Year 2 CAP TEST QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE (got 63%) Flashcards

1
Q

The three stages of Dupuytren’s contracture are the early, involutional (active) and the residual (advanced) phase What are the the main cells that predominate the active contractile phase (involutional)?

A

The myofibroblasts predominate the active phase and are capable of contraction

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2
Q

What are risk factors associated with Dupuytren’s contracture?

A

Alcohol Smoking Diabetes mellitus

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3
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpg-15AA3100F974D10FCA2.png

A

E - The growth plate is actually a relatively weak part of bone as injuries can result hear

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4
Q

Prepubertal overweight adolescent boy, presents with pain in the groin and the knee with a limp What is the diagnosis?

A

SUFE -the growth plate is not strong enough to support the adolescents weight and the epiphysis slips

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5
Q

Anthropometric measurements What is used to assess upper extremity muscle strength? What measurement provides an estimate of height?

A

Hand grip dynamometry - upper extremity muscle strength Ulna length - provides an estimate of the height

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6
Q

What does triceps skinfold thickness estimate?

A

Triceps skinfold thickness estimates the total body fat

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7
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpg-15AA3160E505430AFE8.png

A

Waist circumference is the best predictor of cardiovascular risk Mid upper arm circumference reflex muscle mass and subcutaneous fat

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8
Q

Which investigation is not appropriate?

A

All investigations are appropriate however the initial investigation to be carried out would be D - Urine beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) to determine whether pregnancy is the cause

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9
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in this scenario also?

A

History is suggestive of Grave’s disease First step would be to carry out a thyroid function test so D.

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10
Q

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A

The area missed most frequently is C - Area 3

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11
Q

Behaviour in which a child appears stressed, exhibiting tension movements, activated by departure and return of the caretaker What type of behaviour temperament/attachment is this?

A

This is disorganised attachment

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12
Q

A child who is tense on return or departure of the mother? What is this type of attachment?

A

The is disorganized attachement

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13
Q

Readily explores, using carer as a secure base. Cries infrequently. Easily put down after being held. Confident. What is this?

A

Secure attachment

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14
Q

What are the two types of anxious attachment?

A

Ambivalent and avoidant attachment

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15
Q

A child who is unsure how to respond to the parent when he or she returns Can be distressed or uncertain Typically explores little and is often wary of strangers Which type of attachemnt is this?

A

This is anxious ambivalent attachment

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16
Q

Descrbe avoidant attachment?

A

the child is not distressed when parent enters the room Pays little attention to the parent (treats almost like the stranger)

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17
Q

Child with a positive overall mood. Eats at regular intervals and is readily approachable What is this?

A

This is an easy temperament child

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18
Q

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A

Child is tense/distressed on arrival of mother - B disorganized attachment Usually sits alone and is distressed/uncertain on arrival - AMbivalent attachment - F Easy child - Easy temperament - C

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19
Q

When red reflexes are diminished on examination of the eye, what does this make you think in an elderly patient?

A

Cataracts

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20
Q

If an elderly patient has gradual central vision loss and has haemorrhage on macula with drusen depositis (yellow deposits) What do you think? If there is a central haemorrhage in the macula instead of the drusen depositis, with sudden central visual loss then what do you think?

A

Think dry age related macular degenration Think wet age related macular degenratiojn

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21
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA396968219AE682.png

A
  1. F - Cataracts 2. E - Wet age related macular degenration
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22
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA3C5A2A0712CD01.png

A

A - ulnar neuropathy Ulnar nerve gives sensory innervation to the 4th and 5th digits

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23
Q

When a patients lens becomes sclerotic with age and they can no longer read close work, what is this known as?

A

This is called presbyopia

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24
Q

Also, what disease is this man likely to have?

A

B. Pigmentation is due to ACTH Man is likely to have Addison’s disease

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25
Q

What is the most accurate investigation to assess prolapsed discs?

A

Most accurate - MRI

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26
Q

2The type of compression fracture related to high-energy axial loading spinal trauma that results in disruption of the posterior veertbral body cortex What is this?

A

This is knwon as a Burst fracture

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27
Q

the eponymous name given to a burst fracture of C1?

A

Jefferson fracture (axial loading on back or neck eg caused by diving)

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28
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpg-15AAA4A25565F49C31B.png

A

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA4AD1CD23303788.png

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29
Q

A 65 year old patient complains of left ankle swelling for many months. He has very little pain. There is slight erythema over the ankle and the foot seems insensate. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A

Charcot arthropathy

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30
Q

What is the other name for charcot arthropathy?

A

Neuropathic arthropathy

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31
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA529ED31F3CDE00.png

A

D - Trochanteric bursitis from the prominent metalwork

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32
Q

What is the most common cause of neonatal jaundice? Name 2other causes?

A

Physiological jaundice 2 other causes - hypothyoridism and neonatal infection

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33
Q

What is the most common type of psoriasis?

A

Chronic plaque psoariasis - psoriasis vulgaris

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34
Q

What is the initial treatment for psoriasis if mild?

A

Topical emollients

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35
Q

What type of psoriasis usually appears about 2to3 weeks after a streptococcal infection and small salmon pink spots all over the skin?

A

Guttate psoriasis

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36
Q

If psoriasis is well controlled and mild, what is the initial treatment?

A

The initial treatment would be for emollients

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37
Q

What are the two types of topical agents given for psoriasis? Which is given first?

A

If under good control then Vitamin D analogue However can give Topical corticosteroids

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38
Q

What is the name of the main vitamin D analogue given for psoriasis? What is the next step for psoriasis if topical treatments fail to work?

A

Cacipitriol Next step is phototherapy

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39
Q

Very poorly controlled significant plaque psoriaiss managemtn after topicals, phototherapy moves on to what final treatments?

A

Methotrexate if no contra indications Followed by a biological agent eg adaluminab

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40
Q

Which type of phototherapy has a greater chance of causing cancer?

A

PUVA

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41
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA66F5AA11087640.png

A
  1. H - topical Vitamin D anaologue 2. B - UVB phototherapy 3. A - methotrexate
42
Q

Open reduction is where the fracture fragments are exposed surgically by dissecting the tissues. Closed reduction is the manipulation of the bone fragments without surgical exposure of the fragments. Which is the preffered managemnt?

A

Closed reduction is the preferred managemnt Open reduction usually only takes place where there is soft tissue entrapment

43
Q

What foramen of the skull does the internal carotid artery pass through? What foramen does the middle meningeal artery?

A

ICA - Carotid canal Middle meningeal - foramen spinosum Foramen spinosum is lateral to the foramen rotundum

44
Q

What is the most biologically active form of thyroid hormone?

A

Tri-iodothyronine(T3)

45
Q

What are the three main thyroid hormone carriers in the blood? Which is the main thyorid hormone carrier?

A

Thyroxine binding globulin - 70% Thyroxine binding pre-albumin Albumin

46
Q

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A

J - Mono-iodo tyrosine (MIT)

47
Q

What is the patient describing?

A

Patient is describing gastroparaesis D. Autonomic neuropathy is the underlying neurological process

48
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA74C5FE595A3251.png

A

E - Dupuytrens contracture

49
Q

3 year old girl develops lip and tongue swelling after eating a peanut butter sandwich What is this mediated by?

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE cells

50
Q

When are hands washed with soap instead of with alcohol gel?

A

Soap and water if hands are visibily soiled, contact with bodily fluids, dealing with patients with either Cdifficle or MRSA

51
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA78A9B278C8CF0E.png

A

D - Prior to inserting intravenous canula

52
Q

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A

A

53
Q

What type of hearing loss does presbycusis cause?

A

Causes sensorineural hearing loss and is due to age

54
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA7C797304A83B3B.png

A

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA7CA87A307504D5.png

55
Q

When Xrays are focussed in front of a persons retina they require corrective lenses. Which type of lens is required? What is their site called?

A

Require a concave lens They are miopic

56
Q

What type of lens does somebody who is astigmatic or hypermetropic (long sighted) require?

A

Astigmatic - a cylindrical lens Hypermetropic - convex lens

57
Q

What does this child have and what age group does it usually affect?

A

This child has Bronchiolitis Usually affects children under the age of 2

58
Q

For compartment syndrome, you can get limb ischaemia What are the 5Ps of limb ischaemia?

A

Pale, Pallor, Pain, Paraesthesia, Pulses

59
Q

What is the most reliable early stage finding for compartment syndrome? When does loss of pulses present?

A

Pain out of proportion is the most common syptom Loss of pulses is usually a late stage finidng

60
Q

What intracompartmental pressure is diagnostic of compartment syndrome? What is the treatment?

A

Intracompartmental pressure greater than 30mmHg is diagnostic Treat with a fasciotomy

61
Q

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A

A -Prosthesis loosening

62
Q

Which type of hepatitis requires a co-exisiting infection with another hepatitis? How is the hepatitis transmitted?

A

Hepatitis D requires a coinfection with hepatitis B Transmitted via blood

63
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA879DBF3995C994.png

A

the circulating blood volume decreases in the septic patient - A Heart rate increases in a septic patient

64
Q

This long bone has a tuberosity and a malleolus What bone and what attaches at the tuberosity?

A

This is the tibia Patellar tendon attaches at the tuberosity

65
Q

Which bone forms part of the acetabulum? Where does the biceps tendon insert?

A

Ilium forms part of the acetabulum Biceps tendon inserts at the radial tuberosity

66
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAA8CDAD15C144993.png

A

E - Dermatitis herpetiformis - blisters at flexor surfaces

67
Q

Which antibiotic should not be used in children under the age of 12?

A

Tetracycline

68
Q

Apart from the LOAF muscles of the hand (supplied by the median nerve), what supplies all the other intrinsic muscle of the hand?

A

The ulnar nerve

69
Q

What nerve supplies sensation to the little finger? Which supplies sensation of the anatomical snuffbox and dorsum of 2lateral fingers of hand?

A

Little finger recieves sensation from the ulnar nerve Radial nerve supplies anatomical snuffbox

70
Q

What is hyperextension of the MCP joints and flexion of the DIP and PIP known as?

A

Claw hand

71
Q

What are the LOAF muscles? What nerve injury prevents opposition of the thumb?

A

LOAF muscles - lateral lumbricals, opponens pollicis (opposition of the thumb), abductor pollicis brevis and flexor pollicis brevis Median nerve injury prevents opposition of the thumb

72
Q

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A

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAAA582C34D9F4212.png

73
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAAA740AF5E0B1ED2.png

A
    • Lateral right knee pain - Common peroneal nerve - B 2. A - Anterior cruciate ligament, unable to weight bear and instability
74
Q

What is used for long term diabetic control? What is used to identify peripheral neuropathy by assessing 10different aspects of the foot?

A

HbA1c 10g Monofilament test

75
Q

Best tool for checking for retinopathy

A

Fundoscopy

76
Q

How does Menieres present?

A

Vertigo - vomiting can happen during the vertigo Associated with hearing loss and tinnitus Aural fullness Lasts a few hours

77
Q

What is the best imaging technique to identify if there is a vestibular schwannoma or not? This is used to examine in a unilateral hearing loss

A

Use MRI

78
Q

What is the anatomy of the paranasal sinuses best seen on?

A

Best seen on CT scan

79
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAAB0B9744C1D14A2.png

A
  1. Delayed gross motor development (sit unsupported is achieved at 3months) 2. Concern about language/hearing development ( starting to vocalise is 3 months) 3. Gross developmental delay
80
Q

What is normal at 6 and 18 months of development?

A

18 months - Gross - child can run, Fine motor - child can build 3 blocks, Language and hearing - 5-20words/points to body parts, Social - Feeds with spoon 6months - Gross - Pushes up on arms in prone, Fine motor and vision - Grasps toys, palmar grasp hand to hand, Language - Babbles, Social skills - Friendly with strangers

81
Q

What are exclamation mark hairs pathognomonic off?

A

Pathogonomonic off Alopecia areta

82
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAABF03A607551B26.png

A

D - cortisol H - Oxytocin (synthetic oxytocin can be used to induce labour as causes contraction)

83
Q

People with renal impairment may develop gout arthropathy

A

EDefinition

84
Q

What organism causes this?

A

B - croup Caused by paraninfluenza virus

85
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAAC59FE5630E3E40.png

A
  1. E 2. A - crossing over of fibres causes it at opposite side 3. J - Temporal causes superior quadrantanopia due to its fibres coming from the inferior reitina (the optic radiation has parietal and temporal radiations)
86
Q

Cause of infectious diarrhoea with effects mediated by toxins More common in people taking PPIs and more likely in patients who have taken drugs to alter their normal gut flora What is this?

A

This is Clostridium difficile (C.difficle) Non severe - metronidazole Severe - oral vancomycin recurrent - fidomaxacin

87
Q

What are these patient suspected to have?

A
  1. wegenr’s granulomatosis 2. Sjorgern’s - positive schrimer test 3. Systemic lupus erythematous
88
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAACD9F740A6B0F52.png

A
  1. H - fibromyalgia 2. G - prolapsed intervetebral disc 3. F - dermatomyositis (proximal muscle weakness)
89
Q

Which hormone triggers ovulation? What causes urticaria? (nettle rash)

A

Lutienzing hormone Mast cell degranulation

90
Q

What drugs are urticarial rections a known aside effect of?

A

Ace inhibitos, codeine and aspirin - pink wheals Doxycycline and bendroflumethiazide cause Photosensitivty

91
Q

What drug is given in the acute management of gout? What is prescribed 2 weeks later?

A

naproxen (NSAIDs) are given for acute attack Allopurinol or colchichine are given 2 weeks after as prophylactics to gout

92
Q

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A

A - HPV C - HSV

93
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAAD61CCA74A12A8E.png

A

D -Stomach

94
Q

Which part of the intestine is intraperitoneal?

A

The ascending and descending colon are intraperitoneal

95
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAAD9CFAE0BB00A97.png

A

F -Diclfenac - NSAID G - predinsolone - can cause osteoporosis increasing the chance of wedge fractures H -Hydroxychloroquine

96
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAAE124EB2CA98785.png

A
  1. Malrotation or volvulus - A 2. D - pyloric stenosis - Projectile vomiting 3. B
97
Q

Label A and B

A

A - complementary determining region B - Fc region (binds to Fc receptor) The complimentary determining region is an extension of the Fab region

98
Q

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggif-15AAAE6A413562F0709.png

A

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/403/flashcards/11907403/png/picture1jpggifjpg-15AAAE6B3197278F756.png

99
Q

What is the main energy source for slow jogging for 40minutes? What is the main energy store for ligting a heavy wait for 4 seconds?

A

Slow jogging for 40 minutes - Glycgen stores Heavy weight for 4 seconds - ATP

100
Q

How long do these provide energy ATP Phosphocreatinase Free circulating glucose Glycogen stores Fat stores

A

ATP - 4 seconds Phosphocreatinase - 15seconds Free circulating glucose - 4minutes Glycogen stores - 77 minutes Fat stores - 4+ days