X Flashcards

1
Q

Dx chronic pancreatitis

A

CT pancreas calcification

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2
Q

delayed sleep phase syndrome

A

sleep onset insomnia and excessive morning sleepiness

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3
Q

type of respiratory involvement in wegeners

A

lower respiratory

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4
Q

respiratory involvement in good pastures

A

upper respiratory

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5
Q

chronic liver disease Physical signs

A

new onset ascites, pedal edema, spider angiomata, plamar erythema, caput medusa, nail changes, gynecomastia, splenomegaly, testicular atrophy

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6
Q

most important step in management of non ketotic hyperglycemic coma

A

fluid replacement- normal saline

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7
Q

what acid base disorder is caused by aspirin toxicity

A

mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

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8
Q

which diuretic decreases tolerance to glucose

A

thiazides

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9
Q

lectrolyte abnormalities from thiazides

A

hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hyperCa

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10
Q

febrile neutropenia

A

EM
start early empiric antibiotic therapy
anti pseudomonals are good

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11
Q

anti pseudomonals

A

cefepime, meropenem, piperacillin-tazobactam

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12
Q

what cause respiratory alkalsosis

A

hyperventilation from pneumonia, high altitude or salicylate intoxication

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13
Q

findings of coccidiomycosis

A

fever, fatigue, cough, weight loss, pleuritic chest pain, erythema multiforme and erythema nodosum

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14
Q

where is histoplasmosis found

A

Southeastern, mid atlantic and central US

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15
Q

where is blastomycosis found

A

south central and north central

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16
Q

where does blastomycosis affect in the body

A

lungs, skin, bones, joints, prostate

usually immunosupressed

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17
Q

what drugs can lead to invasive aspergillosis

A

cyclosporine

high dose glucocorticoids

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18
Q

CT shows pulmonary nodules with halo sign or air crescent

A

invasive aspergillosis

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19
Q

quickest way to correct hyperkalemia

A

insulin and glucose

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20
Q

which drug can cause macrocytic anemia

A

MTX

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21
Q

what to supplement with MTX

A

folic acid

22
Q

side effects of MTX

A

macrocytic anemia, nausea, stomatitis, rash, hepatotoxicity, interstitial lung disease, alopecia and fever

23
Q

what causea anaphylactic reaction in blood transfusions

A

recipient anti IgA Ab

24
Q

risk factors for adenocarcionm of esophagus

A

barretts, obesity, high dietary calorie, fat intake, smoking, medications that promote GERD

25
Q

major risk factors for squamous cell CA of esophagus

A

smoking, alcohol, dietary deficiency of beta carotene, vit B1, zinc, selenium, viral infections, toxin producing fungi, hot food and beverages, pickled vegetables and food rich in N nitroso compounds

26
Q

increased risk for what with hiatal hernia

A

barretts

27
Q

iron and ferritin levels in sideroblastic anemia

A

normal to high serum Fe

normal to high ferritin

28
Q

adverse effects of antithyoid drugs

A

agranulocytosis
methimazole- 1st trimester teratogen and cholestasis
propothiouracil- hepatic failure, ANCA-associated vasculitis

29
Q

tolvaptan

A

V2 vasopressin R antagonist that causes selective water loss in kidney w/o changing Na or K
only used for significant hypervolemia in heart failure or euvolemic hyponatremia in SIADH

30
Q

differentiate mild/mod and severe C dif

A

mild/mod: WBC15,000
Cr >1.5x baseline
serum albumin

31
Q

what are the Tx options for C dif

A

metronidazole for mild/mod
oral vanco for severe
super severe go for colectomy… that is if toxic megacolon like

32
Q

what can prevent febrile nonhemolytic reaction and reduce risk of HLA alloimmunization and CMV transmission

A

leukoreduction

33
Q

blood transfusion reactions timline

A

anaphylaxis- secs to minutes
acute hemolytic- minutes to hours
febrile nonhemolytic- 1-6 hours
delayed hemolytic- 2 days to 10 days

34
Q

skin manifestations of cholesterol emboli from cardiac cath

A

blue toes, livedo reticularis, gangrene and ulcers

35
Q

whipples disease

A

trophyerma whippelii
weight loss, diarrhea and abdominal pain, malabsorption, flatulence and steatorrhea
migratory polyarthropathy, chornic cough and myocardial or valvular involvement

36
Q

PAS + material in lamina propria in small intestine

A

whipples disease

37
Q

bloody diarrhea primarily caused by what pathogens

A

E coli, Shigella, CAmpylobacter

38
Q

what to avoid in enterohemorrhagic e coli

A

empiric antibiotic therapy because can increase risk of HUS

39
Q

signs of acute angle closure galucoma

A

severe eye pain with n/v

red eye with steamy cornea and moderately dilated pupil that is non reactive to light

40
Q

if BP is greater in R arm than L

A

coarctation aorta

41
Q

BP hard to control despite many medications

A

secondary HTN

most likely renal artery stenosis

42
Q

appearance of pseudogout

A

rhomboid shaped crystals with + birefringence

43
Q

findings of lead poisoning

A

microcytic anemia

PBlood smear shows basophilic stippling

44
Q

in clinical trials what makes randomization successfull

A

when similar baseline characteristics of patients in treatment and placebo group are seen

45
Q

development of new conduction delay in someone with infective endocarditis

A

perivalvular abscess

46
Q

Tx for severe hypovolemic hypernatremia

A

0.9% saline

47
Q

Tx for mild hypovolemic hypernatremia

A

0.5% dextrose in .45% saline

48
Q

what type of lung cancer releases PTHrP

A

squamous cell

49
Q

what labs are elevated in Pagets disease

A
alk phos
hydroxyproline
deoxypyridinoline
N telopeptide
C telopeptide
50
Q

Xray of skull shows bone resoprtion and sclerosis

R leg pain for past year

A

pagets