Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Jaspie - Microbiology > 06 - Bacteriology > Flashcards

06 - Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of Acute Suppurative Otitis Media in children?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Second most common cause of Acute Suppurative Otitis Media in children?

A

Haemophilus influenza, non-typable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Genus: Gram (+) cocci in clusters

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Species: Catalase (+), Coagulase (+)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Species: Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), novobiocin susceptible

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Species: Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), novobiocin resistant

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Golden appearance of S. aureus on blood agar is due to what pigment:

A

staphyloxanthin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normal habitat of S. aureus in the body:

A

anterior nares and skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The enterotoxin of Staphylococcus is: heat-stable or heat-labile?

A

heat-stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This toxin of S. aureus causes epidermal separation. Identify this toxin. What disease does it cause?

A

Exfoliatin

-causes scalded skin syndrome (Ritter disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Difference between SSS and TEN:

A
  • SSS: separation of skin at the stratum granulosum

- TEN: separation at the dermo-epidermal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This toxin of S. aureus causes toxic shock syndrome:

A

TSST-1 (toxic shock syndrome toxin 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This toxin causes marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis

A

S. aureus alpha toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Identify: bacterium that is the most common cause of acute endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Identify: bacterium that is the most common cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis. Specify!

A

viridans Streptococcus, specifically, Streptococcus sanguis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Identify: bacterium that is the most common cause of native valve infection

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Identify: bacterium that is the most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Identify: usual scenario (food) of Staphylococcus aureus gastroenteritis

A

salad with mayonnaise (potato or tuna)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Identify: usual scenario (2) of Staphylococcus aureus Toxic shock syndrome

A
  • tampon-using menstruating women

- nasal packing for epistaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

results of blood CS in TSS:

A

-negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drug: Treatment for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Drug: Treatment for VRSA

A

linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the mechanism of development of resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to methicillin:

A

altered penicillin-binding proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

normal habitat of Staphylococcus epidermidis in the body:

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain predisposition of prosthetics to Staphylococcus epidermidis infection.

A

S. epidermidis produces glycocalyx which adheres well to foreign bodies and forms biofilms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Identify the organism: Most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Identify the organism: Most common cause of septic arthritis in prosthetic joints

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Identify the organism: Most common cause of ventriculoperitoneal shunt infections?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Drug: Treatment for Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Identify: Second most common cause of UTIs in sexually active women.

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Identify:

catalase (-)
alpha hemolytic
opthochin-resistant

A

viridans Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Identify:

catalase (-)
alpha hemolytic
opthochin-susceptible

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Identify:

catalase (-)
beta hemolytic
bacitracin-resistant

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Identify:

catalase (-)
beta hemolytic
bacitracin-susceptible

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Identify:

catalase (-)
gamma-hemolytic

A

group D streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Enumerate: Streptococcal groups that are PYR-positive

A

groups A and D streptococci

PYR-negative: all the rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

normal habitat of Streptococcus pyogenes:

A

oropharynx (throat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

This virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes activates plasminogen:

A

streptokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

This virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes degrades DNA in exudates or necrotic tissues:

another name for this virulence factor:

A
  • streptodornase

- DNAse B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

This virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes inactivates C5a complement:

A

C5a peptidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  • This toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes is the basis for ASO testing for evidence of antecedent pharyngitis:
  • ASO stands for:
A

Streptolysin O

-Anti-Streptolysin O (antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

-This toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes causes scarlet fever:

A

Erythrogenic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  • Identify: this condition refers to rapidly progressive infection of deep subcutaneous tissues
  • what virulence factor facilitates this condition?
A
  • Necrotizing fascitis

- Exotoxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Identify: test for documenting antecedent Streptococcal skin infection

A

Anti-DNAse B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Another name for Streptococcus pyogenes:

A

Group-A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Possible complication of Impetigo contagiosa:

A

Post-Streptococcus glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Identify: superficial infection extending into dermal lymphatics

A

Erysipelas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  • Identify: deeper infection involving subcutaneous/dermal tissues
  • what virulence factor facilitates this condition?
A
  • Cellulitis

- Hyaluronidase (spreading factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Identify: most common bacterial cause of pharyngitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Identify: Test for determining immunity or susceptibility to Scarlet Fever:

A

Dick test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

This toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes causes Toxic Shock Syndrome:

A

pyogenic Exotoxin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  • Pathophysiology of Acute Rheumatic Fever:

- What type of hypersensitivity?

A
  • cross reaction of M protein antigen to the antigens of heart, joints, and brain
  • type II hypersensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Enumerate: (2) steptococcal infections that can lead to Post-Strep glomerulonephritis

A
  1. Post-pharyngitic

2. Post-impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Enumerate: (3) Infections with these organims can cause severe pulmonary hemorrhage:

A
  1. Bacillus anthracis
  2. Leptospira
  3. Treponema pallidum (in congenital syphillis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Another name for Streptococcus agalactiae:

A

Group B streptococcus

GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Enumerate: species belonging to group D streptococcus

A

Enterococcus faecalis

Streptococcus bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

normal habitat of group D strep in the human body:

A

colon, urethra, female genial tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This organism causes endocarditis in patients who have undergone GI tract surgery:

A

Enterococcus faecalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Treatment for Group D streptococcus:

A

Penicillin + gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does a positive Quellung reaction signify?

A

Presence of a capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Enumerate: encapsulated bacteria

A 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Neisseria meningitidis
Salmonella typhi
B group streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae)

Some Killers Have Pretty Nice and Shiny Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Identify: what organism is the most common cause of CAP?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

vaccine against Steptococcus pneumoniae

A

polyvalent (23-type) polysaccharide vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Enumerate: species belonging to viridans Streptococci

A

Streptococcus mutans

Streptococcus sanguis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Normal habitat of viridans Streptococci

A

oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Normal habitat of Bacillus anthracis:

A

soil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How is Bacillus anthracis transmitted?

A

inhalation of spores from animal hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Form of anthrax in which direct epidermal contact with the spores causes formation of a malignant pustule with subsequent eschar and central necrosis

A

Cutaneous anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Form of anthrax in which ingestion of live spores lead to upper GI ulceration, edema, and sepsis

A

Gastrointestinal anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  • Form of anthrax caused by inhalation of the spores. Another name for this?
  • What is the deadly complication of this disease?
A
  • inhalational anthrax (woolsorter’s disease)

- massive pulmonary hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Enumerate: two toxins of Bacillus cereus

A
  • cholera-like enterotoxin (heat-labile enterotoxin, diarrheal form)
  • staphylococcal-like enterotoxin (heat-stable enterotoxin, emetic form)

Nagtatae at Nagsusuka!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where is the heat-stable enterotoxin of B. cereus formed?

A

Reheated food (rice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Where is the heat-labile enterotoxin of B. cereus formed?

A

Produced in the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Toxin of Clostridium botulinum:

A

Botulinum toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Pathogenesis of botulinum toxin:

A

Blocks acetylcholine release, causing flaccid paralysis (descending pattern)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

commercial form of the botulinum toxin:

A

Botox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Enumerate: triad of botulism:

A
  1. symmetric descending paralysis (with prominent bulbar involvement)
  2. absence of fever
  3. intact sensorium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  • Pathogenesis of infant botulism.

- another name for this condition?

A

-babies infest spores in household dust or raw honey, symptomatic due to the lack of competitive bowel microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

treatment of botulism:

A

Metronidazole or penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  • Identify: rapidly spreading gangrene occurring in dirty wounds infected by bacteria that give off a foul-smelling gas.
  • what organism causes this?
A

Gas gangrene

Clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What toxin causes gas gangrene?

A

alpha toxin (of Clostridium perfringens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pseudomembranous colitis?

What toxins are involved?

A
  • antibiotics kill flora of the gut, increasing population of Clostridium difficile
  • Exotoxins A and B inhibit GTPases, leading to apoptosis and death of enterocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Enumerate: (3) antibiotics often associated with pseudomembranous colitis:

A
  • clindamycin
  • ampicillin
  • 2nd and 3rd gen cephalosporin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Species of Clostridium associated with traumatic wound infections:

A

Clostridium tertium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Species of Clostridium implicated in toxic shock syndrome associated with septic abortion

A

Clostridium sordellii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Species of Clostridium associated with nontraumatic myonecrosis in immunocompromised patients:

A

Clostridium septicum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Identify: test for the toxigenicity of Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

Elek test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Treatment for Diptheria:

A

Penicillin G and antitoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes that interacts with E-cadherin on the surface of the cells

A

Internalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes that helps the organism escape from phagosomes:

A

listeriolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes that propels the bacteria through the membrane of one human cell and into another

A

actin rockets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
  • How is early onset neonatal listeriosis transmitted?
  • another name for this disease?
  • manifestations?
A
  • transplacentally
  • granulomatosis infantiseptica
  • multiorgan abscess and disseminated granulomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
  • How is late onset neonatal listeriosis transmitted?

- manifestations?

A
  • transmitted during childbirth

- meningitis or meninggoencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Treatment of Listeriosis:

A

ampicillin with or without gentamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Prevention of listeriosis:

A

Pregnant women should avoid ingesting unpasteurized milk products and raw vegetable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Identify:

  • Gram (-)
  • encapsulated
  • ferments maltose and glucose
A

Neisseria meningitidis

Meningitidis = with Maltose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Identify:

  • Gram (-)
  • insignificant capsule
  • ferments glucose only
A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

gonorhoeae = Glucose only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Most common cause of meningitis among children 2-18 years old:

A

Neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Identify: dissemination of meningococci into the blood stream

A

Meningococcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Identify: most severe form of meningococcemia, with bilateral hemorrhage of the adrenal glands

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Treatment of meningococcemia:

A

Penicillin G

103
Q

The modified Thayer-Martin medium contains the following antibiotics: (enumerate (3))

A
  • Vancomycin
  • colistin
  • nystatin
104
Q

Endotoxin of Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

lipooligosaccharide

105
Q

What organism is usually co-infective with N. gonorrhoeae?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

106
Q

What organism is the most common cause of urethritis?

A

Neisseria gonorhoeae

107
Q

What organism is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Neisseria gonorhoeae

108
Q

What organism is the most common cause of septic arthritis in sexually active adults?

A

Neisseria gonorhoeae

109
Q

Treatment of gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone + doxycycline

110
Q

What diseases does nontypable Haemophilus influenza cause? Enumerate (3)

A
  • sinusitis
  • otitis media
  • pneumonia
111
Q

Treatment of Haemophilus influenzae

A

Ceftriaxone

112
Q

What toxin of Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough?

A

tracheal cytotoxin

113
Q
  • Enumerate: Phases of Pertussis, in order

- in which phase is the whooping cough present?

A
  1. incubation
  2. catarrhal
  3. paroxysmal (whooping cough)
  4. convalescent
114
Q

Stain used to visualize Legionella pneumophila:

A

silver stain

115
Q

Virulence factor of Legionella pneumophila

116
Q

Symptoms of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila (2)

A

nonbloody diarrhea

hyponatremia

117
Q

HACEK organisms

A
  • Haemophilus aphrophilus
  • Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
  • Cardiobacterium hominis
  • Ekenella corrodens
  • Kingella kingae
118
Q

Identify: Virulent factor of E. coli used for motility:

A

H (flagellum)

119
Q

Identify: virulent factor of the E. coli (endotoxin)

120
Q

Second most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

121
Q

Most common cause of community-acquired UTI?

122
Q

Treatment of E. coli:

A

Ampicillin or sulfonamides for UTI, 3rd gen cephalosporins for menigitis

123
Q

Triad in Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome (enumerate)

A
  1. Hemolytic anemia
  2. Uremia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
124
Q

Identify: Test for antibodies of Salmonella:

A

Widal test

125
Q

Habitat of Salmonella typhi:

A

human colon only

126
Q

Habitat of Salmonella enteritidis:

A

enteric tract of humans and animals

127
Q

what virulence factor of Salmonella typhi is responsible for the pathogenesis of typhoid fever?

A

Vi (virulence) capsular antigen

128
Q
  • Best source of specimen for culture of Salmonella in week 1 of infection?
  • week 2?
  • wee 3?
A
  1. blood
  2. urine
  3. stool
129
Q

Osteomyelitis in burn patients is most likely caused by:

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

130
Q

Osteomyelitis in IV drug abusers is most likely caused by: (2)

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus

- Pseudomonas aeruginosa

131
Q

Osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell anemia is most likely caused by:

A

Salmonella choleraesuis

132
Q

Enterotoxin produced by Shigella:

A

Shiga toxin

133
Q

Identify: most common cause of bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella sonnei (Duval’s bacillus)

134
Q

Identify: most common cause of epidemic dysentery:

A

Shigella dysenteriae type (Shiga bacillus)

135
Q

Identify: causes the most severe form of bacillary dysentery:

A

Shigella dysenteriae type (Shiga bacillus)

136
Q

Treatment of bacillary dysentery:

A

Ciprofloxacin

137
Q

Species of Vibrio that live in human colon only:

A

Vibrio cholera

138
Q

Enterotoxin caused by Vibrio:

A

choleragen

139
Q

Most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis:

A

Campylobacter jejuni

140
Q

Enumerate: syndromes (2) associated with Campylobacter jejuni infection:

A
  • Guillian-Barre syndrome

- Reiter syndrome

141
Q

Enumerate: Urease-positive bacteria (4)

A
  • Proteus mirabilis
  • Ureaplasma urelyticum
  • Helicobacter pylori
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
142
Q

describe: Pathogenesis of H. pylori

A
  • damages goblet cells

- urease produces ammonia, neutralizing the acids of the stomach (for its own survival)

143
Q

(2) tests for detection of H. pylori:

A
  • urease breath test

- EGD with biopsy

144
Q

Helicobacter pylori is associated with these malignancies: (enumerate, 2)

A
  • gastric carcinoma

- MALT lymphomas

145
Q

Enumerate: components of Reiter syndrome (triad)

A
  • Uveitis
  • Urethritis
  • reactive arthritis

Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t bend my knee

146
Q

Identify: Most common cause of pneumonia in alcoholics:

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

147
Q

How to treat Klebsiella

A

preferrably culture-guided (cephalosporins alone or with aminoglycosides

148
Q

This species of bacteria is associated with struvite stones and staghorn calculi

A

Proteus mirabilis

149
Q

Treatment of Proteus mirabilis:

A

Co-trimoxazole or ampicillin

150
Q

This virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa damages the cilia and mucosal cells

151
Q

Enumerate: (4) skin and soft tissue conditions associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection

A
  • burn wound infections
  • hot tub folliculitis
  • skin graft loss due to infection
  • green nail syndrome
152
Q

Most common cause of otitis externa:

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

153
Q

Most common cause of malignant otitis externa in diabetics:

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

154
Q

Most common cause of chronic suppurative otitis media

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

155
Q

Enumerate: (2) types of pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
  • Ventilator-associated pneumonia

- high-risk CAP

156
Q

3rd most common cause of nosocomial UTIs

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

157
Q

What organism must always be considered when treating infectious diseases in diabetic patients?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

158
Q

Drug that is added for refractory cases of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection:

A

Rifampicin

159
Q

Predominant anaerobe of the human colon

A

Bacteroides fragilis

160
Q

How is Bacteroides fragilis transmitted?

A

spreads to blood or peritoneum during bowel trauma, perforation, or surgery

161
Q

Bacteria whose LPS has low endotoxic activity:

A

Bacteroides fragilis

162
Q

Treatment for Bacteroides fragilis (3):

A
  • metronidazole
  • clindamycin
  • cefoxitin
163
Q

Drug that is given as prophylaxis before GI surgeries:

164
Q

Enumerate: (4) zoonoses

A
  • Brucella abortus
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Yersinia pestis
  • Pasteurella multocida

Bugs From Your Pets

165
Q

Identify: animal reservoir of Brucella abortus:

166
Q

Treatment of Brucellosis:

A

doxycyclin + rifampin

167
Q

Enumerate: animal reservoir of Francisella tularensis (3)

A

rabbits, deer, and rodents

168
Q

How is Francisella tularensis transmitted? Give the genus of the vector

A

bite of ticks (Dermacentor)

169
Q

treatment of Tularemia:

A

streptomycin or gentamicin

170
Q

most virulent bacteria (ever???)

A

Yersinia pestis

171
Q

Reservoir of Yesinia pestis:

172
Q

How is Yesinia pestis transmitted?

A

flea bite or inhalation

173
Q

Term for armpit or groin lymphadenopathy

174
Q

Treatment of Yersinia pestis:

A

streptomycin, and tetracyclines

175
Q

Enumerate (2): Animal reservoir of Pasteurella multocida:

A

cats and dogs

176
Q

How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted?

A

animal bites

177
Q

treatment of Pasteurella multocida

A

Penicillin G

178
Q

2 methods of acid-fast staining:

A

Kinyoun

Ziehl-Neelsen

179
Q

Identify: fatty acids in the cell walls of acid-fast organisms:

A

mycolic acid

180
Q

Identify: assay that tests for drug resistance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

luciferase assay

181
Q
  • most important virulence factor for Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
  • a.k.a.
A

cord factor

a.k.a. mycolic acid

182
Q

This virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis triggers cell-mediated immunity leading to granuloma formation, and delayed type hypersensitivity

A

tuberculin surface protein

183
Q

Enumerate: 2 typess of lesions caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection:

A
  1. Exudative lesions

2. Granulomatous lesions

184
Q

Describe the histopathology of granulomatous lesions:

A

central area of Langhan giant cells surrounded by a zone of epitheloid cells

185
Q

Enumerate: 3 interpretations of positive PPD skin test result:

A
  • current infection or active disease
  • past exposure
  • BCG vaccine
186
Q

Enumerate: 2 interpretations of negative PPD skin test result:

A
  • no infection

- anergy (e.g. in immunocompromised, malnutririon, etc.)

187
Q

Most common extrapulmonary TB:

188
Q

What is MAC? (mycobacterium)

A

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex

189
Q

At what CD4 levels is MAC seen in immunocompromised patients?

190
Q

Treatment for MAC:

A

Azithromycin + ethambutol

191
Q

Reservoir of Mycobacterium leprae (enumerate)

A

humans, armadillo

192
Q

Lethal form of leprosy

A

Lepromatous Leprosy

193
Q

Leonine facies are seen in what condition:

A

Lepromatous leprosy

194
Q

Identify: tender red nodules or humps on both shins that signal acute flare-ups of lepromatous leprosy

A

erythema nodosum leprosum

195
Q

Enumerate: 2 species of actinomycetes:

A
  • Actinomyces israelii

- Nocardia asteroides

196
Q

treatment of actinomycosis

A

penicillin G + drainage

Sulfur for Nocardia; for Actinomyces, use Penicillin G
S-N-A-P

197
Q

treatment of nocardiosis

A

co-trimoxazole + drainage

Sulfur for Nocardia; for Actinomyces, use Penicillin G
S-N-A-P

198
Q

Species of bacterium implicated among 5-15 y.o with persistent pulmonary infection

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

199
Q

Smallest free-living organism

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

200
Q

Virulence factor of Mycoplasma pneumoniae that facilitates attachment, inhibition of ciliary motion, and necrosis

A

toll-like receptor 2 protein (P1 adhesin)

201
Q
  • most common type of atypical pneumonia

- causative organism?

A
  • Walking pneumonia

- Mycoplasma pneumoniae

202
Q

DOC for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

eryhtromycin or azithromycin

203
Q

Bacterium that has no cell wall

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

204
Q

Only bacteria with cholesterol in cell membrane

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

205
Q

These are autoantibodies that target host human RBCs and cause them to clump together at cold temperatures; expressed as a virulence factor of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

cold agglutinins

206
Q

Enumerate: 3 species of spirochetes:

A
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Leptospira interrogans
207
Q

Most important diagnostic test in testing for Primary syphillis

A

dark-field microscopy

208
Q

Screening tests (2) for secondary/tertiary syphillis

209
Q

Identify: confirmatory test for secondary/tertiary syphillis

A

FTA-ABS (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody test)

210
Q

term for nontender ulcer in the genitals

A

chancre

non-tendER ang chancER!!!

211
Q
  • term for painful ulcer in the genitals

- what is the causative organism?

A
  • chancroid

- Haemophilus ducreyi

212
Q

Lesion characteristic in secondary syphillis

A

condyloma lata

213
Q

Lesion characteristic in tertiary syphillis

214
Q
  • Condition: degeneration of the dorsal columns of the spinal cord and dorsal roots
  • this condition is seen in what stage of treponemal infection?
A
  • tabes dorsalis

- tertiatry syphillis

215
Q
  • Identify: condition where the pupils constrict to accomodate to nearby objects but are unable to constrict as a reaction to light.
  • Another name for this condition?
A
  • Argyll-Robertson pupil

- a.k.a. prostitute’s pupil

216
Q

Most common cause of death in congenital syphillis:

A

pulmonary hemorrhage

217
Q

Treatment of Treponema:

A

Penicillin G

218
Q

This reaction refers to the influenza-like symptoms few hours after receiving penicillin, due to lysis of treponemes

A

Jarsich-Herxheimer reaction

219
Q

Largest medically important bacteria

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

220
Q

How is Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted?

A

Bite of deer ticks (Ixodes)

221
Q

Skin lesion at the early stages of Lyme disease

A

erythema chronicus migrans

222
Q

Skin lesion at the late stages of Lyme disease

A

acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans

223
Q

Non-skin manifestations of lyme disease: (enumerate 3)

A

1st degree AV block,
meningitis
Bell’s palsy

224
Q

How is Leptospira interrogans transmitted?

A

contact with animal urine

225
Q

gold standard for testing for Lepstospira interrogans:

A

leptoMAT (leptospire microscropic agglutination test)

226
Q

2 phases of leptopirosis

A
  1. Acute leptospiremic phase

2. Immune leptospiruric phase

227
Q

Enumerate: 2 manifestations in acute leptospiremic phase:

A
  • calf tenderness

- conjunctival suffusion

228
Q
  • Identify: most severe form of Leptospirosis.
  • Enumerate: triad of symptoms
  • most common cause of death in this form of Leptospirosis:
A
  • Weil syndrome
  • jaundice, bleeding, uremia
  • pulmonary failure from massive pulmonary hemorrhage
229
Q

Treatment for mild leptospirosis:

A

doxycycline

230
Q

Treatment for severe leptospirosis

A

ceftriaxone

231
Q

Enumerate: 4 manifestations of immune leptospiruric phase:

A
  • aseptic meningitis
  • pulmonary involvement
  • hepatic necrosis
  • glomerulonephritis (immune complex deposition)

head, lung, liver, kidney!!!

232
Q

This species of bacterium is an energy parasite that uses host ATP:

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

233
Q

The cell walls of Chlamydia trachomatis lack this sugar building block:

A

Muramic acid (N-acetylmuramic acid, or NAM)

234
Q

Enumerate: 2 species of obligate intracellular bacteria:

A

Ricketssia

Chlamydia

235
Q

What is the most common STD overall?

236
Q
  • Enumerate: cellular forms of Chlamydia trachomatis (2).

- Which one is inactive? intracellular?

A
  • Elementary body (inactive, extracellular)

- Reticulate body (active, intracellular)

237
Q

How does the active form of Chlamydia trachomatis enter the cells?

A

via Endocytosis.

Elementary body = Enfectious form, Enters cell via Endocytosis

238
Q
  • Identify: chronic conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis that progress to scarring and blindness
  • What subtypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause this?
A
  • Trachoma
  • types A-C

A to C, cant See!!!

239
Q

What subtypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause genital infection?

A

types D-K

my D To your K

240
Q

Enumerate: (2) infections that are associated with Reiter syndrome:

A
  • Chlamydia trachomatis

- Campylobacter jejuni

241
Q

Complication of pelvic inflammatory disease:

A

infertility

242
Q

What subtypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause neonatal pneumonia?

243
Q
  • Identify: disease manifested by the formation of buboes, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
  • what subtypes cause this?
A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

-subtypes L1-L3

244
Q
  • Enumerate: 3 causes of atypical pneumonia

- What makes the pneumonia atypical?

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae- walking pneumonia
  • Legionella pneumophila - (+) diarrhea and hyponatremia
  • Chlamydophila pneumoniae - increased risk of atherosclerosis
245
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia STD:

A

azithromycin

246
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia conjunctivitis:

A

erythromycin

247
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia lymphagranuloma venereum:

A

doxycycline

248
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia psittacosis:

A

azithromycin

249
Q
  • Diagnostic test for the detection of Rickettsiae

- explain the mechanism of this reaction

A
  • Weil-Felix reaction

- cross-reaction with antigens of OX strains of Proteus vulgaris

250
Q

DOC for all rickettsial infections:

A

doxycycline

251
Q

Microorganism that causes Cat scratch disease:

A

Bartonella henselae

252
Q

Identify: Manifestation of cat scratch disease in immunocompetent individuals:

A

Cat scratch fever

253
Q

Identify: Manifestation of cat scratch disease in immunocompromised individuals:

A

Bacillary angiomatosis

Jaspie - Microbiology (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions