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CVS Exams > 2014 Module Exam > Flashcards

2014 Module Exam Flashcards

1
Q

a patient being treated for Heart failure comes with an enlarged swollen breast ‎what is the cause of this side effect?

A) digoxin

B) angiotensin receptor blocker

C) aldosterone blocker

D) beta blocker

E) angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

A

C) aldosterone blocker

(Spironolactone is known to cause more gynecomastia or breast pain)

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2
Q

What is the condition that increases with age?

‎A) Ventricular fibrillation

‎B) Atrial fibrillation

‎C) Sinus bradycardia

‎D) Sinus tachycardia

A

‎B) Atrial fibrillation

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3
Q

what corresponds to the S1 sound?

‎A) it indicates the aortic valve closure

B) The physiological split of S1 is usually heard

C) It can be heard in the apical part of the heart

D) It indicates the pulmonary valve closure

E) it can be heard in the 2nd right intercostal space

A

C) It can be heard in the apical part of the heart

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4
Q

aortic valve opens when the interventricular pressure is 90 mmHg the stroke volume was 70 mL. If the aortic compliance is 1 ml/mmHg and 50% of the stroke volume was stored in the aorta what is the systolic blood pressure?

A) 125

B) 150

C) 143

A

A) 125

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5
Q

Which structure of streptococcus pyogens mimic the heart antigens in the host?

‎‎A) flagella

B) M protein

‎C) polysaccharide capsule

A

B) M protein

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6
Q

a person with resting cardiac output 5.04 L/min if the EDV=150 ml and ESV=50 ml. what is his Heart rate?

‎A)50

‎B)100

‎C)25

A

‎A)50

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7
Q

In the of Endothelial dysfunction in coronary artery which of the following abnormalities can occur?

‎A) increased diastolic Reactive hyperemia

‎B) Inhibited platelet aggregation

‎C) Decreased coronary vascular tone

‎D) Acetylcholine mediated coronary spasm

A

‎D) Acetylcholine mediated coronary spasm

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8
Q

What passes along the inferior border of the heart?

A) right marginal

‎B) left marginal

‎C) nodal artery

D) posterior descending artery

E) left anterior descending

F) diagonal

‎G) left coronary artery

‎H) circumflex artery

A

A) right marginal

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9
Q

Is a direct branch of the left anterior descending artery.

A) right marginal

‎B) left marginal

‎C) nodal artery

D) posterior descending artery

E) left anterior descending

F) diagonal

‎G) left coronary artery

‎H) circumflex artery

A

F) diagonal

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10
Q

Which of the following is commonly present in physically fit individuals?

A) sinus tachycardia

B) atrial flutter

C) atrial fibrillation

D) Ventricular fibrillation

E) Sinus bradycardia

A

E) Sinus bradycardia

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11
Q

Pathophysiology of Atrial Fibrillation

A) Atrioventricular accessory pathway

B) AV node reentry

C) Micro reentry

D) Early afterdepolarization

E) Late afterdepolarization

A

C) Micro reentry

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12
Q

Pathophysiology of Supraventricular Tachyarrhythmia

A) Atrioventricular accessory pathway

B) AV node reentry

C) Micro reentry

D) Early afterdepolarization

E) Late afterdepolarization

A

B) AV node reentry

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13
Q

Which aneurysm affects the ascending aorta and the arch of the aorta?

‎A) Takayasu Arteritis

B) Mycotic aneurysm

C) Dissecting aneurysm

D) Syphilitic aneurysm

E) Polyartritis nodosa

A

D) Syphilitic aneurysm

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14
Q

Which aneurysm associated with cystic medial necrosis?

‎A)beery aneurysm

‎B)dissecting aneurysm

C)syphilitic aneurysms

A

‎B)dissecting aneurysm

Cystic medial necrosis weaken artery wall

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15
Q

Which of the following is the last to repolarize?

‎A)SA node

‎B)AV node

‎C)purkinje fibers

‎D)ventricular septal

A

‎C)purkinje fibers

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16
Q

After examination a patient was found to have increased systolic blood pressure and low diastolic blood pressure with a pulse rate of (66 mmHg). Upon further examination he was found to have severe anemia what is the reason behind the high pulse rate?

‎A)decrease the compliance of aortic

‎B)decrease the systemic vascular resistance

‎C)decrease heart rate

A

B)decrease the systemic vascular resistance

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17
Q

A 67 years old male with long standing hypertension. A kidney biopsy was done which of the following is most likely to be found?

A) Glomerulonephritis

B) Arterial hyalinosis

A

B) Arterial hyalinosis

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18
Q

Which of the following is a cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Chronic usage of NSAIDs or (Chronic use of Steroids)

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19
Q

Which of the following drugs predisposes to heart failure and pulmonary edema and leads to water retention?

A) NSAIDs

B) Calcium channel blockers

A

A) NSAIDs

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20
Q

which of the following drugs has least evidence suggesting its effectiveness in heart failure?

A) digoxin

B) diuretics

C) calcium channel blockers

A

C) calcium channel blockers

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21
Q

which of the following is marked by S1 sound?

A) isovolumic contraction

B) AV valves closure

A

B) AV valves closure

(the one in the model answer is B but both were counted correct)

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22
Q

Decrease in ventricular pressure, decrease in aortic pressure and a gradual increase in atrial pressure.

A) isovolumic relaxation

B) Reduced ejection

A

B) Reduced ejection

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23
Q

diagnose

A

An ECG showing compensatory pause

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24
Q

a 34-year-old male presented with fever, splinter hemorrhage, heart murmurs upon auscultation. Knowing that he has a history of Drug addiction (IV drug abusing) what is the thing that explains his symptoms?

A

Large vegetation on mitral and pulmonary valves

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25
Q

What is associated in the formation of the wall of the right atrium?

A) Primordial ventricle

B) Sinus venosus

C) Bulbous cordis

D) Endocardial cushion

A

B) Sinus venosus

(there was no primitive atrium)

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26
Q

increases in number in hypertensive patients

A) internal elastic lamina

B) Collagen fibers

C) Smooth muscle cells

D) Endothelium

E) elastic lamella

A

E) elastic lamella

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27
Q

limits the distention of arterial wall

‎A) internal elastic lamina

B) Collagen fibers

C) Smooth muscle cells

D) Endothelium

E) elastic lamella

A

B) Collagen fibers

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28
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of large veins?

A

has Longitudinally arranged Vascular smooth muscle cells

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29
Q

What helps in the diffusion of substances in large arteries?

A

Fenestrated elastic lamella of large arteries

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30
Q

The resting membrane potential in pacemaker cells is -60 and in ventricular myocytes is -85. What is the reason behind the difference between the two?

‎A) the K+ gradient across the membrane is stronger in ventricular myocytes

B) Lack of inward rectifier K channels in packmaker cells

‎‎C) ventricular myocytes lack HCN channels

A

‎‎C) ventricular myocytes lack HCN channels

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31
Q

in the case of acute coronary MI what is the first thing to appear on the ECG?

‎A) Q wave

‎B) T wave inversion

C) peaked T wave

‎‎D) ST elevation

A

‎‎D) ST elevation

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32
Q

What is the cause of rapid ejection phase?

‎A) Increased intraventricular pressure

‎B) Closure of mitral valve

C) ‎Increased aortic pressure

‎D) Decreased aortic blood flow

A

‎A) Increased intraventricular pressure

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33
Q

what is the origin of the cervical sympathetic nerve supply of the heart?

‎A) C 3-5 cervical

‎B) T1-5 spinal thoracic

‎C) T6-10 spinal thoracic

‎D) Vagus

A

‎B) T1-5 spinal thoracic

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34
Q

The Ejection fraction (EF) is a parameter of ventricular function. Which of the following statements is considered true?

‎A) Ejection fraction is equal to stroke volume - EDV

‎B) Considered abnormal if less than 50%

C) The lower the ejection fraction the better the prognosis

A

‎B) Considered abnormal if less than 50%

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35
Q

a child presents with MI, inflamed oral mucosa, enlarged cervical lymph nodes.

‎A) giant cell arteritis

‎B) takayasu arteritis

‎C) polyarteritis nodosa

‎D) kawasaki disease

‎E) Wegener Granulomatosis

F) Churg Strauss Syndrome

G) Leukocytoclastic Vasculitis

‎H) Thromboangiitis obliterans

A

D) kawasaki disease

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36
Q

Originates from the ascending aorta

‎A) right marginal

B) posterior descending artery

C) left anterior descending

D) diagonal

‎E) circumflex artery

F) right coronary artery

A

F) right coronary artery

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37
Q

Indicated in patients with supraventricular tachycardia to sinus rhythm.

‎A) Beta blocker

‎B) ARBs

‎C) ACEI

D) ‎Warfarin

‎E) Digoxin

‎F) Carotid sinus massage

G) ‎Temporary pacemaker

H) ‎IV lidocaine

A

‎F) Carotid sinus massage

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38
Q

Which of the following is mainly responsible for myocardial contraction?

‎A) KATP channel

‎B) SERCA

‎C) Cl channel

‎D) L- type Ca channel

A

‎D) L- type Ca channel

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39
Q

After depolarization is present in which of the following arrhythmic mechanisms?

‎A)re-entry

‎B) bi- directional block

‎C) enhanced automaticity

‎D) triggered activity

‎E) Overdrive suppression

A

‎D) triggered activity

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40
Q

a 55 year old woman with a heart condition. Upon auscultation the doctor heard a pansystolic murmur at apex. What is her diagnosis?

‎A) Aortic stenosis

‎B) ‎Mitral regurgitation

C) ‎Aortic regurgitation

‎D) Pulmonary stenosis

A

‎B) ‎Mitral regurgitation

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41
Q

What is the best treatment for a 62 year old man suffering from diabtic nepropathy due to hypertension and diabetes mellitus?

‎A) captopril

‎B) aspirin

‎C) ranolazine

D) thiazide

A

‎A) captopril

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42
Q

Associated with ejection systolic murmur

A) Mitral stenosis

B) Aortic regurgitation

C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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43
Q

Low oxygen and high CO2 levels concentrations stimulate the glomus cells in the carotid body. What nerve carries the afferent stimulus to the brain?

‎A) Cranial accessory

‎B) Facial

‎C) Glossopharyngeal

‎D) Vagus

‎E) Vestibuochelar

A

‎C) Glossopharyngeal

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44
Q

A man came to the ER complaining of dizziness spells. He had previously been taking a beta blocker and a calcium blocker for his hypertension, and he presented with 3rd degree AV block (heart block). What will you do for him?

‎A) Electric shock

‎B) IV nitrate

‎C) Bed rest

‎D) Temporary Pacemaker

‎E) Hold on his current medications and monitor his heart rhythm and rate

A

‎D) Temporary Pacemaker

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45
Q

An ECG picture:

‎a) 1st degree AV block

‎b) short QT interval

‎c) T-wave inversion

‎d) ST depression

A

‎c) T-wave inversion

*This picture is from the web, not the exam

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46
Q

Why doesn’t flecainide concentration correlate with its therapeutic action?

‎A) highly bound to plasma proteins and does not dissociate easily

‎B) excreted unchanged in urine

‎C) strongly metabolized by oral administrations

‎D) highly concentrated in cardiac muscle

A

‎D) highly concentrated in cardiac muscle

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47
Q

Where does the ventricular repolarization begin?

‎A) purkinje

‎B) endocardial

‎C) epicardium

A

‎C) epicardium

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48
Q

Which of the following best describes the effect of amlodipine?

‎A) Ca channel blockers

‎B) Beta blockers

‎C) Angiotensin inhibitor

A

‎A) Ca channel blockers

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49
Q

Patient suffering from acute anterior wall MI. What is the correct ECG recording?

‎A) St segment elevation in lead II, III, aVF

‎B) St segment elevation in v2 to v5

‎C) 3 mm st depression in v3 to v5

‎D) Low voltage in chest leads

‎E) irregular qrs complex

‎F) Q wave in v2 and v3

‎G) St elevation in all leads

‎H) Prolonged pr interval

A

‎B) St segment elevation in v2 to v5

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50
Q

which of the following parameters increases as a consequence of an increased afterload?

‎A) myocyte shortening

‎B) ejection fraction

‎C) end diastolic volume

‎D) speed of ejection

‎E) stroke volume

A

‎C) end diastolic volume

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51
Q

What class of anti-anginal drugs causes postural hypotension as an adverse drug reaction?

A) Organic nitrates

B) beta-adrenoceptor blocker

A

A) Organic nitrates

52
Q

What causes an increase in heart rate?

‎A) Cervical Sympathetic Nerve

‎B) Splancic Nerve

‎C) Phrenic Nerve

‎D) Vagus Nerve

A

‎A) Cervical Sympathetic Nerve

53
Q

A study enrolled 459 people who sustained a myocardial infarction and 459 people without myocardial infarction matching the age. They then inquired about family history of cardiac disease. Which measure of association can be used in this study?

A) odds ratio

B) cumulative incidence

C) incidence

D) relative risk

E) relative rate

F) prevalence

A

A) odds ratio

54
Q

A study randomly selected 1023 high school students from Hawally governate and then assessed the smoking status amongst the students. Which measure of disease occurrence can this study produce?

A) odds ratio

B) cumulative incidence

C) incidence

D) relative risk

E) relative rate

F) prevalence

A

F) prevalence

55
Q

A person who is normotensive (without hypertension) at age 65. What is his risk for him to develop Hypertension?

A)75-79%

B) >80%

C)65%

D)10%

A

B) >80%

56
Q

Researches indicate the effect of controlling glucose levels on microvascular and macrovascular diseases reducing the risk of CHD?

A

C

57
Q

What changes are seen in post transition countries?

A) Low mortality, high fertility, infectious diseases

B) Low Mortality, low fertility, and chronic diseases

C) High mortality, low fertility, chronic diseases

D) High mortality, high fertility. Infectious diseases

A

B) Low Mortality, low fertility, and chronic diseases

58
Q

What phases are affected when Verapamil is administered?

A) Phase 2 and Phase 4

B) Phase 2 and phase 0

C) Phase 4 and phase 0

A

A) Phase 2 and Phase 4

(or B)

59
Q

What is the sarcomere length that gives the optimal myosin-actin overlap?

A

1

60
Q

What is the effect of neprilysin inhibition?

A

Decreases arterial blood pressure

61
Q

Which of the following has the fastest spontaneous diastolic depolarization?

A) AV node

B) internodal tract

C) sinoatrial node

D) purkinje

A

C) sinoatrial node

62
Q

During stress ECG test, what indicates ischemia?

A) dizziness
B) fatigue
C) Rise in blood pressure
D) drop in blood pressure

A

D) drop in blood pressure

63
Q

What is the mechanism of action of amironone?
A) inhibits membrane Na+/K+ ATPase

B) prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

C) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

D) selective adrenoceptor antagonist

A

C) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

64
Q

How do bacteria bind to a thrombus on the valve?

A

Dextran

65
Q

How does norepinephrine causes vasoconstriction?

A) Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor
B) Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor
C) Beta 1 adrenergic receptor
D) Beta 2 adrenergic receptor

A

A) Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor

66
Q

Splitting in the arterial wall and forming two lumens, a true lumen and a false lumen.

A

Aortic dissection

67
Q

Granulomatous vasculitis in an old woman and causes blindness if not treated.

‎A) takayasu arteritis

‎B) polyarteritis nodosa

‎C) kawasaki disease

D) giant cell arteritis

‎E) Wegener Granulomatosis

‎F) Churg Strauss Syndrome

A

D) giant cell arteritis

68
Q

Necrotizing arteritis of renal, mesenteric, and skin of medium sized vessels leading to micro aneurysms.

A) takayasu arteritis

‎B) polyarteritis nodosa

‎C) kawasaki disease

D) giant cell arteritis

‎E) wegener Granulomatosis

‎F) churg Strauss syndrome

A

‎B) polyarteritis nodosa

69
Q

A patient has 50% occlusion of his Left Anterior Descending artery. By how much is the blood flow reduced? Or if the opening of atrioventricular valve reduced by 50%, how much pressure does the atrium need to produce to generate enough difference in pressure to maintain blood flow from the atrium to the ventricle?

A) 16-folds

B) 8-folds

A

A) 16-folds

70
Q

What is the gross appearance of benign hypertensive nephrosclerosis?

A) Pinpoint petechial hemorrhages on the cortical surface “flea-bitten” appearance

B) Fine granular outer surface

A

B) Fine granular outer surface

71
Q

What is the complication of chronic hypertension?

A) Cerebrovascular event (Stroke)
B) Increased intracranial pressure

A

A) Cerebrovascular event (Stroke)

72
Q

What is the most common cause of death in patients with heart failure?

A

Myocardial arrhythmia

73
Q

What is the best treatment for a patient with chronic stable angina?

A) Treat the patient’s hypertension

B) Coronary angiogram

C) Administration of amiodarone

A

A) Treat the patient’s hypertension

74
Q

Aneurysm in an old woman who is known to be a case of Marfan’s syndrome.

A) Syphilitic aneurysms

B) Berry Aneurysm

C) pseudo aneurysm

D) Dissecting aneurysm

E) Mycotic aneurysms

A

D) Dissecting aneurysm

75
Q

Aneurysm with cystic medial necrosis

A) Syphilitic aneurysms

B) Dissecting aneurysm

C) pseudo aneurysm

D) Berry Aneurysm

E) Mycotic aneurysms

A

B) Dissecting aneurysm

76
Q

Partial occlusion of coronary arteries by a plaque causing 70% stenosis

A

Stable Angina

77
Q

70% occlusion of Coronary artery by a thrombus following a plaque rupture

A

Unstable angina

78
Q

What drug causes lower limbs edema?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

79
Q

A patient had an Infection seen after a recent prosthetic aortic valve replacement, and he developed infective endocarditis. What is the causative organism?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Viridans streptococci

C) Coxiella burnetii

D) Staphylococcus epidermis

E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

F) Candida

A

D) Staphylococcus epidermis

80
Q

What is the mechanism of action of alisikrin?

A) inhibits membrane Na+/K+ ATPase

B) blocking the binding of aldosterone

C) Renin inhibitor

D) Increase the excretion of sodium and water

E) prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

A

C) Renin inhibitor

81
Q

Myxomatous degeneration in 35 year old asymptomatic woman.

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse

82
Q

What is the impact of glycosylation of LDL in diabetic patients?

A

Impairs the clearance of LDL

83
Q

Which of the following is responsible for lowering the concentration of 1L-1β in high intracellular cholesterol conditions?

A) LOX

A) LXR

A

A) LXR

84
Q

Which of the following coincides with “good cholesterol turns bad’?

A

Oxidized HDL becomes pro inflammatory

85
Q

Which gene is specific risk of human MI and atherosclerosis as stated in Quantitative Trait Loci?

A) ALOX5AP (5-Lipoxygenase Activating Protein)

B) ALOX5 (arachidonic acid 5- lipoxygenase)

A

A) ALOX5AP (5-Lipoxygenase Activating Protein)

86
Q

in the case of a cholesterol rich diet.

A) Down regulation of LDL receptors

B) Suppression of transcription of ApoE receptor

A

A) Down regulation of LDL receptors

87
Q

Which of the following act on fibrin bound and fibrin free plasminogen?

A

Streptokinase

88
Q

Which drug has no on the action potential of atrial myocytes?

A

Lidocaine

89
Q

A 65 year old women who had colectomy for colon cancer

A) staph aureus

B) staph epidermidis

C) brucella mellitenus

D) enterococcus fecalis

E) coxiella burnetti

F) legionella pneumophila

G) ekinella

H) kingella

A

D) enterococcus fecalis

90
Q

A farmer who ate cheese from unpasteurized milk

A) staph aureus

B) staph epidermidis

C) brucella mellitenus

D) enterococcus fecalis

E) coxiella burnetti

F) legionella pneumophila

G) ekinella

H) kingella

A

C) brucella mellitenus

91
Q

Intravenous drug addict

A) staph aureus

B) staph epidermidis

C) brucella mellitenus

D) enterococcus fecalis

E) coxiella burnetti

F) legionella pneumophila

G) ekinella

H) kingella

A

A) staph aureus

92
Q

What causes volume overload?

A) Aortic stenosis

B) Mitral regurgitation

C) Mitral stenosis

A

B) Mitral regurgitation

93
Q

What is the first step in the development of atherosclerosis?

A

Endothelial dysfunction

94
Q

A patient with cutaneous rash and palpable purpura. What causes this condition?

A) giant cell arteritis

‎B) takayasu arteritis

‎C) polyarteritis nodosa

‎D) kawasaki disease

‎E) Wegener Granulomatosis

F) Leukocyoclastic Vasculitis

‎H) thromboangiitis obliterans

A

F) Leukocyoclastic Vasculitis

95
Q

Which drug causes myopathy as an adverse effect?

A

Lovastatin

96
Q

Arteriole with concentric laminated “onion appearance” thickening of the walls with luminal narrowing seen in a patient with uncontrolled hypertension?

A

Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis

97
Q

A patient presented with generalized edema all over his body. What is the cause?

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

98
Q

An old man presents with accelerated hypertension and renal failure. What would you see in the kidneys?

A

Fibrinoid necrosis

99
Q

A patient has a diastolic murmur that is early and heard at the left sternal border. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Aortic Regurgitation

100
Q

Which aneurysm is due to bacterial endocarditis, tuberculous, and bacterial abscess?

A) Syphilitic aneurysms

B) Dissecting aneurysm

C) pseudo aneurysm

D) Berry Aneurysm

E) Mycotic aneurysms

A

E) Mycotic aneurysms

101
Q

Which of the following has the highest blood flow during systole?

A) Epicardium

B) Mid-myocardium

C) Endocardium

D) Papillary muscle

A

A) Epicardium

102
Q

A women with severe adverse cardiac events while taking Clopidogrel, which gene does she mostly carry that causes these major Adverse Side Effects?

A) CYP2C19*2

B) CYP2C19*17

A

A) CYP2C19*2

103
Q

In exam= inverted p wave + high rate

A

Ectopic Atrial tachycardia

104
Q
A

Hyperkalemia

105
Q

Which of the following cause dry cough as a side effect?

A) Aliskiren

B) Captopril

C) Losartan

D) Amlodipine

A

B) Captopril

106
Q

which of the following decrease bile acid salt absorption in the intestine?

A) Simvastatin

B) Clofibrate

C) Cholestyramine

D) Nicotinic Acid

A

C) Cholestyramine

107
Q

what is the mechanism of action of ticlopidine?

A) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase

B) Inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation

C) Block fibrinogen-mediated cross linkage via GPIIb/IIIa receptors.

A

B) Inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation

108
Q

Why does Niacin cause weight gain?

A

Inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissues

109
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Ranolazine?

A) selectively inhibiting the sinus node I(f) pacemaking current

B) Inhibition of the (late phase) of the Sodium current

C) stimulates ATP-sensitive potassium channels (KATP) in vascular smooth muscle

A

B) Inhibition of the (late phase) of the Sodium current

110
Q

moves across along the same ventricular function curve.
A) Venous Return
B) Sarcomere Length
C) End systolic volume

A

B) Sarcomere Length

(The one in the model answer is B but all these 3 were counted correct)

111
Q

Shifts the curve operating point to another ventricular function curve

A

sensitivity to troponin TnC

112
Q

Which of the following causes a complete right shift in the Pressure Volume curve?

A) Heart Failure

B) Myocardial infarction

C) hemorrhage

A

A) Heart Failure

113
Q

A football player was hit by a football and passed out, he was rushed to the hospital. His blood pressure was 243/127, his heart rate was slow (50 beats per minute), and his respiratory rate was fluctuating (between 10 and 18). Later on his blood pressure was fluctuating around 210-230. What is the physiological phenomenon is responsible for this?

A

Cushing Reflex

114
Q

Increases end diastolic volume and stroke volume

A) ventricular fibrillation

B) increased preload

C) increased afterload

D) increased inotropy

E) rapid ejection

F) decreased filling

G) decreased CO

H) atrial fibrillation

A

B) increased preload

115
Q

Increases end systolic volume and decreases stroke volume

A) ventricular fibrillation

B) increased preload

C) increased afterload

D) increased inotropy

E) rapid ejection

F) decreased filling

G) decreased CO

H) atrial fibrillation

A

C) increased afterload

116
Q

What is true regarding the Framingham Risk score?

A

It calculates the 10 year risk for developing CVD (Cardiac event)

117
Q

Which of the following is an action of angiotensin II?

A

Aldosterone

118
Q

A man with sever cheat pain, acute pericarditis and diagnosed with MI, and died after 4 days. On autopsy, they found blood in the pericardium. Which of the following is most likely found in the patient blood?

A

Necrosis of myocardium wall and neutrophils

119
Q

in (67%) of the population the right coronary artery is dominant. In case of left coronary artery occlusion what would be spared?

A) AV bundle

B) SA node

C) Left surface of the heart

D) Anterior 2/3 of intraventricular septum

A

B) SA node

120
Q

A patient with fever has large friable vegetation on the endocardium surface of the valve, what is the diagnosis?

A) Acute Infective endocarditis

B) Subacute infective endocarditis

C) Acute Rheumatic fever

A

A) Acute Infective endocarditis

121
Q

A patient presented with signs of heart failure and EF<10%, which of the following does the patient suffer from?

A) Diastolic failure

B) Systolic failure

A

B) Systolic failure

122
Q

what is the first line treatment for Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?

A) ACEI

B) Diuretics

A

A) ACEI

123
Q

Which of the following causes HF with reduced EF/Systolic dysfunction?

A) Dilated cardiomyopathy

B) Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

C) Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

A

A) Dilated cardiomyopathy

124
Q

Which of the following causes hemodynamic compromise in patients with high heart rate?

A) Short PR interval

B) Long QT interval

C) P-QRS dissociation

D) Short R-R interval

A

D) Short R-R interval

125
Q

Mutation found in 70% of people with inherited hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which part of the myocyte does this mutation affect?

A

Sarcomere gene

126
Q

What change will occur in the patient ECG after administering a drug that blocks delayed rectifier K+ channel, iKSR ?

A) QRS

B) QT interval

C) PR interval

D) P-wave dissociation

A

B) QT interval

127
Q

a 56 year-old female with symptoms of SLE and had sterile white vegetation what is the diagnosis?

A) Non-Thrombotic endocarditis

B) Libman-sacks endocarditis

A

B) Libman-sacks endocarditis

CVS Exams (12 decks)

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