoconstrictor nerves is norepinephrine.

Adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine which constricts blood vessels via alpha adrenergic receptors.

Epinephrine can also dilate vessels through a potent β2 receptor.

85
Q

The Arterial Baroreceptor Reflex

A

Pressoreceptors

86
Q

Anatomy of the Baroreceptors

87
Q

How Do the Baroreceptors Respond to Changes in Arterial Pressure? (1 of 2)

88
Q

Baroreceptors Maintain Relatively Constant Pressure Despite Changes in Body Posture

89
Q

Carotid and Aortic Chemoreceptors

90
Q

How Do Solutes and Fluids Cross the Capillary Wall?

91
Q

Interstitial and Interstitial Fluid

92
Q

How Do Changes in Plasma Colloid Osmotic Pressure Affect Net Fluid Movement Across a Capillary?

A

YOUTUBE THIS MORE!!!

Normal Capillary hydrostatic pressure is approximately 17 mm Hg.

Interstitial fluid pressure in most tissues is negative 3. Encapsulated organs have positive interstitial pressures (+5 to +10 mm Hg).

Negative interstitial fluid pressure is caused by pumping of lymphatic system.

Colloid osmotic pressure is caused by presence of large proteins.

93
Q

What Factors Determine Plasma Colloid Osmotic Pressure?

A

YOUTUBE THIS MORE!!!

94
Q

Taste and Smell

95
Q

Taste Is a Function of the Taste Bud

96
Q

Taste Perception

A

Bitter are located in back of mouth

97
Q

Location of Taste Buds

A

Know they are on Papillae

98
Q

Transmission of Taste Sensations

A

Know the Cranial Nerves

Know the Thalamus purpose in Taste

99
Q

Adaptation of Taste

A

Taste sensations adapt rapidly.

Adaptation of taste buds themselves accounts for only about 50% of the adaptation.

Central adaptation must occur but the mechanism for this is not known.

100
Q

Loss of Taste

101
Q

Smell

A

Least understood of all senses.

Poorly developed in humans.

Olfactory membrane located on the superior part of each nostril.

Contains olfactory cells which contain cilia.

On the cilia are odorant-binding protein receptors.

Binding of chemical odorant to receptor induces the G-protein transduced formation of cAMP which opens sodium channels.

102
Q

From Odorant to Action Potential

A

Substance must be volatile so that it can be sniffed into nostrils.

Substance must be at least slightly water soluble to penetrate the mucus to reach the olfactory cells.

Substance must be at least slightly lipid soluble to interact with the membrane.

Olfactory receptors adapt very slowly. But olfactory sensation itself adapts rather rapidly. Hence, must involve a central mechanism.

103
Q

Primary Sensations of Smell

104
Q

Transmission of Smell Sensation to CNS

A

Located in the temporal cortex

Coming to and from CN I

105
Q

RBCs

A

Biconcave discs

Men: 5,200,000 (±300,000)/mm3

Women: 4,700,000 (±300,000)/mm3

RBC counts can be increased at higher altitudes.

106
Q

Hemoglobin and Hematocrit

A

Normal hemoglobin concentration is 34 g per 100 mL of packed cells.

Normal hematocrit (packed cell volume) is 40–45% (slightly lower in women). KNOW THIS!!!

Thus normal hemoglobin is 14–15 g per 100 mL of blood.

O2 carrying capacity is 1.34 mL/g Hgb, or 19–20 mL O2/100 mL blood.

107
Q

Sites of Erythropoiesis

A

First few weeks of gestation—yolk sac

Mid-trimester—liver (+ spleen, lymph nodes)

Last month of gestation through adulthood—bone marrow

108
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells give rise sequentially to committed stem cells and mature cells.

Driven by
Growth inducers (factors; e.g., interleukin-3)
Differentiation inducers

Hematopoiesis responds to changing conditions.
Hypoxia: erythropoiesis
Infection/inflammation: WBC production

109
Q

Erythropoiesis, and Distinctive Anemias

A

1% of RBCs in the body are Reticulocytes (Retics)… still have organelles in them before Erythrocytes

110
Q

Regulation of Red Blood Cell Mass

111
Q

Tissue Oxygenation and Erythropoietin

A

Body tissue isn’t getting enough O2, body says produce more RBCs to carry more O2

112
Q

Compensatory Polycythemia

A

Sustained hypoxia can result in red cell mass above the usual normal range …
Prolonged stay at high altitude
Lung disease
Heart failure

113
Q

Erythropoietin (Epo)

A

Circulating hormone, mw ~34,000

Necessary for erythropoiesis in response to hypoxia

~90% made in the kidney

Cells of origin not established

Hypoxia → HIF-1 → binds hypoxia 
response element → ↑ Epo transcription

Extra-renal hypoxia can stimulate Epo production …
epinephrine, norepinephrine, and some prostaglandins can promote Epo production.

In anephric individuals, 10% residual Epo (mainly from liver), supports 30–50% needed RBC production …
Hematocrit (packed cell volume) ~23–25% rather than 40–45%

KNOW THIS IS THE HORMONE RESPONSIBLE FOR RBC PRODUCTION AND PRIMARILY PRODUCED IN KIDNEYS

Minutes to hours … ↑ Erythropoietin
New circulating RBCs … ~5 days
Thus, erythropoietin …
stimulates production of proerythroblasts from HSCs
accelerates their maturation into RBCs
Can increase RBC production up to 10× normal
Erythropoietin remains high until normal tissue oxygenation is restored.

114
Q

Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid

A

Rapid, large-scale cellular proliferation requires optimal nutrition.

Cell proliferation requires DNA replication.

Vitamin B12 and folate both are needed to make thymidine triphosphate (and thus DNA).

Abnormal DNA replication causes failure of nuclear maturation and cell division …
→ maturation failure → large, irregular,
fragile “macrocytes”

NEED THESE TO PRODUCE RBCs

115
Q

Formation of Hemoglobin

A

Occurs from proerythroblast through reticulocyte stage

Reticulocytes retain a small amount of endoplasmic reticulum and mRNA, supporting continued hemoglobin synthesis.

116
Q

Types of Globin Chains

A

Each globin chain is associated with one heme group containing one atom of iron.

Each of the four iron atoms can bind loosely with one molecule (two atoms) of oxygen.

Thus each hemoglobin molecule can transport eight oxygen atoms.

117
Q

Differences Among Globin Chains

A

Modest differences in O2 binding affinities

Sickle hemoglobin:
Glutamic acid → Valine at AA 6
(Gives resistance against Malaria)

Hemoglobin of homozygous individuals (SS) forms elongated crystals when exposed to low O2.

→ hemolysis, vascular occlusion

118
Q

Oxygen Binding to Hemoglobin

A

Must be loosely bound—binding in settings of higher O2 concentration, releasing in settings of lower concentration.

Binds loosely with one of the coordination bonds of iron

Carried as molecular oxygen (not as ionic oxygen)

The iron binds to the O2

119
Q

Iron Metabolism

A

Iron is a key component of hemoglobin, myoglobin, and multiple enzymes (cytochromes, cytochrome oxidase, peroxidase, catalase).

Thus iron stores are critically regulated.

Total body iron ~4–5 g
65% in hemoglobin
4% in myoglobin
1% in intracellular heme compounds
0.1% associated with circulating transferrin
15–30% stored mainly as ferritin in RES

120
Q

Iron Absorption, Transport, and Storage

A

Absorbed from small intestine where it binds to apotransferrin → transferrin (transport iron)

Iron can be released to any cell.

RBC precursors have transferrin receptors and actively accumulate iron.

Particularly in hepatocytes and reticulo-endothelial cells, iron combines with apoferritin → ferritin (MW 460,000).

Ferritin is variably saturated (storage iron).

Hemosiderin is quite insoluble excess iron.

When iron in the plasma is low, iron is released from ferritin and bound to transferrin for transport.

It is delivered to the bone marrow, bound by transferrin receptors on erythroblasts, internalized, and delivered directly to the mitochondria for incorporation into heme.

121
Q

RBC Senescence and Destruction

A

RBC life span is ~120 days

Though lacking a nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum, RBCs have enzymes that can metabolize glucose and make small amounts of ATP. These enzymes …
maintain membrane pliability.
support ion transport.
keep iron in the ferrous form (rather than ferric).
inhibit protein oxidation.

As enzymes deplete with age, RBCs become fragile and rupture in small passages, often in the spleen.

122
Q

Destruction of Hemoglobin

A

When RBCs rupture, hemoglobin is phagocytosed by macrophages, particularly in the liver and spleen.

Iron is released back to transferrin in the blood to support erythropoiesis or be stored as ferritin.

Macrophages convert the porphyrin portion, stepwise, into bilirubin, which is released into the blood and secreted by the liver into the bile.

123
Q

The ABO System

A

Red blood cell surface antigens: glycolipids or glycoproteins

Present on all cells in the body, not just blood cells

Agglutinogens: surface antigens (A,B)
Genes: A, B, O (maternal, paternal alleles)
Genotypes: OO, OA, OB, AA, BB, AB

Agglutinins (immunoglobulins): anti-A, anti-B

124
Q

Blood Groups

125
Q

Blood Typing

126
Q

The Rh (rhesus) Antigens

A

Requires prior exposure to incompatible blood

Six common antigens (“Rh factors”)
C, D, E, c, d, e
Each person is CDE, CDe, Cde, CdE, cDE, cDe, or cde

D (“Rh positive”) is prevalent (85% EA, 100% Africans) and particularly antigenic

C and E can also cause transfusion reactions, generally milder

127
Q

HLA Antigens

A

Encoded by the MHC

Six classes, total of >150 antigens expressed on all nucleated cells

MHC Class I: HLA-A, -B, and -C

MHC Class II: HLA-DP, -DQ and –DR

Seek the best match possible among the closest relatives possible

Important to Organ Transplants

128
Q

Hemostasis: Prevention of Blood Loss

A

Vascular constriction

Formation of a platelet plug

Formation of a blood clot

Healing of vascular damage ± recanalization

129
Q

Platelet Recruitment, Adhesion, Activation, and Degranulation

A

Virchow’s triad is a theory that three factors contribute to blood clotting, or thrombosis. The factors are:
Hypercoagulability: The blood’s tendency to clot

Stasis: Abnormal blood flow or pooling

Endothelial injury: Damage to the lining of blood vessels

130
Q

Key Events in Hemostasis

131
Q

Vascular Constriction (Step 1)

A

Myogenic spasm

Local autocoid factors from damaged tissues and platelets

Nervous reflexes

Smaller vessels: thromboxane A2 released by platelets

132
Q

Platelet Functions (Step 2)

A

Contractile capabilities
Actin, myosin, thrombosthenin

Residual ER and Golgi
Synthesize enzymes, prostaglandins, fibrin-stabilizing factor, PDGF, store Ca++

Mitochondria/enzymes
Produce ATP, ADP

133
Q

Formation of the Platelet Plug (Step 2)

A

Contact with damaged endothelium
Assume irregular forms
Contract and release granules (ADP, thromboxane A2)

Adhere to collagen and vWF

Other platelets accumulate, adhere, and contract, form plug, initiate clotting

Very low platelets → petechaiae, bleeding gums

134
Q

Clot Formation and Progression (Step 3)

A

Begins in 15–20 seconds in severe vascular trauma

Occlusive clot within 3–6 minutes unless very large vascular defect

20–60 minutes: Clot retraction

1–2 weeks
Invasion by fibroblasts
Organization into fibrous tissue

135
Q

Key Steps in Blood Clotting

A

Look into this more Youtube!!!

KNOW THIS SLIDE!!!

136
Q

Formation of a Fibrin Clot

A

Makes a mesh work around the platelet plug

This mesh work traps RBCs in it

137
Q

Fibrin Production

A

Thrombin (weak protease) cleaves four small peptides from fibrinogen
→ Fibrin monomer → spontaneous polymerization

Long fibers form clot reticulum

Fibrin stabilizing factor
In plasma and released from platelets
Activated by thrombin
Covalent cross-linking of fibrin monomers and adjacent fibrin fibers

138
Q

Clot Extension

A

Thrombin is bound to platelets and trapped in the clot

Can act on prothrombin to generate more thrombin (positive feedback)

Thrombin also produces more prothrombin activator by acting on other clotting factors

Additional fibrin monomers and polymers are generated at the periphery of the clot

139
Q

Clot Retraction

A

Begins within 20–60 minutes

Fibrin binds to damaged vessel wall

Platelets bind to multiple fibrin fibers

Contract via actin, myosin, thrombosthenin

Clot tightens, expressing serum, and closing the vascular defect

Serum is the blood without the cells and clotting factors, so when the clot retracts it squeezes out what is left… the clear, yellowish fluid = serum

140
Q

Generating Prothrombin Activator

A

Two pathways
Extrinsic pathway—Trauma to vessel wall and adjacent tissues
Intrinsic pathway—Trauma to the blood or exposure of the blood to collagen

Both pathways involve “clotting factors”—mostly inactive proteases that are activated in cascades

141
Q

Extrinsic Pathway to Initiate Blood Clotting

142
Q

Intrinsic Pathway to Initiate Blood Clotting

A

Know the last steps with all the Prothrombin

143
Q

Synergy Between The Intrinsic and Extrinsic Pathways

A

Tissue injury …
Tissue factor activates the Extrinsic Pathway
Exposure of Factor XII and platelets to collagen activates the Intrinsic Pathway

Extrinsic pathway can be explosive, with clotting in <15 seconds

The Intrinsic pathway is slower
→ 1–6 minutes

Common Point is the Prothrombin Activator (Fibrin Strands?)

144
Q

Clot Lysis

A

Plasminogen is trapped in the clot.

Over several days, injured tissues release tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).

Plasminogen is activated to plasmin, a protease resembling trypsin.

Plasmin digests fibrin fibers and several other clotting factors.

Often results in reopening repaired small blood vessels

Vitamin K = big in clotting factors (deficiency is not good)

145
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Low numbers of platelets

146
Q

Blood Coagulation Tests

A

Bleeding Time (from small cut)
Normally 1– 6 minutes
Largely reflects platelet function… they are first on scene

Clotting time
Invert tube every 30 seconds
Normally 6–10 minutes
Not reproducible, generally not used… reflects the coagulation

147
Q

Prothrombin Time

A

Add excess calcium and tissue factor to oxalated blood, measure time to clot

Assesses Extrinsic and Common Pathways

Usually about 12 seconds

148
Q

Defense Against Infection: White Blood Cells and Inflammation

A

Our world is teeming with microorganisms, which can be beneficial or harmful.

Phagocytes can ingest and destroy invading organisms, and participate in tissue reactions that “wall off” infection.

Other white cells (lymphocytes, next chapter) mediate responses that destroy or neutralize specific microorganisms.

149
Q

White Blood Cells

A

Total WBC ~7,000/mm3
(almost 1000-fold fewer than RBCs)

Proportions:
Neutrophils 62%
Eosinophils 2.3%
Basophils 0.4%
Monocytes 5.3%
Lymphocytes 30%
*** Know Neutrophils and Basophils proportions

Platelets
~300,000/mm3

150
Q

Erythrocytes, Neutrophil, Lymphocyte

A

Lymphocyte - the big one with whole nucleus

Neutrophil - horseshoe, multi nucleus

151
Q

Monocyte

152
Q

Basophil

153
Q

Eosinophil

154
Q

Leukopoiesis

A

Granulocytes and monocytes develop in the bone marrow, and most remain there until needed peripherally (number in marrow ~3× blood; 6-day supply).

Lymphocytes develop mostly in the peripheral lymphoid organs (thymus, spleen, tonsils, lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches).

Megakaryocytes develop and reside in the marrow, fragment to release platelets.

155
Q

Functions of Neutrophils and Macrophages

A

Neutrophils are mature cells that can respond immediately to infection.

Monocytes mature in the tissues to become macrophages.

Both exhibit motility:
Diapedesis
Ameboid motion
Chemotaxis (chemoattractants: bacterial or tissue degradation products, complement fragments, other chemical mediators)

156
Q

Neutrophil Margination and Migration

157
Q

Phagocytosis

A

“Phagocytosis” is the ingestion of particles.

Phagocytes must distinguish foreign particles from host tissues.

Appropriate phagocytic targets:
May have rough surfaces
Lack protective protein coats
May be immunologically marked for phagocytosis by antibodies or complement components that are recognized by receptors on the phagocytes
… this immunologic marking is called “opsonization”

158
Q

Phagocytosis by Macrophages

A

After being activated in the tissues, macrophages are extremely effective phagocytes (up to ~100 bacteria).

They can ingest larger particles …
Damaged RBCs
Malarial parasites

Macrophages can extrude digestion products and survive and function for many more months.

In both neutrophils and macrophages, phagosomes fuse with lysosomes and other granules to form phagolysosomes (digestive vesicles).

These contain proteolytic enzymes, and in macrophages, lipases (important in killing tuberculosis bacillus and some other bacteria).

Bacteria may be killed even if they are not digested.

Enzymes in the phagosome or in peroxisomes generate strongly bactericidal reactive oxygen species …
Superoxide (O2−)
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
Hydroxyl ions (OH−)
Myeloperoxidase catalyzes H2O2 + 2Cl− → … … → 2H+ + 2ClO−

After entering the tissues, macrophages become fixed and may be resident for years.

When appropriately stimulated they can break away and move to sites of inflammation.

Circulating monocytes, mobile macrophages, fixed tissue macrophages, and some specialized endothelial cells form the reticuloendothelial system, almost all derived from monocytes.

A phagocytic system is located in all tissues.

159
Q

Specialized Macrophages

A

Skin, subcutaneous (histiocytes)

Lymph nodes
Ingest/sample particles arriving through the lymph

Alveolar macrophages
Digest or entrap inhaled particles and microorganisms

Kupffer cells
Surveillance of the portal circulation

Macrophages in the spleen and bone marrow
Surveillance of the general circulation

160
Q

Inflammation: Role of Neutrophils and Macrophages

A

Inflammation is driven by chemical mediators and characterized by heat, redness, swelling, and pain.

Physiologically, it involves …
vasodilatation and increased blood flow.
increased capillary permeability.
coagulation of interstitial fluids.
accumulation of granulocytes and monocytes.
swelling of tissue cells.

Mediators: histamine, bradykinin, serotonin, prostaglandins, complement products, clotting components, lymphokines

161
Q

“Walling Off” Sites of Inflammation

A

Fibrinogen clots minimize fluid flow in and out of the inflamed area.

Staphylococci cause intense inflammation and are effectively “walled off.”

Streptococci induce less intense inflammation and may be more likely to spread than staphylococci.

162
Q

Neutrophil Migration to a Site of Inflammation

A

Tissue macrophages that encounter foreign particles enlarge and become mobile to provide a first line of defense.

Within an hour neutrophils migrate to the area in response to inflammatory cytokines (TNF, IL-1).

Upregulated selectins and ICAM-1 on endothelial cells are bound by integrins on neutrophils, leading to margination, followed by diapedesis, and chemotaxis directing neutrophils into the inflamed tissues, to kill bacteria and scavenge.

163
Q

Neutrophilia

A

With intense inflammation neutrophil count …
4000–5000 → 15000–25000

Results from mobilization of mature neutrophils from the bone marrow by inflammatory mediators

164
Q

Pus

A

Pus is composed of dead bacteria and neutrophils, many dead macrophages, necrotic tissue that has been degraded by proteases, and tissue fluid, often in a cavity formed at the inflammatory site.

Over days and weeks it is absorbed into the surrounding tissue and lymph and disappears.

165
Q

Eosinophils

A

Eosinophils are weak phagocytes and exhibit chemotaxis.

Particularly important in defense against parasites (schistosomiasis, trichinosis)

Can adhere to parasites and release substances that kill them (hydrolases, reactive oxygen species, major basic protein)

Also accumulate in tissues affected by allergies, perhaps in response to eosinophil chemotactic factor from basophils (eosinophils may detoxify some products of basophils)

166
Q

Basophils

A

Similar to mast cells adjacent to capillaries
both cell types release heparin

Basophils and mast cells both release histamine, bradykinin, and serotonin.

When IgE bound to receptors on their surfaces is cross-linked by its specific antigen, mast cells and basophils degranulate, releasing …
histamine, bradykinin, serotonin, heparin, leukotrienes, and several lysosomal enzymes

167
Q

Leukopenia

A

Leukopenia, or low white blood cell count, is usually the result of reduced production of cells by the bone marrow.

168
Q

Immunity

A

Innate = ability to resist damaging organisms and toxins:
skin, gastric acids, tissue neutrophils and macrophages, complement, microbicidal and lytic chemicals in blood and blood cells

Acquired = specific
humoral → circulating antibodies
cellular → activated cells

169
Q

Acquired Immunity

A

Antibodies or activated cells that specifically target and destroy invading organisms and toxins
(Specificity)

Powerful: can neutralize 100,000 × lethal dose of some toxins

Two types of acquired immunity:
Humoral (B cell ) B Lymphocytes
Cell-mediated (T cell ) T Lymphocytes

170
Q

Antigen

A

A substance that can elicit an immune response

Unique to each invading organism

Usually proteins or large polysaccharides

Most are large (MW > 8,000) and have recurring molecular groups on their surfaces

The molecular structures that are specifically recognized in acquired immunity are called “epitopes.”

171
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Mediate acquired immunity

Develop in lymphoid tissues
Tonsils/adenoids, Peyer’s patches (GI), lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, marrow

Are strategically positioned

172
Q

Lymphocyte Development

A

B Lymphocyte is involved in antibody production

173
Q

Maturation of T Cells in the Thymus

A

Rapid expansion

Each clone is specific for a single antigen.

Self-reactive clones are deleted (up to 90%).

Migrate to peripheral lymphoid organs

Much of the above occurs just before and shortly after birth.

174
Q

B-Cell Development

A

Initial growth and differentiation in the liver (fetal) and bone marrow (after birth)

Migrate to the peripheral lymphoid organs

Each clone is specific for a single antigen.
* Specific to what caused it*

Clonal development provides almost limitless antibody specificity.

Secreted antibodies destroy or neutralize molecules or organisms bearing their cognate antigen.

175
Q

Immunologic Specificity

A

Each B- or T-cell clone is specific for a single epitope of a single antigen.

The genes for B-cell receptors (immuno-globulins) and T cell receptors have hundreds of “cassettes” that are used in varying combinations.

Permutations of these cassettes allow specificity for millions of distinct epitopes.

176
Q

Antibody Production

A

B cells bind intact antigen

T cells bind presented antigenic peptides

B cells proliferate (with T cell help), developing lymphoblasts and plasmablasts

Up to 500 antigen-specific progeny in 4 days, each producing as many as 2,000 Ig molecules/sec

Can persist for many weeks, if antigenic stimulation persists

177
Q

Antibody = Immunoglobulins

A

Each antibody has a steric configuration specific to its antigen.

Two types of light chain - Kappa and lambda

Name antibody based on the Heavy Chain
IgM (earliest produced, five pairs of heavy chains and light chains)

IgG (75% of all immunoglobulins)… produced at 2,3,4th reaction

IgA… found in secretions

IgD… appears to enhance mucosal homeostasis and immune surveillance

IgE (critically involved in allergic reactions)
Immunoglobulins make up about 20% of all plasma proteins. Involved with allergic reaction/hypersensitivity

177
Q

Antibodies: Mechanisms of Action

A

Agglutination

Precipitation - example rheumatoid arthritis, a reaction that occurs when soluble antigens and antibodies combine to form insoluble complexes, also known as precipitates

Neutralization - the process by which antibodies prevent pathogens from binding to host cells. This process blocks the early stages of viral replication and prevents the pathogen from causing disease

Lysis - destroys

Complement activation

178
Q

Agglutination

A

What we see when you mismatch blood = hemagglutination

“Clumping”

179
Q

The Complement System

A

Ultimate result is Lysis

180
Q

T-Cell Activation

A

Binds to cognate antigen presented by antigen-presenting cell

Rapid expansion of T-helper (CD4) cells

T-helper cells produce cytokines.

Drives expansion of both T-helper (CD4) and cytotoxic (CD8) T cells

Both types of cells also generate clonal memory T cells.

181
Q

Antigen Presentation

182
Q

Helper (CD4) T cells

A

~ 75% of all T cells

Regulate functions of other immunologic cells by producing cytokines …
Interleukin (IL-) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, GM-CSF, Interferon-gamma

What HIV kills

183
Q

Killing by Cytotoxic T Cells

A

They recognize the change in the cell by the 3 reasons on picture… so they destroy the cell

184
Q

Immunologic Tolerance

A

Tolerance = we tolerate our cells, we recognize our own cells

“Tolerance” in acquired immunity is achieved mainly by clonal selection of T cells in the thymus and B cells in the bone marrow.
Clones that bind host antigens with high affinity are induced to undergo apoptosis, and are deleted.

Failure of Tolerance Produces Autoimmunity
Rheumatic fever (cross-reactivity with streptococcal antigens)
Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Myasthenia gravis (antibodies to acetylcholine receptors)
Systemic lupus erythematosus (auto-immunity to multiple tissues)

185
Q

Immunization

A

Injecting killed organisms or their products …
Typhoid, whooping cough, diphtheria, tetanus toxoid

Infection with attenuated organisms …
Smallpox, yellow fever, polio, measles, herpes zoster, other viral diseases

Passive immunity …
Infusing antibody or activated T cells from an immune individual (antibodies last 2–3 weeks)

Natural Active - exposed to people out in public and body does the work

Natural Passive - Mother gave it to you with breast milk, given the immunoglobin

Artificial Active - Vaccine

Artificial Passive - Given the immunity, given the immunoglobins in a non-natural way, ex. rabies vaccine

186
Q

Allergy and Hypersensitivity

A

Patient has to be sensitized with the antibody the first time, its not the first bee sting… it was the IgE antibodies that were developed the first time… so when come in contact 2nd time, Mast Cells release histamine and others

T cell mediated (delayed) …
poison ivy, nickel allergies.
usually cutaneous; can occur in lungs with airborne antigens.

IgE mediated (immediate) …
typical allergies.
a single mast cell/basophil can bind 500,000 IgE molecules.

187
Q

Mast Cell/Basophil Degranulation

A

Histamine
Proteases
Leukotrienes
Eosinophil and neutrophil chemotactic factors
Heparin
Platelet activating factor