2008 Module Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is best used to identify a recessive monogenic disorder predisposing to (heart disease?)?

a. whole genome sequencing for all unaffected family members
b. whole genome sequencing for each family member
c. karyotyping
d. SNPB based linkage analysis
e. SNP based association approach

A

e.SNP based association approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what psychological factor increase the risk of mortality by 5-6 times (after 1 year of having) MI?

a. depression
b. anxiety
c. type A behavior
d. social isolation

A

a. depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In post epidemiologic transition countries

A) Low mortality, high fertility, infectious diseases

B) Low Mortality, low fertility, and chronic diseases

C) High mortality, low fertility, chronic diseases

D) High mortality, high fertility. Infectious diseases

A

B) Low mortality, low fertility, and chronic diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

to which level the blood pressure should be lowered in a patient with hypertension and diabetes mellitus

a. 140/90
b. 139/89
c. 130/90
d. 130/80

A

d. 130/80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

a male who experiences syncopal attack when pressure is applied to his neck

A

Vagal bradycardia due to carotid sinus hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what should paramedics do to a patient who is unconscious and have pulseless tachycardia?

a. CD Cardioversion
b. medications

A

a. CD Cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when a thrombolytic drug is used?

a. stable angina
b. unstable angina
c. old MI
d. acute MI

A

d. acute MI

(same question in other exams is B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

treatment of a patient with chest pain (symptoms of angina)

A

Beta-blocker, nitrate, and CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which chamber receives blood from coronary sinus?

A

Right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which fetal vessel allow the blood from placenta to bypass the liver?

A

Ductus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which defect is caused by unequal separation of truncus arteriosus?

A

Pulmonary atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which congenital defect is associated with separation of sternum?

A

Ectopia cordis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

mechanism of action of thiazide?

A

Bind to Cl site in Na/Cl co-transport system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

mechanism of action of digoxin?

A

Inhibit Na/k ATPase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a consequence of using a drug that prevents the absorption of cholesterol into the gastrointestinal tract like cholestyramine?

A

Increase the density of LDL receptors

(not sure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which drug has negative effects on the heart after using it for a long time for heart failure?

a. Digoxin
b. beta-blocker
c. beta-agonist
d. ACEI

A

c. beta agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

dobutamine effect?

a. increase cAMP
b. activate β2 receptors

A

a. increase cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

angiotensin receptor blocker:

A

Losartan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

a drug that blocks Na channels and reduce the slope of phase 4

A

Quinidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

weight gain when using clofibrate is due to:

A

Inhibiting lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibiter:

A

Captopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a molecule with antithrombotic and vasodilatory effects

A

Nitric oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

10-year-old boy fainted when playing football, systolic ejection murmur was heard in the right intercostal space and the murmur radiates to the neck. Diagnosis?

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

full term neonate has cyanotic congenital heart defect, his aortic O2 saturation was 60 and pulmonary artery saturation 98%

a. tetralogy of Fallot
b. transposition of great artereies
c. persistent fetal circulation
d. tricuspid atresia

A

b. transposition of great artereies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

apical pansystolic murmur means

A

Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what characterizes sinus rhythm?

A

Upstroke p wave followed by QRS complex

(not sure about question)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Otherwise healthy elderly developed isolated systolic blood pressure. What is most likely the cause?

A

Aortic rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

patient was admitted to the hospital after 5 days of onset of acute MI. best biomarker used is:

A

Troponin I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

patient 60 pack of cigarettes/year experienced pain in his left calf when walking for 200m. ankle-brachial index was 0.6 and one of his legs was cooler than the other one:

A

Peripheral arterial disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Question about rheumatic heart disease:

A

Aschoff nodules in endocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

artery occlusion 90% Developed a thrombus that caused partial occlusion?

a. cerebrovascular event
b. unstable angina
c. acute MI

A

b. unstable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

artery occlusion 90%. Developed a thrombus that caused total occlusion?

a. cerebrovascular event
b. unstable angina
c. acute MI

A

c. acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

effect of pulmonary embolism

a. right ventricle failure
b. pulmonary oedema
c. dilated right ventricle

A

a.right ventricle failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the complication of carotid artery occlusion?

a. cerebrovascular event
b. unstable angina
c. acute MI

A

a. cerebrovascular event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

effect of aortic regurgitation:

a. decreased perfusion of coronary arteries
b. prominent S2

A

a. decreased perfusion of coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the pulmonary resistance if

Mean pulmonary pressure = 30mmgh

Mean right atrium pressure=1

Mean left atrium pressure=4

CO=5.6

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the minimum HR that a 45-year-old male should reach to enhance his aerobic performance when performing aerobic exercise?

A

123

**How to calculate it: 220+45= 175

175×70/100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

why does the diastolic blood pressure increases during isometric exercise?

A

Increased resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What causes closure of ductus arteriosus :

a. Increased O2 in aorta
b. increased prostaglandins

A

a. Increased O2 in aorta

40
Q

young female had an accident, which resulted in massive bleeding. What is the initial response ( reflex?)

a. total peripheral vasodilation
b. vagal over activity
c. decreased sympathetic outflow
d. reflex tachypnea

A

d. reflex tachypnea

hemorrhage causes hypoxia → response by chemoreceptors

41
Q

What is the compliance of vessels?

a. 1000
b. 100
c. 10

A

b. 100

(3500-2500)⁄(20-10)

42
Q

Q about accident and bleeding. what’s maintaining coronary blood flow?

a. autoregulation
b. sympathetic activation

A

a. autoregulation

(not sure)

43
Q

what is the cause of edema in a female with liver disease?

A

Decreased capillary oncotic pressure

44
Q

What stimulates NO?

A

Velocity of blood (= shear stress)

45
Q

what stimulates thirst center in a person who is deprived from water intake?

A

Angiotensin ΙΙ

46
Q

what is the physiological cause of S2 splitting?

A

Prolonged ventricular ejection

(not sure about the Q)

(one of the ventricles has a high afterload, causing it to get out of sync with the other ventricle. They close at different times and that causes the S2 splitting)

47
Q

what decreases stroke volume and ejection fraction in an angina patient?

a. increased central venous pressure
b. decreased arteriolar diameter
c. Increased heart rate
d. increased end-systolic volume

A

angina→decreased myocardial contractility →more volume of blood is left→increased”ESV)

48
Q

what estimates stroke volume?

a. pulse pressure
b. pulmonary wedge pressure
c. systolic blood pressure

A

a. pulse pressure

49
Q

which current differentiate between atrial and ventricular action potential?

a. fast Na
b. L-type Ca
c. inward rectifier K
d. transient outward K channel

A

d. transient outward K channel

the atrial action potential is triangular, while the action potential of the ventricle is quadrilateral→the difference”is”in”repolarization→K channels

50
Q
A

decrease contractility

51
Q

which point represent end-systolic pressure volume relationship?

A

F

52
Q

at which point the isovolemic relaxation ends?

A
53
Q

At which phase of the cardiac cycle the blood flow from the ventricles is highest?

A

Rapid ejection

54
Q

the slowest spontaneous depolarization?

a. Purkinjie
b. atrial myocytes

A

a. Purkinjie

(b=although these can act as an ectopic pacemaker, but normally the pacemakers are SA node, AV node, and Purkinje fibers)

55
Q

a. sinus tachycardia
b. atrial flatter
c. atrial fibrillation

A

a. sinus tachycardia

56
Q

what represents AV node depolarization?

A

PR segment

57
Q

absolute refractory period is caused by:

A

Inactivation of Na channels

58
Q

young female with yellow streaks. What’s the histological evaluation of the yellow streaks?

a. fibro fatty
b. inflammatory
c. foam cells

A

c. foam cells

59
Q

the initial step of atherosclerosis?

A

Vascular endothelial damage

60
Q

patient with sterile vegetation and died from prostate cancer:

A

Marantic endocaditis

61
Q

what would you find in renal artery of a patient with mild controlled hypertension for 20 years?

A

Hyaline areriolitis

62
Q

what would a biopsy of the temporal artery of 70 year old lady with right side ( headache?) and visual disturbance shows?

A

Granulamatous panarteritis

63
Q

female with dilated cardiomyopathy developed left hemiplegia, what’s the cause of the hemiplegia?

a. DVT in left leg
b. thrombophlebitis
c. embolization of Mural thrombus in the left (ventricle/atrium)

A

c. embolization of Mural thrombus in the left (ventricle/atrium)

64
Q

young female collapsed while jogging, and she had asymmetrical interventricular septum and (fibrous?) disarray:

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

65
Q

a heart with endomyocardial fibrosis

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

66
Q

what is the function of ATP binding cassette?

A

Efflux of cholesterol

67
Q

what’s the effect of glycosylation on LDL?

A

Impair its clearance from circulation

68
Q

receptor expressed on vascular endothelium that can recognize oxidized LDL?

a. LOX1
b. Scavenger”Receptor

A

a. LOX1 (probably this, but unsure)

69
Q

what valve prevent blood from going back from the right ventricle to the right atrium during systole OR (Defect in which structure would let the blood leak into the right atrium??)

A

tricuspid valve

70
Q

a patient with mitral regurgitation (mitral systolic murmur?). No calcification was found on the leaflets of the valve. What may be the pathogenesis?

A

Calcification of mitral annulus

71
Q

a question about a case African American + mumur radiates to the neck area

A

aortic stenosis

72
Q

when one’s age is (55/more than 55?) what is his risk of developing hypertension?

A

>75%

73
Q

a drug that causes elevated liver enzymes as a side effect

A

Lovastatin

(they also mention that it is a statin)

74
Q

a drug that inhibits intestinal absorption of cholesterol?

A

Ezetimap

75
Q

physiology question about calculating fluid movement

A
76
Q

physiology question about calculation cardiac index (stroke volume, heart rate, body surface area were given)

A

?

77
Q

blood pressure changes (values given) (I remember that the systolic increases by 5, while the diastolic by 10) what is the mechanism for blood pressure increase)

A

**we don’t remember the number, but the doctor told us that the actual numbers are critical; you must calculate MAP before the administration of the drug, and then calculate MAP after the administration of the drug, and then compare MAP1 with MAP2 to see if MAP increased/decreased/unchanged and answer accordingly!!

78
Q

a previously sedentary man is exercising. What parameter increases?

A

stroke volume

79
Q

what receptor mediates vasodilation in exercising skeletal muscles?

A

beta 2 receptor

80
Q

physiology question. A curve that indicates decreased luisotropy. What may be the cause?

A

ventricular fibrosis

81
Q

a patient with (symptoms of infective endocarditis) after (2 months?) of a valve replacement surgery. The culture showed gram-positive bacteria arranged in clusters?

A

staphylococcus epidermidis

82
Q

a patient with symptoms of infective endocarditis) + showed gram positive bacteria arranged in (……..)

A

viridian streptococci

83
Q

patient with symptoms of rheumatoid fever

A

staphylococcus pyogens (I know this does not make any sense, but this is the way it was written!!!)

84
Q

a patient with intracranial tumor. What is the mechanism of high blood pressure?

A

Cushing reflex

85
Q

a cuff was used to press on someone’s arm and then was released. What’s the mechanism of the increased blood flow?

A

Reactive hyperemia

86
Q

the cause of atrial fibrillation in a female:

A

Increase in left atrial pressure

87
Q

What contributes to the cyanosis associated with Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

Rightto left shunt

88
Q

What would result from AV block?

A

Prolongation of PR

89
Q

How does sympathetic activation affect action potential?

A

Phosphorylation of L+type calcium channels

90
Q

What is the side effect of ACEI?

A

Cough

91
Q

Why is the prevalence of hypertension in Kuwait misleading?

A

Because Kuwait is a relatively young population

92
Q

What is the difference between arterial pulsation and jugular venous pressure?

A

Arterial pulsation has a single upstroke

93
Q

Heavy neutrophilic infiltrate is the answer

A

??

94
Q

Continuous murmur

A

Patentductus arteriosus

95
Q

What structure allows the blood to flow from the aorta to the pulmonary trunk in the embryo?

A

Ductus arteriosus

96
Q

How does sympathetic stimulation affects action potential?

A

Positive dromotropy

97
Q

How do statins work?

A

Inhibition of HMG+Co reductase ​