2016 Practise Test Professional Practice (200 Items) Flashcards
- Which of the following is a basic component of value?
a. Utility; Scarcity
b. Demand coupled with purchasing power
c. Transferability
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
- Social, economic, governmental, and environmental influences that affect property value are called?
a. Laws
b. Factors
c. Forces
d. Consequences
c. Forces
- The term improvements to real estate refers to -
a. Buildings only
b. Trees and buildings
c. Buildings, fences, walkways, etc
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
- Under RA#10752, rights of condemnation is held by -
a. Implementing agency
b. National government agency
c. Utility company
d. Small municipality
a. Implementing agency
- The following are broad forces that affects value, except -
a. Physical
b. Political
c. Intellectual
d. Social
c. Intellectual
- A value estimate is a -
a. Estimate of a selling price
b. Prediction that property will sell for exactly the amount named
c. Projection or extrapolation of historic price to future price
d. Sophisticated guess by expert
a. Estimate of a selling price
- Price and value are
a. Synonymous
b. Not necessarily the same
c. Close together in an inactive market
d. Different, depending on financing terms
b. Not necessarily the same
- Market price is the amount for which a property -
a. Should sell
b. Will sell
c. Was sold
d. Could sell
d. Could sell
- The following statements are true, except -
a. Real property refers to items that are not permanently fixed to a part of the real estate
b. Appraising is the art and science of estimating the value of an asset.
c. Assets typically requiring appraisal include real and personal property.
d. Asset values change with time. Markets change with supply and demand.
a. Real property refers to items that are not permanently fixed to a part of the real estate
- Which type of studies test the ability of various proposed improvements to meet investment objectives?
a. Market
b. Marketability
c. Feasibility
d. Cost-benefit
d. Cost-benefit
- To estimate market value, an appraiser follows the -
a. Appraisal report
b. Evaluation methodology
c. Valuation process
d. Appraisal guidelines
c. Valuation process
- An appraisal of real estate –
a. Guarantees its value
b. Determines its value
c. Assures its value
d. Estimates its value
d. Estimates its value
- Residential appraisers generally provides an estimate of –
a. Market value
b. Market price
c. Assessed value
d. Cash value
a. Market value
- The value of real estate is determined in the market mainly by its -
a. Price
b. Mortgage
c. Productivity
d. Size
c. Productivity
- In subdivision marketing , the sale is considered a paid–up sale when the buyer paid the –
a. Required down payment
b. Fifty percent (50%) of the price
c. Seventy percent (70%) of the price
d. Reservation deposit
a. Required down payment
- Most important document to be checked before buying a subdivision lot -
a. Map
b. Development permit
c. Subdivision plan
d. License to sell
d. License to sell
- Defines the nature of the hypothetical transaction, e.g., whether or not there is exposure to a market and the assumed motivation and behaviour of the parties –
a. Valuation Process
b. Approach to Value
c. Basis of Value
d. Discounting Cash Flow Analysis
c. Basis of Value
- Which principle of value best affirms that values is the present worth of expected future benefits?
a. Supply and Demand
b. Substitution
c. Balance
d. Anticipation
d. Anticipation
- The principle of anticipation –
a. Is future oriented
b. Is past oriented
c. It involves the “as of” date for an appraisal
d. It predicts the loan-to-value ratio for the subject property
a. Is future oriented
- What principle states that value levels are sustained when the various elements in an economic or environmental mix are in equilibrium?
a. Anticipation
b. Substitution
c. Equivalence
d. Balance
d. Balance
- The fundamental valuation principle underlying the sales comparison process is –
a. Contribution
b. Conformity
c. Substitution
d. Change
c. Substitution
- It is a listing where the authorized RE Broker is entitled to commission even if principal was able to closed the deal.
a. Authority to sell
b. Special Power of Attorney
c. Rights of first refusal
d. Exclusive right to sell
d. Exclusive right to sell
- The authority given by the client to the RE Broker to negotiate the sale, purchase, lease, exchange, mortgage of real property for a certain period of time at a certain price and terms with the professional fee –
a. Principal
b. Authority to negotiate
c. Listing
d. Authority to lease
c. Listing
- The rate of return by an investor which does not include allowance for capital recovery is –
a. Cash flow
b. Interest rate
c. Recapture rate
d. Block rate
b. Interest rate
- Situation when there are plenty of buyers and lesser sellers.
a. Buyer’s Market
b. Open market
c. Seller’s Market
d. Flea market
c. Seller’s Market
- A case in which there are plenty of properties for sale with few buyers.
a. Seller’s Market
b. Rental market
c. Lessor’s Market
d. Buyer’s Market
d. Buyer’s Market
- Mr. Paterno Dionisio bought a parcel of land paying a monthly amortization of P150,500. The amortization factor for 5 years at 21% interest is 0.02705. He paid a down-payment of 30% of the contract price, compute the principal obligation on which the monthly obligations is based –
a. P5,545,287
b. P5,150,000
c. P4,880,287
d. P5,544,287
a. P5,545,287 (P150,500/0.02705)
- The type of listing that gives the REBroker the greatest protection.
a. Exclusive agency listing
b. Exclusive right to sell
c. Net listing
d. Multiple listing
Exclusive right to sell
- It is the authority given by the client for the Broker to negotiate the sale, purchase, lease, exchange or mortgage of real estate, for a certain period of time at a certain price and terms for a stipulated rate of commission –
a. Principal
b. Authority to negotiate
c. Listing
d. Authority to lease
c. Listing
- The type of listing that gives the real estate broker the greatest protection.
a. Exclusive agency listing
b. Exclusive right to sell
c. Net listing
d. Multiple listing
b. Exclusive right to sell
- An authority given by developer to a broker to look for a supplier of backfilling materials who shall be paid with developed lots is:
a. Procurement Agency
b. Exchange agency
c. General Brokerage
d. Sales agency
b. Exchange agency
- In both agency and real estate brokerage, the relationship of the principal-owner and that of the Broker is –
a. Federal
b. Fortuitous
c. Fiduciary
d. Cordial
c. Fiduciary
- It is an application of economic techniques to real estate markets which describe, explain and predict patterns of prices, supply and demand
a. Economics
b. Supply and Demand
c. Real Estate Economics
d. Demographics
c. Real Estate Economics
- The most important economic characteristic of real estate is –
a. Area preference
b. Permanence of improvements
c. Scarcity
d. Fixity
a. Area preference
- What is a prospect?
a. A person who has the capacity but without the willingness
b. A person who has the willingness but have no capacity
c. A person who is in need and can afford to buy
d. A person not immediately available but willing to buy
c. A person who is in need and can afford to buy
- The position of trust assumed by the Broker as an agent for the principal is described as:
a. Trusteeship
b. Fiduciary relation
c. Confidential
d. Strictness
b. Fiduciary relation
- The Real Estate Broker is usually authorized to do all of the following acts, except –
a. Advertise the listing
b. Cooperate with other brokers
c. Place “for sale sign” on the property
d. Bind the principle in a contract
d. Bind the principle in a contract
- Which type of broker’s accreditation that clearly states the promotion and selling of projects by developer on an exclusive arrangement?
a. Exchange agency
b. Listing agency
c. Exclusive agency
d. Purchase agency
c. Exclusive agency
- The commission rate for sale of real estate is determined by –
a. Discretion of the seller
b. Standard rate approved by PRC/BTRCP
c. Fixed scale approved by RESCOP
d. Agreement between Broker and Seller
d. Agreement between Broker and Seller
- The following are the requirements for the entitlement of commission, except –
a. Procurement of a ready, willing, and able buyer
b. Authority from the principal
c. The broker must be licensed real estate appraiser
d. Broker closed the sale at authorized terms, price and condition
c. The broker must be licensed real estate appraiser
- The sale of a piece of land when made through an agent whose authority is verbal is –
a. Voidable
b. Rescissible
c. Unenforceable
d. Void
c. Unenforceable
- A contract to sell entered by the Salespersons in the name of the client and subsequently ratified by a licensed Broker who was not granted authority to sell is –
a. Voidable contract
b. Rescissible contract
c. Enforceable contract
d. Void contract
a. Voidable contract
- In preparing an appraisal, definition of the assignment identifies all the following except
a. The date of the value estimate
b. The real estate being appraised
c. The real property right
d. The highest and best use for the property
d. The highest and best use for the property
- The three approaches to estimating value are –
a. Cost, income, and replacement
b. Replacement, income, and reproduction
c. Cost, direct sales comparison and income capitalization
d. Reproduction, cost, and income
c. Cost, direct sales comparison and income capitalization
- The period over which a building may be profitably used is -
a. Actual life
b. Useful life
c. Physical life
d. Effective life
d. Effective life
- An improvement’s remaining economic life is -
a. The future time span over which the improvement is expected to generate benefits
b. Its chronological age
c. Its effective age
d. Its effective age minus its chronological age
d. Its effective age minus its chronological age
- It is one for whom action is to be taken. One who has permitted another to act for his benefit and subject to his direction and control?
a. Agent
b. Buyer
c. Principal
d. Developer
c. Principal
- He is a person with a license to operate that renders and binds himself to some service or to do something in representation or in behalf of another with the consent or authority of the latter.
a. Real Estate
b. Assessor
c. Real Estate Broker
d. Proponent
c. Real Estate Broker
- The scope of brokerage are as follows, but not:
a. Authority to look for a property
b. Engagement to look for a buyer
c. Procurement of insurance for properties secured by real estate
d. Procurement of loans secured by real estate
c. Procurement of insurance for properties secured by real estate
- A broker is entitled to the commission upon -
a. Perfection of the contract
b. Consummation of the sale
c. Presentation of the client
d. Registration of the client
b. Consummation of the sale
- The listing and selling brokers in a real estate transaction split the commission equally. If the commission rate is 6% and the Selling Broker received P36,000. What is the selling price of the property?
a. P3.60M
b. P.800M
c. P.600M
d. P1.20M
d. P1.20M (P36,000/3%)
- A Real Estate Broker can accept commission from both the seller and the buyer, provided-
a. VAT receipts are issued
b. Commission not less than 3%
c. Commission is the same
d. With full knowledge & consent of buyer
d. With full knowledge & consent of buyer
- A stipulation in an authority to sell that entitles the Broker to a commission even beyond the period of authority if the buyer has been registered to principal before the expiration date of the authority –
a. Open, non-exclusive listing
b. Hold over clause
c. Authority to overprice
d. “first come first serve rule”
b. Hold over clause
- Mr. Torres bought a parcel of land, paying monthly amortization of P108,000. The amortization factor for 5 years at 21% interest is 0.02706. He paid a down-payment of 30% of the contract price, compute for contract price (Round off to be nearest figure) –
a. P5.700M
b. P5.702M
c. P5.705M
d. P5.701M
b. P5.702M (P108,000/0.02706/70%)
- The rate of return earned by an investor which does not include allowance for capital recovery is -
a. Discount rate
b. Recapture rate
c. Interest rate
d. Investment rate
b. Recapture rate
- At 18% interest per annum, how much is the interest of P500,000 for 65 days?
a. P15,000
b. P16,250
c. P16,027
d. P90,000
b. P16,250
(P500,000x 18% x 65/360)
- The acquisition of land in advance of actual need based on present value for future planned development is referred to under the Urban Land Reform Law as –
a. Urban Renewal
b. Land Banking
c. Land Assembly
d. New Settlement
b. Land Banking
- Government agencies mandated to regulate environment –
a. NHA; DENR; DAR
b. DENR; HLURB; LGU
c. UHLP; DPWH; LGU
d. Sanggunian Panlalawigan; NHA; DENR
b. DENR; HLURB; LGU
- A center in the primate region of the country that operates in accordance with RA#7279 -Urban Development and Housing Act of 1992 and Executive Order#184 covering its implementing rules and regulation for this operational function –
a. Socialized house on per capita
b. Socialized Housing One-Stop Processing Center
c. Social Housing One Processing Center
d. Socialized House One-Stop Process Center
b. Socialized Housing One-Stop Processing Center
- A written authorization to develop or use certain areas of any parcel of land based on approve land use plan or zoning ordinance or in the absence of such ordinance, could be based on HLURB planning standards & guidelines.
a. Locational clearance
b. Zoning clearance
c. Situational clearance
d. Ordinance clearance
a. Locational clearance
- Law enacted providing for the preparations and implementation of the Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of LGUs pursuant to the RA#7160 & other pertinent law.
a. Executive Order No. 71
b. Executive Order No. 72
c. Executive Order No. 72
d. Executive Order No. 74
b. Executive Order No. 72
- Under the Urban Land Reform Law (PD 1517), an area is considered urban when it has a population density of at least ____ and where 50% of economically active residents are engaged in non-agricultural activities.
a. 500 residents per square kilometer
b. 1,500 residents per square kilometer
c. 1,000 residents per square kilometer
d. 2,000 residents per square kilometer
c. 1,000 residents per square kilometer
- It refers to the guidelines that prescribe compliance of Sec. 20 of RA#7160, authorizing cities/ municipalities to reclassify land into non-agricultural uses.
a. Executive Order No. 72
b. Executive Order No.71
c. Memorandum Circular No. 54
d. Memorandum Circular No. 52
c. Memorandum Circular No. 54
- Directive that establishes priorities and procedures in evaluating areas for land conversion in regional agricultural industrial centers, tourism development, areas sites for socialized housing.
a. Executive Order No. 124
b. Executive Order No. 110
c. Executive Order No. 122
d. Executive Order No. 124
a. Executive Order No. 124
- Refers to the provision of the law that directs the LGUs to continue to prepare their respective comprehensive land use plans enacted through a zoning ordinance.
a. Executive Order No. 124
b. Sec 8, RA#7279
c. Memorandum Circular n. 54
d. Sec 20 RA#7160
d. Sec 20 RA#7160
- A city or municipality, through an ordinance passed by the Sanggunian after conducting public hearings may ____ lands.
a. Classify
b. Convert
c. Reclassify
d. Transform
c. Reclassify
- The ___ shall determine if a particular land ceases to be economically and sound for agricultural purpose.
a. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
b. Registry of Deeds
c. Department of Agrarian Reform
d. National Housing Authority
c. Department of Agrarian Reform
- DENR Administrative Order No. 96-37 dated December 3, 1996 has revised DENR Administrative Order no. 21 series of 1992 to further strengthen the implementation of –
a. Environmental Statement Impact
b. Environmental Impact Statement
c. Environmental Monetary Fund
d. Environmentally Critical Area
b. Environmental Impact Statement
- Refers to a activities that has high potential for significant negative environmental impact and is listed under PP No. 2146, series of 1981 and Pres. No. 803, series of 1996, as well as other projects which the President may proclaim as environmentally critical in accordance with Sec 4 of PD 1586 –
a. Environmentally critical proposal
b. Environmentally critical proponents
c. Environmentally critical projects
d. Environmentally critical undertaking
c. Environmentally critical projects
- A detailed guide on the procedures to be observed by the parties concerned in the Environmental Impact Statement System. It shall include guidelines on public participation and social acceptability, the EIS/ IEE review criteria in accordance with Section 4 of PD 1586.
a. Environmental impact Assessment
b. Environmental Monitoring Manual
c. Environmental Impact Statement Procedural Manual
d. Environmental Impact Assessment Procedures
c. Environmental Impact Statement Procedural Manua
- Refers to a document issued by the EMB certifying that based on submitted descriptions the project is not covered by the EIS System and is not required to secure an Environmental Compliance Certificate (ECC).
a. Certificate of Non-Coverage
b. Certificate of Non- Compliance
c. Certificate of Exemption
d. Certificate from EMB
a. Certificate of Non-Coverage
- Refers to a document allowing Proponent to undertake particular critical project in a critical area with various conditions -
a. Environmental Project Permit
b. Environmental Certificate of Compliance
c. Environmental Permit on Project
d. Environmental Compliance Certificate
d. Environmental Compliance Certificate
- Refers to project declared thru Proclamation No. 2146 & Proclamation No. 803 which may pose significant negative environmental impact at certain thresholds of operations regardless of location.
a. Environmental Critical Projects
b. Environmental Critical Activities
c. Environmental Critical Areas
d. Environmental Critical Operations
a. Environmental Critical Projects
- A general area declared thru Proclamation No. 2146 as environmentally sensitive of which significant environmental impacts are expected if certain types/thresholds of proposed project are located, developed or implemented on it.
a. Environmental Critical Development
b. Environmental Critical Areas
c. Environmental Critical District
d. Environmental Critical Operations
b. Environmental Critical Areas
- Refers to the guidelines on updating technical descriptions of Environmental Critical Areas as implemented by DENR-EMB –
a. Section 1 of AO#40
b. Section 3 of AO#43
c. Section 2 of AO#41
d. Section 2 of AO#42
d. Section 2 of AO#42
- Ecology could be synonymous to -
a. Natural Environment
b. Natural Resources
c. Interaction
d. Interrelationship
a. Natural Environment
- The following are covered by DENR EO No. 192 dated June 10, 1987, except -
a. Conservation management
b. Development of country’s environment
c. Development of food supplement
d. Proper use of country’s natural resources
c. Development of food supplement
- The following are Environmental Critical projects, except -
a. Infrastructure projects
b. Heavy & Resource extractive industries
c. Golf course
d. Football field
d. Football field
- The following are Environmental Critical areas, except –
a. Area of scientific interest& critical slope area,
b. With critical slopes& prime agricultural land
c. Prime agricultural land & potential tourist spots
d. Potential tourist spot & ravines
d. Potential tourist spot & ravines
- The following activities belongs to zoning, except -
a. Divides community into districts & imposes different land use control.
b. Specify allowed use of land use of land & building and intensity density of each use.
c. Imposes curfew areas
d. Specify numbers of buildings allowable per particular areas
c. Imposes curfew areas