Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IB Biology HL > 11 animal physiology > Flashcards

11 animal physiology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

when do muscles exert force

A

when they contract and not when they relax and lengthen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how many directions can muscles cause movement in

A

only one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does there need to be for opposite movements

A

a pair of muscles that exert muscles in opposite directions - an antagonistic pair of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the anchorage

A

one end of the muscle which is the firm point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what shape are typical muscles

A

elongated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

examples of anchorages and insertions in humans

A

bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

examples of anchorages and insertions in arthropods

A

the exoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the opposite end of the muscle from the anchorage

A

insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how do bones and exoskeletons act as levers

A

they can change the size and direction of the force exerted by a muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the junctions between bones called

A

joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

give the two general overall types of joints

A

fixed joints

joints that allow movement (articulation0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the three main parts of synovial joints

A

cartilage covering the surface of the bones to reduce friction where they could rub against each other

synovial fluid between the cartilage covered surfaces to lubricate the joint and further reduce friction.

joint capsule that seals the joint and holds in the synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are ligaments

A

tough cords of tissue connecting the bones on opposite sides of a joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ligaments attach

A

bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tendons attach

A

muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

function of ligaments

A

they restrict movement and help to prevent dislocation. they also ensure that certain movements can occur at a synovial joint but not at others. e.g. the elbow allows a lot of movement in one plane of bending or straightening, but little in the other planes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

biceps…

A

the flexor muscle, used to bend the arm at the elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

humerus bone…

A

provides a firm anchorage for the muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

triceps…

A

the extensor muscles, used to straighten the arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

joint capsule…

A

seals the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

synovial fluid…

A

lubricates the joint to reduce friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cartilidge

A

a layer of smooth and tough tissue that covers the ends of the bones where they meet to reduce friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ulna…

A

bone that is the insertion for the triceps and acts as a lever transmitting forces from the triceps through the forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

radius…

A

bone that is the insertion for the biceps and acts as a lever transmitting forces from the biceps through the forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

tendon…

A

attaches muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

distal

A

furtherst away e.g. for the thigh bone, it is the end by th knee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

proximal

A

closest e.g. for the thigh bone, it is the end by the torso.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

dorsal

A

upper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ventral

A

underside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

explain how the tendons work in the leg of an insect

A

the tendons at the distal end are attached to the opposite sides of the exoskeleton of the tibia, so one of them is a flexor of the joint between the femur and tibia and the other is an extensor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are synovial joints

A

joints that allow movement or articulation. they mostly consist of the same three parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

synovial joints usually consist of

A

cartilige
synovial fluid
joint capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

upper part of an insect leg

A

femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

lower part of an insect leg

A

tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ankles of a insect leg

A

spur (the pointy thing towards its head and tarsus, the whole ankle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what term refers to the number of nuclei skeletal muscle fibres have

A

multinucleate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what do skeletal muscle fibres contain

A

specialised endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

why are muscles that are used to move the body called skeletal muscles

A

because they are attatched to bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

types of muscle

A

straited (stripes)
smooth
cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is sarcolemma

A

a single plasma membrane surrounding a muscle fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

why are muscle fibres longer than usual cells

A

embryonic muscle cells fuse together to form muscle fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

a modified version of the endoplasmic reticulum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

function of the sarcoplasmic reticululm

A

it wraps around every myofibril, conveying the signal to contract to all parts of the muscle fibre at once. it stores calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are inbetween the myofibrils

A

large numbers of mitochondria, providing the ATP needed for contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are myofibirils

A

the many parallel, elongated structures within each muscle fibre. they have alternating light an dark bands, the stripes of the straited muscle, going across each myofibril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is in the centre of the light myofibrils

A

a disc shaped structure, referred to as the z line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is each myofibril made up of

A

contractile sarcomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the part of the myofibril between one z line and the next called

A

sarcomere, the functional unit of the myofibril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are the two types of protein filament

A

thin actin filaments

thick myosin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

where are actin filaments attatched

A

to a z line at one end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

where are mysosin filaments attatched

A

theyre interdigiated with actin filaments at both ends and occupy the centre of the sarcomere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how many actin filaments surround an actin filament

A

six, and they from cross bridges during muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what area of the myofibri does the thick myosin filaments relate to

A

the dark areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the z line on the myofibril

A

the light band, whilst the thin actin filaments continue and the thick myosin filaments stop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

within each muscle fibre are cylindrical structures called

A

myofibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

around myofibrils there is

A

a specialised type of endoplasmic reticulum. there are also mitochondria between the myofibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what do myofibrils consist of

A

repeating units called sarcomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

describe the bands in sarcomeres

A

light and dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what do skeletal muscle consist of

A

large multinucleate cells called muscle fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

a sarcomere contains thin

A

actin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

a sarcomere contains thick

A

myosin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is at either end of a sarcomere

A

a z line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

describe the heads of myosin

A

they have heads that form cross bridges by binding to the actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what part of the sarcomere is dark

A

the part containing myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what part of the sarcomere is light

A

the part containing actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what goes down the middle of the sarcomere

A

the m line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what band is the middle of the sarcomere

A

A band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what band is inbetween the z line and m line

A

I band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what zone is the middle of the sarocmere

A

H zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is skeletal muscle contraction

A

the sliding of actin and myosin filaments sliding over eachother. this pulls the end of the muscles together, making the muscle shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is required for sliding filaments and muscle contraction

A

ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

describe the hydolosis of ATP

A

3 adenanine moelcules and 3 phosphate groups. one phosphate group is broken down into energy for aerobic respiration to become ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

types of muscle

A

cardiac
smooth
skeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what causes muscles to contract

A

action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how do muscles know to contract ?delete?

A

an electrical signal of action potental opens calcium channels.
ca2+ ions flood in the fibre, triggering neurotransmitters to move onto the next cell across the synapse
the neurotransmitters attatch to the sodium pathway which allow sodium ions to pass through.
these sodium ions depolarise the sarcoplasmic reticulum which can then release stored ca2+ ions into the cell cytoplasm which cause muscle cells to contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

the mechanism of muscle contraction

A

myosin filaments have heads which form cross bridges when they are attatched to binding sites on actin filaments.
ATP binds to the myosin heads and causes them to break the cross bridges by detatching from the binding sites.
ATP is hydrolysed to ADP and phosphate, causing the myosin heads to change their angle. the heads are now ‘cocked’ in position, as they store potential energy from ATP.
the heads attatch onto binding sites on actin that are further from the centre of the sarcomere than the previous sites.
the ADP is released and the heads push the actin filaments inwards towards the centre of the sarcomere. this is called the powerstroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how do muscles know to contract

A

an electrical action potential causes an influx of Ca2+ ions.
the influx of Ca2+ triggers the synaptic vesicles full of neurotransmitters to move across the synaptic cleft (synapse)
the synaptic vesicles bind to sodium channels and they open. (as they couldn’t previously.)
now soidum can travel through the channels to the sarcoplasmic reticulum. (this is aided by a concentration gradient)
the positive Na+ ions means the membrane (which was positive on the outside and negative on the inside) has flipped, this is called depolarisation.
this means the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases loads of Ca2+. this becomes the stored ca2+ ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

skeletal muscle fibres are …

A

multinucleate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction

A

when a muscle contracts, the actin is pulled along myosin toward the centre of the sarcomere.
the actin and myosin filaments become completely overlapping.
there is no pale area in the centre.
the muscle shortens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what do catalytic converters do

A

remove CO, NOx, and unburned hydrocarbons from exhaust gases, making them CO2, N2 and H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what do catalytic convertes have to make them have a large surface area

A

a ceramic honeycomb coated with a thin layer of catalyst metals (Pt, Pd, Rh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

why is blood in the glomerulus under high pressure

A

because the diameter of the afferent ateriole is wider than the effering ateriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the entering ateriole called

A

afferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the leaving ateriole called

A

efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the filtration membrane made of

A

glycoproteins, surrounding the endothelium of the capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what does the inner layer of the bowmans capsule consist of

A

highly adaptive podocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what prevents proteins an cells passing through the bowmans capsule

A

largegaps between podocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what passes through bowmans capsule

A

glucose, ions, water, urea etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

stages of the nephron

A 
renal artery
glomerulus
bowmans capsule
proximal convoluted tubule
loop of henle
distal convoluted tubule
collecting duct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what does the liver do

A

cleans the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

glucose present in the filtrate is…

A

actively transported out of the proximal convoluted tubule into the tissue fluid surrounding the nephron, using energy from mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

how much of the sodium and chlorine ions are actively transported out of the proximal convoluted tubule, using a Na pump in the basal membrane

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what do cotransporter proteins do

A

bring in glucose and amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

contransporters bring in glucose and amino acids, establishing a conc gradient between…

A

the filtrate and the tissue fluid outside.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

contransporters bring in glucose and amino acids, establishing a conc gradient between the filtrate and the tissue fluid outside. this causes…

A

water to move out of the filtrate down a water potential gradient by osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what are the most permable (freely permable) to water parts of the nephron

A

the proximal convoluted tubule and descending limb of the loop of henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

which part of the nephron is impermeable to water

A

the ascending limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

which parts of the nephron have variable permability to water

A

the distal convoluted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what do metabolic processes produce

A

waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what type of waste is nitrogenous

A

protein waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what are osmoregualtors

A

the organisms that are able to keep or regulate the solute concentration of their body fluids above or below that of their external environment.
they control the osmolarity of their tissues within very narrow limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

when you become dehydrated…

A

urine darkens
skin becomes less elastic
heart rate and breathing rate increase
blood pressure decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

is the renal artery or renal vein nearer the top of the kidney

A

the renal artery, then renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

endothelial cells are

A

the inner layer of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

epitherial cells are

A

the outer layer of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

function of loop of henle

A

create a high concentration of sodium ions and chlroide ions in the tissue fluid of the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

why does the loop of henle perform its function

A

so that water can be reabsorbed from the contents of the nephron as they pass through collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

survival advantage of the loop of henle

A

very concentrated urine can be produced

conserves water and prevents dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

the descending limb of the loop of henle is

A

water permable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

the ascending limb of the loop of henle is

A

more permeable to salts/less permeable to water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

which part of the loop of henle is the descending limb

A

the thick part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

why is the glucose conc in the renal vein slightly lower than that of the renal artery

A

some of the glucose is reabsorbed for metabolic processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

why is the oxygen concentration lower in the renal vein than in the renal artery

A

some of the oxygen is used in the metabolic processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

why is the carbon dioxide concentration higher in the renal vein than in the renal artery

A

due to the production of carbon dioxide during respiration in the cells of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

each kidney has around

A

1 000 000 nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

bowmans capsule function

A

Highly porous wall which collects the filtrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

glomerulus function

A

Knot-like capillary bed where high-pressure filtration takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

proximal convoluted tubule function

A

Twisted section of the nephron where water, nutrients and salts are reabsorbed back into the blood; contains many mitochondria and microvilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

loop of henle function

A

Hairpin shaped tube with a descending and ascending limb; water and salt reabsorption takes place here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

distal convoluted tubule function

A

Another twisted section of the nephron, where water and salts are reabsorbed back into the blood; also contains many mitochondria and microvilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

collecting duct

A

A slightly wider tube that carries the filtrate to the renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

afferent ateriole

A

Brings blood from the renal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

efferent ateriolle

A

A narrow blood vessel that restricts blood flow, which helps to generate the pressure needed for filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

vasa recta

A

An unbranched capillary shaped like the loop of Henle, with the descending limb bringing blood deep into the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what are podocytes

A

the cells of the inner walls of the bowmans capsule. They have many extensions which fold around the blood capillary forming a network of filtration slits that hold back the blood cells during ultrafiltration with the help of the glomerular basement membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what is the basement membrane made of

A

glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what are the small window like openings called in capillaries

A

fenestrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

wwhere does ultrafiltration take place

A

fenestrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

the fenestrations in the capillary wall allow WHAT to flow out and WHAT to come in

A

The fenestrations in the capillary wall allow blood to flow out, however, the basement membrane acts like a sieve during the ultrafiltration process and stops the blood cells and large proteins. Thus, white and red blood cells cannot pass through, but small proteins, salts and nutrients can.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what do cells of the proximal convluted tubule have

A

lots of mitochondria to provide energy for active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

does the tissue fluid deep in the medull have a high or low water potential/salt concentration

A

low water potential

high salt concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

where is blood taken away from the kidneys

A

via the renal vein connecting to the inferior vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

what does the ureters connect

A

urine from the kidney to bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

where does a nephron begin and end

A

in the cortex and the looop of henle moved down into the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

where is the basement membrane

A

inbetween the glomrulus and the bowmans capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what type of pressure is there inside the glomerulus capillaries

A

hydrostatic build up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what substances travel from blood plasma to glomerulur filtrate

A 
water
inorganic ions
urea
uric acid
glucose
amino acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what substances travel from blood plasma to glomerular filtrate

A 
water
inorganic ions
urea
uric acid
glucose
amino acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what si ficls law

A

rate of diffusion = surface area x conc gradient

/ length of diffusion pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

what is ficks law

A

rate of diffusion = surface area x conc gradient

/ length of diffusion pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

what substances are reabsorbed back into the blood during selective reabsorbtion

A

all glucose, amino acids, vitamins, and many Na and Cl ions are reabsorbed out of the PCT and back into the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

what do outer membranes of cells actively transport (kidneys) out of cytoplasm and where does this substnace go

A 
sodium ions (sodium potassium pump)
down a conc gradient back into the cytoplasm, passing through co-transporter proteins that transport glucose or amino acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

what does selective reabsorbtion of salts, glucose and amino acids do

A

reduce the water potential of cells
increase water potential in tubules
keep water via osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

outline the function of the proximal convoluted tubule

A

selective reabsorbtion of water, glucose, minerals, useful substances
absorption by active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

what is the medulla (hyper…)

A

tonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

what does the cortex do

A

ultrafiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

explain the process of ultrafiltration

A

blood in the glomerulus is under high pressure caused by the difference in diameter of afferent and efferent arterioles.
fluid plasma and small molecules forced into bowmans capsule
which prevents larger molecules or blood cells from passing through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

where is the loop of henle

A

in the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

where is the nephron (except LOH)

A

in the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

if molecules are left behind after ultrafiltration they they exit through

A

the efferent ateriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

podocyte function

A

helps support structure of glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

what does fennestrated mean

A

has holes in it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

what do the endothelial fenestrationd in the glomerulsus do

A

allow all small molecules to pass through (water, urea, ions etc, NOT large proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

what does the different sizing of aterioles in the glomerulus do

A

create blood pressure theat gives hydrostatic pressure that brings about filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

what is the basement membrane

A

the filtration membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

in the lumen of the PCT, what happens to Na+

A

it is actively transported back using atp energy from mitochondria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

in the lumen of the PCT, what happens to all glucose and AA

A

reabsorbed by co transporter proteins (Na diffuses in providing energy for the exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

in the lumen of the PCT, what happens to water

A

absorbed by osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

what is in the glomerular filtrate

A

H2O
salt urea
glucose
AA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

what do the microvilli around the lumen of the PCT do

A

increase SA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

what is the purpose of the LOH

A

to make the surrounding tissues (or medulla) more salty, this helps to concentrate urine and reabsorb water via osmosis (higher conc grad).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

the descending limb is impermeable to…

and permeable to..

A

impermeable to Na+

permeable to H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

the ascending limb is impermeable to…

and permeable to..

A

impermeable to H2O

permeable to Na+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

why is the descending limb first

A

so that we dont get rid of too much water, and so it can concentrate the filtrate before the ascending limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what is an aquaporin

A

small protein pores in the collecting duct that make it permeable to water. adh constructs these temporarily, as the collecting duct is usually impermeable to water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

chemical formula for ammonia

A

NH3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

chemical formula for urea

A

(NH2)2CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

chemical formula for uric acid

A

C5H4N4O3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

ammonia toxicity

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

urea toxicity

A

moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

uric acid toxicity

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

animals that produce ammonia

A

aquatic animals (because ammonia is very soluble and can dissolve in the water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

animals that prouce urea

A

terrestrial animals (most land animals convert ammonia to urea or uric acid which require less water for excretion and they are less toxic than ammonia)

174
Q

animals that produce uric acid

A

reptiles and birds

175
Q

how to make more effective kindeys

A

maybe lengthen loop of henle

saltier medulla tissue

176
Q

what is osmoregualtion

A

the process by which organisms regulate the water content of the body

177
Q

what do osmoreceptors do

A

montior water potential of the blood and vary the amount of ADH released into the bloodstream. the kidneys respond to a change in ADH conc by adjusting the vol and conc of the urine

178
Q

mammals are osmoregulators. what do they need to do

A

ensure the volume of blood plasma and concentration of dissolved substances in the blood and tissue fluid stay relatively constant.

179
Q

what do osmoconformers do

A

keep the osmotic potential of their bodies the same as their sea water environment.

180
Q

how do marine invertebrates keep the osmotic potential of their bodies the same as their sea water environment

A

they take in ions and salts but (sharks) also accumulate high levels of urea which increases the concentration of solutes in their body.

181
Q

how do amoeba osmoregualte

A

they use contractile vacuole which contracts and expels water out of the cell.

182
Q

how do insects osmoregualte

A

they have malphigian tubes that control water balance and excrete nitrogenous waste.

183
Q

how do mammals osmoregualte

A

the kidney:

excretes urea

controls the balance of water and salt

184
Q

how do fish osmoregualte in a freshwater environment

A

drinks little water, actively takes up ions through gills, absorbs water through skin and excretes dilute urine.

185
Q

how do fish osmoregulate in a saltwater environment

A

drinks ample water excretes ions through gills, loses water through skin

186
Q

give 4 examples of organisms that are osmoconformeres

A

sharks
jelly fish
sea cucumbers
sea fish

187
Q

how do contractile vaculoes help osmoregualte

A

it uses active transport to pump ions into the CV. water then enters by inward osmosis and then is released into the surrounding environment by exocytosis.

188
Q

how do malphigian tubes help osmoregualte

A

MT collect excess water from blood in the insect’s abdomen and pass it onto the hind gut of the digestie system. more water can be absorbed here.

189
Q

how do kidneys help osmoregualte

A

kidney nephrons collect excess water from the blood through ultrafiltration. this water collects in the kidney pelvis and is stored in the bladder for urine.

190
Q

where does ADH act

A

in the DCT and CD

191
Q

where is ADH secreted from

A

pituitary glandf

192
Q

what monitors solute concentration in the blood

A

osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

193
Q

what is an aquaporin

A

Aquaporins are membrane proteins. They initiate a series of events which causes vesicles with aquaporins to fuse with the surface membrane. The aquaporin then allows water molecules to pass through

194
Q

what does the binding of ADH to the receptors in the cell membranes in the collecting tubules cause

A

increased water permabiliy by causing aquarporin to move to the surface membrane. the aquaporin then allows water molecules to pass through,

195
Q

primary causes of kidney failure

A

diabetes and hypertension or high blood pressure

196
Q

what is dialysis

A

Hemodialysis is a process that uses an artificial membrane known as dialysis tubing (found within the dialyser) to remove wastes, such as urea, from the blood as well as to restore the proper balance of electrolytes in the blood and eliminate extra fluid from the body.

197
Q

how does dialysis work

A

The dialyser is made up of two parts, one for your blood and one for a washing fluid called dialysate. The dialysis tube is a thin membrane that separates these two parts. During hemodialysis, blood cells, protein and other important molecules remain in your blood because they are too big to pass through the membrane. Smaller waste products in the blood, such as urea, creatinine, potassium and extra fluid, pass through the membrane and are washed away in the dialysate.

198
Q

alternative to dialysis

A

kidney transplant

199
Q

what would too much glucose in the urine indicate

A

diabetes

200
Q

what would too much protein in the urine indicate

A

ultrafiltration process failing

201
Q

waht does erythrocytes in urine indicate

A

severe infection or tumour

202
Q

what would blood or leuocyctes inurine indicate

A

infection or kidney tumour

203
Q

why do insectes exrete uric acid

A

This molecule has very low solubility in water and is excreted as a semisolid form in insect faeces. This allows water conservation.

204
Q

where does spermatogenesis take place

A

semi inferous tubules in testes.

205
Q

in the geminal epithelium of the semi inferous tubules, there are

A

stem cells which form spermatogonia.

206
Q

what does spermatogonia divide by mitosis to produce

A 
additional spermatogonia (2n) 
and
primary spermocytes (2n)
207
Q

waht do primary spermocytes divide by meiosis I to produce

A

two lots of secondary spermocytes (n)

208
Q

what do secondary spermocytes divide by meiosis II to produce

A

spermatids (n)

209
Q

what do spermatids divide to produce

A

sperm with the nursing of sertolli cells

210
Q

what is multiplication phase in spermatogenesis

A

spermatogonia –> primary spermocytes

211
Q

what is growth phase in spermatogenesis

A

primary spermocytes –> secondary spermocytes

212
Q

what is maturation phase in spermatogenesis

A

secondary spermocytes –> spermatids

213
Q

what is spermiogensis in spermatogenesis

A

spermatids –> sperm

214
Q

where does oogenesis occur

A

ovaries, in the primary follicle, where there is a primaru oocyte surrounded by a single layer of follicle cells

215
Q

what does the oogonium from germinal epithelium diide by mitosis to produce

A

oogonium (2n)

216
Q

what does the oogonium (2n) divide by mitosis to produce

A

primary oocyte (2n)

217
Q

what does the primary oocyte divide by mitosis to produce

A 
polar body (n) 
and
secondary oocyte (n)
218
Q

what does the secondary oocyte produce involving ovulation

A 
2nd polar body
fertilised egg (2n)
219
Q

stages of fertilisation of a human egg

A 
arrival of sperm
binding
acrosome reaction
fusion
cortical reaction
mitosis
220
Q

arrival of sperm in fertilisation

A

sperm attracted by a chemical signal and swim up the oviduct to reach the egg. fertilization is only successful if many sperm reach the egg.

221
Q

binding in fertilization

A

the first sperm to break through the layers of the follice cells binds to the zona pellucida. this triggers the acrosome reaction.

222
Q

acrosome reaction in fertlization

A

the contents of the acrosome are released by the separation of the acrosomal cap from the sperm. enzymes from the acrosome digest a route for the sperm through the zona pellucida, allowing the sperm to reach the plasma membrane of the egg.

223
Q

fusion in fertlization

A

the plasma membranes of the sperm and egg fuse and the sperm nucleus enters the egg and joins the egg nucleus. fusion causes the cortical reaction.

224
Q

cortical reaction in fertilzation

A

small vesicles called cortical granules move to the plasma membrane of the egg and fuse with it, releasing their contents by exocytosis. enzymes from the cortical granules cause cross linking of glycoproteins in the zona pellucida, making it hard and preventing polyspermy.

225
Q

mitosis in stages of fertilzation

A

the nuclei from the sperm and egg do not fuse together. instead, both nuclei carry out mitosis, using the same centrioles and spindle of microtubules. a two cell embryo is produced.

226
Q

what happens after the mitosis stage in fertilization

A

a hollow ball of cells called a blastocyst is formed and cells begin to differentiate.
the zygote has become an embryo and next implants into the uterus lining
if the embryo successfully implants it will keep growing and produce hCG hormone.
hCG hormone causes the ovary to continue producing progesterone - pausing the menstrual cycle

227
Q

what basic stages are in both spermatogenesis and oogenesis

A

mitosis generates large numbers of male gametes in the testes
cells grow so that the cells have enough resources to undergo two divisions of meiosis.
meiosis to undergo haploid cells.
differentiation so the haploid cells develop into gametes with structures needed for fertilization.

228
Q

which part of the seminiferous tubule divide endlessly by mitosis to produce more diploid cells

A

the outer layer called germinal epithelium cells

229
Q

the diploid cells formed by the endless mitotic divisions of the germinal epithelium become

A

primary spermocytes.

230
Q

what does each primary spermocyte form (via meiosis I)

A

two secondary spermocytes

231
Q

what does each secondary spermocyte form (via meiosis II)

A

two spermatids

232
Q

what do spermatids form

A

spermatozoa

233
Q

what happens once spermatozoa become sperm

A

the sperm detatch from sertolli cells and are eventually carried out of the testis by the fluid in the centre of the semiinferous tubule

234
Q

what does the acrosome contain

A

enzymes that digest the zona pellucida around the egg

235
Q

where is the haploid nucleus

A

underneath the acrosome.

236
Q

what is the haploid nucleus

A

contains the 23 chromosomes that are passed from father to offspring.

237
Q

what does the tail of the sperm do

A

provide propulsion that allows the sperm to swim up the vagina, uterus and oviduct until it reaches the egg.

238
Q

where is the centriole in the sperm

A

between th head and midpiece

239
Q

what do the helical mitochondrion do in sperm

A

produce ATP by aerobic respiration to supply energy for swimming and other processes in the sperm.

240
Q

what do the microtubules do in the sperm

A

make the sperm tail beat from side to side and generate the force that propel the sperm

241
Q

what do the protein fibres do in the sperm

A

strengthen the tail

242
Q

which cells in the womans ovaries divide by mitosis to form more diploid cells

A

the germinal epithelium cells

243
Q

what do the diploid cells formed by the germinal epithelium cells in the ovaries do

A

grow into larger cells called primary oocytes

244
Q

what do primary oocytes do

A

start the first division of meiosis but stop during prophrase I. the primary oocyte and a single layer of follicle cells around it form a primary follicle.

245
Q

how many primary follicles are there in a newborn girl

A

400, 000

246
Q

what does the primary oocyte complete and form

A

the first division of meiosis, forming two haploid nuclei. the cytoplasm of the primary oocyte is divided unequally, forming a large secondary oocyte and a small polar cell.

247
Q

what does the secondary oocyte start

A

the second division of meiosis but stops in prophase II. the follicle cells meanwhile are proliferating and follicular fluid is forming.

248
Q

what happens when the mature follicle burts at the time of ovulation

A

the egg that is released is still the secondary oocyte.

249
Q

what happens after fertilisation in the ovaries

A

the secondary oocyte completes the second division of meiosis to form an ovum (with a haploid nucleus inside) and a second polar cell or body. the first and second polar bodies do not develop and eventually degenerate.

250
Q

PAGE 140 PHOTO

A

STAGES IN SPERMATOGENESIS

251
Q

PAGE 141 PHOTO

A

STAGES IN OOGENESIS

252
Q

what is the cytoplams/yolk in a mature human egg used for

A

droplets of fat and other nutrients needed during early stages of embryo development.

253
Q

what do the cortical granules do in the mature egg

A

harden the zona pellucida to prevent multiple fertlization

254
Q

what does the zona pellucida do in the mature egg

A

protects the egg cell and restricts entry of sperm.

255
Q

what are the layer of follicle cells in a mature egg called

A

corona radiata

256
Q

significant differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis

A

millions of sperm produced by men every day from puberty.
only one egg produced each 28 days for women.

nearly all the cytoplasm is removed during the latter stages of spermatogenesis so sperm contain very little.
egg cells contain more cytoplasm than any other human cell.

257
Q

species that partake in internal fertilisation

A

humans + mammals
pythons + reptiles
albatrosses + birds

258
Q

species that partake in external fertilisation

A

salmon + fish

frogs + amphibians

259
Q

what is polyspermy

A

fusion of two or more sperm with an egg cell results in a cell that has three of each chromosome or more. this is called polyspermy. cells produced in this way often die and those that survive are often sterile.

260
Q

where do sperm swim

A 
vagina
cervix
uterus
oviducts
if there is an egg in the oviduct, the sperm can fuse with it to produce a zygote
261
Q

describe zygote to blastocyst

A

divides by mitosis to form a 2 cell embryo, then a 4 cell embryo until it becomes a blastocyst

262
Q

where is the blastocyst transported

A

down oviducts to uterus. at 7 days, the embryo implants itself into the endometrium. if implantation doesnt occur then the embryo is not supplied with enough food and dies.

263
Q

how and where does the ovum divide after fertilisation

A

by mitosis in the oviduct

264
Q

what happens whilst he embryo migrates down the oviduct to the uteurs

A

it divides even more

265
Q

what is a blastocyst

A

an embryo with about 125 cells

266
Q

what is the outside of the blastocyst

A

zona pellucida

267
Q

what is the trophoblast

A

the outer layer of cells

268
Q

what is the blastocoel

A

a fluid filled blastocyst cavity

269
Q

what is the embryoblast

A

inner cell mass

270
Q

where does the blastocyst implant

A

the endometrium (lining) of the uterus

271
Q

BLASTOCYST

A

DIAGRAM

272
Q

after the egg cell reserves are used up what happens

A

the zona pellucida breaks down allowing the balstocyst to implant into the uterine wall. Finger like projections grow into the uterine wall and will develop into the placenta, allowing the embryo to access external supplies of the required nutrients.

273
Q

how does the endometrium not shed during pregnancy

A

continued production of progesterone and estrogen. early in pregnancy, the embryo’s outer cells that will develop into the placenta starts to produce hCG stimulating the corpuus luteum to continue the production of progesterone and estrogen. hCG remains until the placenta is fully established and can take over the role of progesterone an estrogen secretion.

274
Q

what connect the embryo to the endometrium (?)

A

fingerlike projections, chorionic villi. they produce max imum surface area for contact with the maternal blood.

275
Q

placenta diagram

A

!

276
Q

where do the chorionic villi project to

A

the intervillous space, where maternal blood collects. he fetal blood circulates in capillaries which lie very close to the surface of the villus, with only a few micrometres separating them from the maternal blood pools. This short distance facilitates diffusion between the maternal blood and the fetal blood.

277
Q

functions of the placenta

A

Exchange of material to keep the fetus alive during pregnancy (see Table 1 ).
Production of progesterone and estrogen. At the beginning of the pregnancy, this task is performed by the corpus luteum. However, the activity of the corpus luteum progressively decreases from the beginning of the eighth week. Its role is entirely replaced by the placenta at the end of the first trimester (about 12 weeks).

278
Q

what passes from mother to fetus via diffusion

A

oxygen
drugs
alcohol

279
Q

what passes from mother to fetus via facilitated diffusion

A

glucose
amino acids
vitamins
minerals

280
Q

what passes from mother to fetus via osmosis

A

water (and back from fetus to mother)

281
Q

what passes from mother to fetus via endocytosis

A

hormones (and back from fetus to mother via exocytosis)

282
Q

what passes from mother to fetus via receptors

A

some viruses like HIV

283
Q

what passes from fetus to mother via diffusion

A

carbon dioxide

284
Q

waht passes from fetus to mother via facilitated diffusion

A

urea

285
Q

what do the two fetal arteries (or umbilical arteries) bring from fetus to placenta

A

deoxygenated blood

286
Q

what does the fetal or umbilical vein bring

A

oxygenated blood back from the placenta to fetus

287
Q

describe the correlation between size or mass of animal and gestation period

A

positive

288
Q

how is birth signalled to happen

A

the fetus signals to the placenta to stop producing progesterone, triggering the secretion of oxytocin, produced by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and by the fetus. the estrogen continues to rise, inducing the development of oxytocin receptors on the muscles of the uterine wall, increasing the responsiveness of the uterus to oxytocin

289
Q

what starts uterine contraction

A

the endometrium secretes prostaglandins

290
Q

what happens as more and more oxytocin is released

A

contractions become stronger and stronger

291
Q

what is prolactin

A

the hormone ahat is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, stimulating milk production

292
Q

causes of estrogen pollution

A

widespread use of contraceptives like estradiol

293
Q

consequences of estrogen pollution

A

lowering sperm count in maels

294
Q

when does the embryo implant into the endometrium

A

after about 7 days

295
Q

as body mass increases,

A

so does gestation period

296
Q

what secretes hCG

A

human embryos

297
Q

what does hCG do

A

stimulates the ovary to maintain the secretion of progesterone during the first 3 months of preganancy

298
Q

what does progesterone do

A

cause the uterus lining to thicken
ensure that the uterus develops and sustains the growing fetus
prevents uterine contractions and so spontatneous abortions

299
Q

in the last third of pregnancy, progesterone falls and allows the mothers body to secrete what

A

oxytocin

300
Q

in the last third of pregnancy, progesterone falls and there is a rise in…

A

estrogen, which causes an increase in the number of oxytocin receptors on the muscle in the uterus wall. when oxytocin binds to these receptors it causes the muscle to contract, stimulating the release of more oxytocin, contractions becoming stronger and stronger. this is positive feedback loop.

301
Q

stages in fertilisation

A 
arrival of sperm
binding
acrosome reaction
fusion
cortical reaction
mitosis
302
Q

what do human embryos secrete in the early stages of pregnancy

A

hcg, which stimulates the ovary to maintain the secretiion of progesterone so the uterus lining doesnt shed. this stops after about 12 weeks, by which point the placenta has developed and now secretes the progesterone needed to sustain the preganancy until labour. the placenta also secretes estrogen

303
Q

what can th eplacenta secrete

A

estrogen and progesterone and hcg

304
Q

when does an embryo beome a fetus

A

when it is 8 weeks old

305
Q

what does a new fetus develop

A

placenta

umbilical cord

306
Q

give the layers from fetus to outside

A 
aminotic fluid
placneta
aminiotic sac
endometrium
myometrium
307
Q

myometrium is

A

muscular wall of uterus, used during childbirth

308
Q

intervillous spaces in placenta

A

maternal blood flows through these spaces, brought by uterine arteries and carried away by uterine veins

309
Q

where does oxygenated blood flow

A

back to the fetus from the placenta along the umbilical vein

310
Q

where does deoxygentaed blood flow

A

from the fetus from the placenta along the umbilical veins

311
Q

what are the placental villi

A

small projections that give a large surface area for gas exchange and exchange of other materials. fetal blood flows through capillaries in the villi.

312
Q

endometrium

A

lining of uterus

313
Q

what exchanges across placenta to the fetus

A 
oxygen
glucose
lipids
water
minerals
vitamins
antibodies
hormones
314
Q

what exchanges across placenta to the mother

A

co2
urea
hormones
water

315
Q

what is in the inter villus space

A

maternal blood

316
Q

what is chorion

A

forms the placental barrier, controlling what passes

317
Q

what is the basement membrane’s permability

A

freely

318
Q

adaptations of placenta capillaries carrying fetal blood

A

close to villus surface and has a very thin wall of single cells

319
Q

what is there inside the villus

A

connective tissue

320
Q

the nervous system consists of

A

thymus
spleen
transport network of lymoh nodes

321
Q

describe the first line of defence

A

inital cells not destroyed in injury send out a chemical signal to attract attention.
large macrophages enter danger zone and kill bacteria by digesting them mercilessly.
neutrophils enter from the blood, kill everything and then themselves.
inflammation.
dendritic cell activates the specific helper t cell

322
Q

neutrophils

A

enter from blood
kill everything and then themselves for safety a few days later
vomit deadly chemicals or eat the bacteria.
can explode and eject a toxic net of dna that trap and kill bacteria

323
Q

what is inflammation

A

fluid from blood (dense with complement proteins) being released into the danger zone

324
Q

describe (the actions of a) dendritic cell

A

collects samples of bacteria by ripping it into tiny parts and covering itself in it.
enters lymph nodes.
looking for a specific helper t cell that can help with this type of bacteria.
dendritic cell rubs itself against every possible t cell until it finds the one that can recognise the bacteria’s antigens

325
Q

describe the second line of defence

A

helper t cell clones itself again and again
group1 go to the danger zone to rejuvinate macrophages.
group2 go to activate b cells. eventually making 2000 antibodies a second.
antibodies flood danger zone.
they clump bacteria together to be killed

326
Q

what are b cells

A

protein super weapons that can make antiboies for every single type of bacteria.

327
Q

end of the primary immune response

A

all soldier cells kill themselves to save resources except a few helper t cells which turn into memory cells.

328
Q

b cell

A

a type of lymphocyte that, when stimulated by a particular antigen, differentiates into plasma cells that synthesize the antibodies that circulate in the blood and react with the specific antigens.

329
Q

clones of plasma cells

A

differentiated plasma cells that secrete a specific antibody and a clone of memory cells that make the antibody on subsequent encounters.

330
Q

histamine

A

a physiologically active amine found in plant and aminal tissue and released from mast cells as part of an allergic reaction in humans, it causes the dilation of capillaries, constriction of bronchial smooth muscle and decreased blood pressure

331
Q

hybridoma

A

a cell hybrid produced in vitro by the fusion of a lymphocyte that produces antibodies and a myeloma tumour cell in order to produce a continuous supply of a specific antibody.

332
Q

memory cell

A

a type of lymphocyte that is released as a specific immune response and is stored in case of a second exposure to the same antigen.

333
Q

monocolonal antibodies

A

any of the highly specific antibodies produced in large quantities by the clones of a single hybrid cell that has been formed in the laboratory by the fusion of a b cell with a tumour cell.

334
Q

t lymphocyte

A

a type of white blood cell that completes maturation in the thymus and that has various roles in the immune sysem, including the identification of specific foreign antigens in the body and the activation and deactivation of other immune cells.

335
Q

what are antigens constructully

A

proteins, polysaccharides or glycoproteins

336
Q

where are antigens found

A

on the cell wall of a bacterium, protein coat of a virus on the cell membrane of a tissue or organ transplant
as a free molecule as a toxin

337
Q

where does cell mediated immunity occur

A

within cells

338
Q

where are t lymphocytes produced

A

stem cells in the bone marrow

339
Q

explain cell mediated immunity

A

t lymphocytes produced in bone marrow and then go on to the thymus gland where they are activated
each t lymphocyte has a protein receptor embedded in its membrane that has a specific shape that will bind to one type of antigen (your body will produce millions of different types of t lymphocyte)
if the t lymphocyte binds to its specific antigen it will clone itself by mitosis
some of these cells differentiate into cytotoxic t lymphocytes
these destroy host cells infected with viruses (by releasing a cytotoxin that makes holes in the membrane) because antigens from the virus are left in the host cell membrane after infection.

340
Q

what is humoral immunity

A

physiological mechanism protects the body from pathogens and foreign substances in extracellular fluids and is part of both the innate and adaptive immune systems ( not within a cell)

341
Q

explain humoral immunity

A

after infection by a pathogen, a macrophage engulfs the microbe and antigens from the pathogen become embedded in the cell membrane of the macrophage
a b lymphocyte is activated due to the embedded antibody binding to a complementary shaped antigen
the activated b lymphocyte then divides by mitosis forming many clones
some of these clones differentiate to become plasma cells which produce antibodies. each type of plasma cell produces one type of antibody

342
Q

how many sites does each antibody have that can bind to specific seperate antigens

A

two sites. this allows a number of antibodies to bind many microbes to form a lattice like structure called an antibody antigen complex.

343
Q

what do antibodies do

A

bind antigens together (agglutination forming an antibody-antigen complex)
cause the precipitation of soluble toxins rendering it harmless
bind to receptors on the surface of pathogens preventing them from binding to the cell membranes of host cells.
activate proteins which stimulate phagocytes to engulf the antibody antigen complex.

344
Q

what is the latent period

A

the 3-14days required for the person to produce the relevant antibody.

345
Q

what happens after the latent period

A

the concentration of antibody in the blood rises rapidly and then begins to fall when the pathogen has been killed

346
Q

benefits of memory cells

A

the secondary immune response has a much shorter latent period and produces a much higher concentration of antibodies

347
Q

do phagocytes or lymphocytes produce antibodies

A

lymphocytes

348
Q

what process of phagocytes engulf bacteria by

A

endocytosis

349
Q

how many antigens to antibodies bind to

A

only one specific antigen

350
Q

where are lymphocytes stored

A

lymphnodes and thyroid

351
Q

what are polyclonal antibodies

A

the production of many different antibodies from many different lymphocytes stimualted by the many antigens on a microbes surface

352
Q

what does the MHC protein do

A

cover the antigen so the body doesnt view the macrophage as a pathogen

353
Q

stages of antibody reprodution, primary response

A

antigen production
activation of helper t cell
activation of b lymphocytes
proliferation

354
Q

what is the surface of a virus

A

protein coat/capsid

355
Q

what is the capsid of some viruses sometimes covered by

A

membane taken from the plasma membrane of the host cell

356
Q

how are unique surface molecules used

A

viruses recognize and bind to their host using molecules on the surface of the hosts cell
living organisms recognize theri own cells and cell types using surface molecules
living organisms recognize cells that are not part of the organism and also viruses by surface molecules that are not present in the organism. these moelcuels trigger the production of antibodies.

357
Q

what is the ABO blood groups system based on

A

the presence or absence of a group of glycoproteins in the membranes of red blood cells.

358
Q

what is the ABO blood group system

A

three different version of the glycoprotein. the O antigen is always present.

359
Q

how is the A antigen made in blood groups

A

adding an N-acetyl-galactosamine molecule to the O antigen

360
Q

how is the B antigen made in blood groups

A

adding galactose

361
Q

what antigens are present in an o blood group

A

o

362
Q

what antigens are present in a A blood group

A

O and A

363
Q

what antigens are present in a B blood group

A

O and B

364
Q

what antigens are present in a AB blood group

A

O, A and B

365
Q

what are basophils

A

a type of white blood cell

366
Q

what are mast cells

A

similar to basophils but are found in connective tissue

367
Q

what is histamine secreted in response to

A

local infection

368
Q

what does histamine do

A

cause the dilation of the small blood vessels in the infected area. the vessels become leaky, increasing the flow of fluid containing immune components to leave the blood vessel, resulting in both specific and non specific immune responses

369
Q

what are allergies

A

reactions by the immune system to substances in the environment that are normally harmless, such as pollen, bee stings or specific food.

370
Q

how are allergies caused

A

when substances in the allergens cause over production of basophils and mast cells, and therefore excrete excessive secretion of histamine.

371
Q

stages in antibody production

A

activation of helper t cells
activation of b cells
production of plasma cells
production of memory cells

372
Q

activation of t helper cells

A

helper t cells have antibody like receptor proteins in their plasma membrane to which one specific antigen can bind. then the helper t cell is activated, and the antigen is brought to the helper t cell by a macrophage, a type of phagocytic white blood.

373
Q

activation of b cells

A

inactive b cells have antibodies in their plasma membrane. if these antibodies match an antigen, then the antigen binds to the antibody. an activated helper t cell with receptors for the same antigen can then bind to the b cell. the activated helper t cell sends a signal to the b cell, activating it

374
Q

production of plasma cells

A

activated b cells start to divide by mitosis to form a clone of cells. these become very active, with a much greater volume of cytoplasm. they are then known as plasma cells. they have an extensive network of rER, used for the synthesis of large amounts of antibody which is then secreted by exocytosis.

375
Q

production of memory cells

A

memory cells are b cells and t cells that are formed at the same time as activated helper t cells and b cells, when a disease challenges the immune system. after the activated cells adn the antibodies produced have disappeared, the memory cells persist and allow a rapid response in case the disease is encountered again, allowing long term immunity.

376
Q

what is on the tips of the antibody molecule

A

the antigen binding sites

377
Q

what is the base of the y of the antibody molecule

A

constant region

378
Q

uses of the constant region

A

making a pathogen more recognizeable
preventing viruses from docking to host cells
neutralizing toxins produced by pathogens
binding to the surface of a pathogen cell an dbirsting it by causing the formation of pores.
sticking pathogens together (agglutination) so they cant enter host cells and phagocytes ingest them more easily.

379
Q

what does a vaccine contain

A

weakened or killed forms of the pathogen. or the chemical that acts as the pathogen

380
Q

describe the first test/use of a vaccine

A

edward jenner deliberately infected an 8 year old boy with cowpox using pus from a blister of a milkmaid with this disease. he then tried to infect the boy but he was now immune. he then tested it on 23 others including himself

381
Q

what was wrong with jenner’s vaccineexperiment

A

the child was too young to give informed consent, and he had not done tests to find out if it had harmful side effects.

382
Q

epidemiological data

A

study of the distribution, patterns and causes of disease in a population. can be used to help plan vaccination programmes, and prevent further spread.

383
Q

what are plasma cells fused with to form hybridoma cells

A

tumour cells

384
Q

describe pregnancy tests

A

urine of pregnant women contains hcg, a protein secreted by the developing embryo and later by the placenta. pregnancy tests contain monoclonal antibodies to which hcg binds. this causes a coloured band to appear, indicating that hcg was present.

385
Q

what are the extracted and purified antibodies called that are produced by cultured hybridoma cells (produced by clones of the hybridoma cell)

A

monoclonal

386
Q

how long is ther between fertilisation and a four cell embryo

A

about 48 hours

387
Q

when the four cell embryo is fomred where is it and where is it travelling

A

still in the oviduct so now migrates down to the uterus (7 day journey)

388
Q

when does the zona pellucida break down

A

once the egg cell uses up its reserves for the early embryo to grow after implantation of the blastocyst intot he endometrium lining

389
Q

what does hcg do

A

stimulate the corpus leuteum to continue the production of progesterone and estrogen, which maintain the endometrium. it also ensures that the corpus leutum remiains until the placenta is flly established and can take over the role of progesterone and estrogen

390
Q

where does fertilsiation take place

A

oviduct

391
Q

what travels by facilitted diffusion between the mother and baby

A

glucose, amino acids, vitamins, minerals

urea from baby to mother

392
Q

how do hormones travelf rom mother to baby

A

endocytosis

(and exocytosis from baby to mother

393
Q

how do viruses travel from mother to baby

A

via receptors

394
Q

What does the fetal vein carry?

A

oxygenated fetal blood away from the placenta

395
Q

what is estrogen pollution

A

increasing levels of estrogne in the environemnt

396
Q

what is hemolyiss

A

the rupture of the red blood cells membrane, leading to the release of the hemoglobin and other internal components into the surrounding fluids

397
Q

the receptors on b cells bind to

A

antigens

398
Q

what are complement proteins

A

a group of more than 20 proteins that are present in blood and tissue fluid. These are normally in an inactive form. Some of the complement proteins become activated when they are presented with antigens, this function is fulfilled by antibodies. When an antigen bound to an antibody is presented to a complement protein, the complement is activated and binds to the pathogen. This is called opsonisation . This then causes the pathogens to lyse or encourages phagocytosis.

399
Q

what is opsonisation

A

the coating of a pathogen with antbodies to promote and enhance phagocytosis

400
Q

what is zoonosis

A

transmission of a disease from animals to humans

401
Q

what is histamine produced by

A

basophils and mast cells (wbc)

402
Q

functions of histamine

A

dilate and increase the permeability of capillaries

403
Q

what is the role of LH in spermatogenesis

A

stimulates the interstitial cells to release testosterone

404
Q

what is the role of FSH in spermatogenesis

A

Stimulates meiosis I – stimulates the primary spermatocytes (2n) to produce haploid secondary spermatocytes (n).

405
Q

what is the role of testosterone in spermatogenesis

A

Stimulates:

  1. Meiosis II: the formation of spermatids from secondary spermatocytes.
  2. Differentiation of spermatids to spermatozoa.
406
Q

where is the medulla on the kindey

A

inbetween the outsie part (cortex) and pelvis

407
Q

where is the cortex on the kidney

A

on the outside

408
Q

just before birth, which hormonal levels change and in what order

A

Progesterone levels decrease, oxytocin increases, uterine contractions increase, oxytocin increases further.

409
Q

list 3 features of the bowmans capsule and glmerulus that promote rapid removal of filtrate

A

podocytes
fenestrations
high hydrostatic pressure

410
Q

explain why proteins would not be present in the filtrate in the PCT

A

large molecules incapable of passing the basement membrane of the capillary

411
Q

two features of the PCT cells are microvilli and numerous mitcohodnria. explain why

A

microvilli increase surface area for reabsorption

mitochondria allow for more active transport by supplying ATP/energy

412
Q

A diabetic has elevated levels of blood glucose. Suggest, using your knowledge of nephron function, why a common symptom of diabetes is the production of a larger than normal volume of urine

A

glucose conc of filtrate is elevated, and cannot all be reabsorbed in the PCT. water can be reabsorbed by osmosis. osmosis is less efficent and less water is absorbeddue to high solute potential.

413
Q

joint cavity function

A

cavity contains the fluid and prevents shock damage to joint and bones

414
Q

joint capsule function

A

produces synovial fluid

415
Q

cartilidge function

A

reduce friction and absorb shock

416
Q

explain how a pari of muscles causes movement

A 
limbs are moved by antagonisitic pairs of muscle, as they can only provide force when contracting
the extensor (tricep) muscle straightens the limb, and the antagonist flexes the limb. when one muscle contracts, the antagonist is extended to its orginal length.
417
Q

how do joints limit movement

A

they are desiigned to allow movement to a certain extent and in certain places. the elbow is a hinge joint that allows 180 movement in one plane only

418
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies used in pregannacy kits

A

the urine of pregnant women contains hcg, a protein secreted by the embryo and later by the placenta. preganancy test kits contain monoclonal antibodeis to which hcg binds. this causes a coloured band to appear, indicating that hcg was presen tin the urine sample, and consequently the woman is pregant.

419
Q

monoclonal antibdoies are…

A

specific. they give an accurate/precise diagnosis.

420
Q

immune response

A
  1. A macrophage engulfs the pathogen with the antigen by phagocytosis.
  2. The pathogen is partially digested in the lysosome.
  3. Macrophage presents these antigens on their membranes.
  4. Helper T-cells bind to the antigen on the macrophage, become activated, and then bind to the specific B cell type.
  5. The specific B cell type becomes activated.
  6. Activated B cells multiply to form clones of plasma cells and memory cells.
421
Q

By the end of the proximal convoluted tubule, approximately ______ of all the water, glucose and mineral ions have been reabsorbed.

A

80%

422
Q

immune response

A

A macrophage engulfs the pathogen with the antigen by phagocytosis, partially digests them and presents them on their membranes.

Helper T-cells bind to the antigen on the macrophage, become activated, and then bind to the specific B cell type.

The specific B cell type becomes activated.
Activated B cells multiply to form clones of plasma cells and memory cells.

Plasma cells secrete specific antibodies. Antibodies aid the destruction of pathogens.

Memory cells provide long-term immunity as they remain circulating in the bloodstream waiting for a secondary infection to produce more antibodies and cause a faster response.

423
Q

what is the role of lh in spermatogenesis

A

stimulates the intertesital cells to release testosterone

424
Q

FSH source

A

Pituitary gland

425
Q

FSH role in spermatogenesis

A

Stimulates meiosis I – stimulates the primary spermatocytes (2n) to produce haploid secondary spermatocytes (n).

426
Q

testosterone role in spermatogenesis

A

Stimulates:

  1. Meiosis II: the formation of spermatids from secondary spermatocytes.
  2. Differentiation of spermatids to spermatozoa.
427
Q

during fertilisation what happens immediately before th penetration of the gg membrane by a sperm

A
  1. A sperm cell penetrates the follicle cells and binds to the receptors of the zona pellucida.
  2. The acrosomal reaction occurs when hydrolytic enzymes make a hole in the zona pellucida to reach the egg membrane.
428
Q

sliding filament theory

A

An action potential arrives at the end of a motor neuron.
This causes the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Ca2+ binds to troponin on actin fibres.
This causes troponin and tropomyosin to move, exposing the binding sites on actin for myosin heads.

429
Q

what do ligaments attach together

A

bones

430
Q

what do tendons attach together

A

muscle to bone

431
Q

active immunity

A

Immunity due to the production of antibodies by the organism itself after the body’s defense mechanisms have been stimulated by antigens.

IB Biology HL (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions