Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Radiographic Positioning Bontrager > 1st Spring -Final!! > Flashcards

1st Spring -Final!! Flashcards

1
Q

The spinal cord begins at the medulla oblangata and ends at the

A

Conus medullaris

L1-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
7 (Cervical)
12 (Thoracic)
5 (Lumbar)
1 (Sacrum) born with 5
1 (Coccyx born with 4 
 Total for child
 Total for adult
A

33

26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Concavity of lumbar spine
Convexity of thoracic spine
Exaggerated lateral curvature

A

Lordosis (swayback)
Kyphosis (humpback)
Scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1st compensatory curve

1st primary curve

A

Cervical

Thoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

4 articular processes of the vertebra ?

A

2 superior

2 inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Respiration could not occur without the____

A

Spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Another term for facet??

The atlas corresponds _____to and the axis corresponds to ______

A

Zygapophyseal joint

C1, C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Another name for Dens _____which is attached to _____

Does C1 have a body?

A

Odontoid
C2
No!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Skull to C1 joint is called ??

C1 to C2 joint is called?

A

Atlantooccipital

Atlantoaxial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For the Thoracic vertebra, the zygapophyseal joints lie at

A

70-75’ angle to MSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Another name for C7

LPO, RPO shows the
LAO, RAO shows the

A

Vertebral prominens

Upside
Downside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fracture extends to C2 from extreme hyper extension :

Fracture of C1; splintered or crushed

A

Hangman’s fracture

Jefferson fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What projection demonstrates a Jefferson’s fracture ?

A

AP open mouth projection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Schuermann disease requires which projection ?

A

Scoliosis series

Mild kyphosis and scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cervicothoracic lateral aka swimmers lateral shoes what region?

A

C5-T3

Used if can’t see C7/T1 on cervical lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This method may be used if odontoid is not shown on an open mouth projection of the cervical spine?

A

Fuchs (AP) or Judd Method (PA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do we preform an Otonello Method of the cervical spine and what is it used for?

A

AP projection of the “wagging jaw” to see structures of C1 and odontoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Pillars projection of the cervical spine is used to see which anatomy?

A

C4-C7 and spinous processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A lateral of the thoracic spine requires what breathing technique?

A

Orthostatic

CR to T7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An AP Axial cervical spine and posterior oblique positions requires what CR angle?

A

15-20 cephalic angle

AP oblique would be caudad 15-20.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CR is to pass through _____ during obliques, lateral, and AP Axial is the cervical spine

A

C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For the swimmers position If a patient cannot depress his shoulders enough during expiration an angle may be required to?

A

3-5* caudad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To rule out whiplash; what positions for the cervical spine may be performed

A

Lateral of hyperextension and hyperflexions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(Separation of pars) or This may appear to make the Scottie dog appear to have a collar?

A

Spondylolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Forward slipping of one vertebra onto another (defect in pars)

Bamboo appearance

A

Spondyloliothesis

Ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Osteoblastic lesions

Osteolytic lesions

A

Increased density

Destructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The seatbelt fracture occurring in vertebrae from hyper flexion force

A

Chance fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

On a lateral thoracic spine, it is helpful to place the ________ side down if it is known that the patient has scoliosis

A

Convexity or sag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

On a AP Axial L5-S1 of the lumbar spine AND the AP sacroiliac joints specific CR angulation is required for male vs female

A

Cephalad 35 female

Cephalad 30 male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Th Cr placement for a-spot film of the lateral lumbar ?

A

1.5 inch inferior to iliac crest and 2 inches posterior of ASIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

AP Sacrum CR placement?

AP Coccyx CR placement ?

A

15* cephalad
2 in above P.S
10* caudad; 2 in above P.S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Separate Sacrum and Coccyx AP projections may be ordered together but the lateral _______

A

May be done together!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The lower inside margin of each rib (costal groove) protects what?

A

An artery, vein, and nerve.

Making rib injuring very painful !

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which breathing technique is required for the ribs?

A

Orthostatic breathing or shallow breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

To mark the site of injury for a rib, the tech may:

A

Tape a small B.B. or radiopaque marker over site of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When taking an image of the ribs; above the diaphragm the breathing technique is:
Below the diaphragm is:

A

On Inspiration erect 75-80kv

On expiration recumbent85kv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Funnel chest is aka:

Flail chest is due to:

A

Pectus excavatum

Blunt trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The sternum routine is:

And it requires orthostati c breathing w minimum of 3 sec exposure. The sternum will be

A

15-20* Obliques, lateral

Sternum superimposed over heart shadow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Th skullcap(culvarium) is another has 4 bones:

A

Frontal, R and L parietal, and occipital bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The skull has ____ cranial bones and ____ Facial bones

A

8

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The sella turcica can be visualized on what projection and what bone is it located?

A

Lateral

Sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Another name for “roosters comb” on skull

A

Crista Galli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The 6 Fontanels of an infant normally do not ossify until

A

Mid-late 20s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Small irregular bones of the skull

4 sinuses:

A

Sutural or wormian

Sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal, maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Largest sinus-

To check air fluid levels in what sinus after head trauma?

A

Maxillary

Sphenoid effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which sinus is not connected to the cranial bones

A

Maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

2 common positioning errors while taking skull radiographs

A

Tilt and rotation

48
Q

A PA Projection projects the petrous ridges

The waters Method places them:

A

Directly into the orbits

Below the maxillary sinus’

49
Q

For the towne Method of the skull; CR technique is

A

30* caudad to OML
37* caudad to IOML
2 1/2 in above glabella

50
Q

What degree difference is there between end IOML and OML of the towne Method

51
Q

Deglitution=

Mastication =

A

Swallowing

Chewing

52
Q

3 salivary glands:

The 4 accessory organs of digestion:

A

Parotid, sublingual, submandibular

Salivary glands, liver, pancreas, gallbladder

53
Q

Stomach contents churned into semi fluid mass:

Catalysts to speed digestion:

A

Chyme

Enzymes

54
Q

Mechanical digestion=

3 structures that pass thru the diaphragm:

A

Rhythmic segmentation

Inferior vena cava, esophagus, aortA

55
Q

In erect position, how much do abdominal organs drop?

56
Q

On a hypersthenic pt, where does the stomach lie?

A

Upper transverse area

57
Q

Negative contrast media=

Positive contrast media=

A

Radiolucent

Radiopaque

58
Q

What can be ingested to create CO2 for GI studies?

A

Calcium is magnesium citrate

59
Q

What is the most common positive contrast media?

A

Barium sulfate (BaSo4)

60
Q

What is the purpose for gas on a double contrast media study?

A

To push barium against intestines

61
Q

What is performed on someone with suspected GERD?

62
Q

What is the KvP for upper GI:

Double contrast:

A

100-125

90-100

63
Q

Another name for pancreatic duct=

A

Duct of wirsung

64
Q

3 divisions of small intestine:

A

Duodenum (shortest)
Jejenum (40% of intestine)
Ileum (longest)

65
Q

Widest portion of the large intestine?

What does Enterocylsis mean?

A

Cecum

Double contrast

66
Q

What position is recommended for small bowel radiographs?

A

Prone to separate loops

67
Q

What type of pt most likely experiences intusseption?

Double contrast studies are best for:

A

Infant

Chrohns disease and malapsortption

68
Q

What is responsible for synthesis of vitamin K&B and amino acids?

A

Large intestine

69
Q

Which part is responsible for digestion, absorption, and reabsorption?

A

Small intestine

70
Q

Which hormone is secreted in the gallbladder?

Where is the gallbladder located?

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

Inferior,posterior of liver RUQ

71
Q

What separates the left and right lobe of the liver?

A

Falciform ligament

72
Q

Below the tongue
Below mandible
Largest salivary gland

A

Sublingual
Submandibular
Parotid

73
Q

Which part covers the larynx opening so that food n fluid are not aspirated

A

Epiglottis

74
Q

Substances ingested but NoT digested

A

Water
Minerals
Vitamins

75
Q

Emulsification of fats:

Where is this produced and where is it stored

A

Bile

Produced by liver and stored in gallbladder

76
Q

Narrowing of esophagus

Difficulty swallowing

A

Achalasia

Dysphasia

77
Q

Wormlike appearance of esophagus:

Streaked appearance:

A

Esophageal varices

Barrett esophagus

78
Q

Outpouching of mucosal wall

Erosion of stomach (halo sign)

A

Diverticuli

Ulcer

79
Q

The feathery appearance of the small intestine:

The length of the small intestine:

A

Jejenum

15-18ft

80
Q

Cobblestone appearance

Tapered/corkscrew appearance

A

Ulcerative colitis

Volvulus

81
Q

3 common BE tips

A

Plastic disposable
Rectal retention
Air contrast retention

82
Q

The insertion of the BE tip should be directed toward_______

A

Umbilicus and on expiration to relax the muscles

83
Q

The kidneys and ureters are located in the

A

Retroperitoneal space

84
Q

2 palpable landmarks to locate the kidneys

A

Iliac crest and xiphoid process

85
Q

An abnormal drop of the kidneys is called

What organ is pear shaped ?

A

Nephroptosis

Gallbladder

86
Q

3 functions of urinary system

A

Remove nitrogenous waste
Regulate H2O
Regulate acid-base

87
Q

Intravenous contrast media administered by:

A

Bolus injection

Drip fusion

88
Q

Common size of needle for bolus injections on adults

A

18-22 Gauge adults

23-25 peds

89
Q

Most common types of needles used for bolus injection

A

Butterfly and over the needle, straight through the needle

90
Q

The leakage of contrast media from a vessel into surrounding tissues

A

Extravasation

91
Q

Loss of consciousness resulting from reduced cerebral blood flow

92
Q

Structural unit of kidney:

Outer portion of kidney:

A

Nephron

Cortex

93
Q

The average water intake in 24 hr period

Another name for medulla of kidney

A

2.5 Liters

Renal pyramids

94
Q

The total capacity for urine

Ureters lie on the anterior surface:

A

350-500mL

Psoas muscles

95
Q

The tourniquet is placed _______ inches above the injection site

96
Q

What are common anions to stabilize an ionic iodinated contrast media?

A

Diatrizoate, iothalamate, metrizoate

97
Q

The higher the osmolality, the ______ chance of reaction

A

Greater!

Causing vein spasm ^blood plasma

98
Q

Non ionic organic iodide contains ___ positively charged cations

99
Q

2 common side effects of iodinated contrast medium

A

Temporary hot flash

Metallic taste

100
Q

Local reactions effect:

Systemic reactions effect:

A

Region of body contrast was given

Entire body!

101
Q

Fracture of wrist/ distal radius
Fracture of 5th metacarpal
Fracture on one side only

A

Colles
Boxer
Greenstick

102
Q

Also called ping-pong fracture
Realigned and immoblized w/ a splint/cast
Fracture site/surgery with screws

A

Depression fracture m
Closed reduction
Open reduction

103
Q

Inflammation of tibia-occur in 5-10y/o boys:

Abnormal growth of hip 5-10y/o boys:

A

Osgood/Schlatter disease

Leg-Calve-perthes disease

104
Q

A sliding hiatal hernia (weakening of esophageal sphincter)

A

Schatzki Ring

105
Q

Esophageal reflux may require breathing techniques which are

A 
Valsalva maneuver 
Mueller maneuver (Rachael’s and inhaled against epiglottis)
106
Q

Water soluble iodinated contrast should not be used if a patient is:

A

Sensitive to iodine or dehydrated!!

107
Q

Involuntary Contractions digestion:

Where is barium on AP Supine?

A

Peristalsis

Top of fungus

108
Q

Where is the barium when the patient is prone and erect?

A 
Prone= lower whole region of stomach 
Erect= lower 1/2 region of stomach
109
Q

In the erect position with barium contrast, the barium tends to form

A

A straight line to lower aspect of stomach

110
Q

Cholelithiasis:

Neoplasms

A

Having gallstones in gallbladder

New growths

111
Q

At what age does the skeleton reach full ossification?

A

25 yrs old

112
Q

2 terms of displacement of bone from joint:

A

Dislocation

Luxation

113
Q

4 parts of body most commonly dislocated in trauma

A

Shoulder
Fingers
Patella
Hip

114
Q

2 incomplete fractures

A

Torus

Green stick

115
Q

Act of voiding

An eruption of hives caused by food/drugs

A

Micturition

Urticaria

Radiographic Positioning Bontrager (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions