Written 2 Flashcards

1
Q

For area to participate in transportation planning meetings, how long to submit meeting minutes to HQ

A

HPM 41.1

10 working days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HOV and HOT lanes, what is CHP responsibility?

A

HPM 41.1 Shall provide routine patrol, usually on OT, SC 86.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is policy on Park N Ride lots?

A

CHP shall respond, except for lots not on state property, or when state owned is leased to private entity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long do we retain Cozeep/mazeep ops plans?

A

HPM 41.1

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a change to a COZEEP/MAZEEP reconciliation form is made, what is required?

A

HPM 41.1

Send memo to Caltrans w/in 5 working days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is retention for COZEEP Task Order?

A

HPM 41.1

Current plus 3 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often is commute survey completed?

A

HPM 41.3

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who is the state vanpool coordinator?

A

HPM 41.3

Caltrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are alt work week for non-uniformed and uniformed?

A

Non-4/10, 9/40, 9/80

Uniformed-9/40, 4/10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Minimum number to be considered a carpool according to policy?

A

HPM 41.3

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In a carpool, who provides insurance?

A

HPM 41.3

The State. Work Comp in effect during commute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum amount of flags allowed on a single flag pole?

A

HPM 70.56

Should be max of 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Flag position on Memorial Day?

A

HPM 70.56

Half staff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Max number of flags a commander may request after a LOD death?

A

Max of 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How much PPP pay do officers receive

A

HPM 70.9

$65 less than 60 months
$130 more than 60 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is upward mobility?

A

HPM 70.13

Employee plan for low paying positions to promote to higher paying positions, promote employees to supervisory or management positions, into classifications that traditionally do not have many minorities, women, or disabled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long can a temporary loan/assignment be?

A

Two years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How long to assign a mentor?

A

30 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long is the mentor plan?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long to complete a CHP 50, Request for Out Service Training?

A

Shall complete at least 30 days prior to the start of training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How long to complete a CHP 50A, Evaluation of Out-Service Training?

A

HPM 70.13

Within 30 days after the completion of the course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

To be reimbursed for OST, what must be attached to travel claim?

A

A copy of the CHP 50.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What form is used for sergeant orientation?

A

CHP 27, shall be maintained for 2 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the minimum number of POST training hours?

A

24 hours every two years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the POST perishable skills?

A

Arrest & control, driving, tactical firearms (yearly), 2 hours of tactical communication every two years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How long to remediate a POST Class?

A

30 days from date of failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Can you divulge secondary VIN locations to an allied agency?

A

HPM 81.1

No, must be authorized to know.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long to schedule VIN appointments?

A

30 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is procedure when vehicle has no identifying number and cannot be confirmed as stolen?

A

Refer to Division vehicle theft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can you reuse a CHP VIN tag?

A

Shall not be reused due to failure to adhere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many CHP VIN tags to a newly constructed vehicle?

A

Shall be a minimum of 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What forms are required when you come across an altered VIN?

A

CHP 216, 180, 181. Vehicle should be impound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If you arrest a subject and find out about a missing VIN, can you issue a CHP 215?

A

Shall not issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do you write on the body of a CHP 215 for 10751?

A

Clear through CHP VIN officer only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When confiscating a vehicle part and issuing a CHP 181, what must be advised to the individual?

A

They shall receive a CHP 181A within 5 working days notifying them of a hearing date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How long to conduct a CHP 181 hearing?

A

90 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How old does a juvenile informant be?

A

13 or older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How much confidential funds may be requested?

A

$10,000 but AC Field may authorize $25,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Who must approve approve use of funds?

A

Over $2,000-Division Chief

Over $4,000-AC Field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How often are audits?

A

Once a month and memo to FMS by 5th of month.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When a request for discovery comes in who shall be notified?

A

OLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In a OIS, if the officer’s body armor is impacted by a bullet, who does a report sent to and in what time frame?

A

Report is sent to BSS, SSU w/in ten working days, concerning ballistic protection afforded by the soft body armor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

During critical incidents, do we tell the media about our officer’s soft body armor usage?

A

That information shall not be provided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When is the CIIT debrief?

A

Within 14 days of the incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do you package bloody clothes from a shooting incident?

A

Shall not be in plastic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the OIS involved officer required to do to return to full duty?

A

Requalify TOQC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If supervisor is not allowed to attend an allied agency OIS interview w involved employee, what shall they do?

A

Remind the employee of their right to representation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What needs to occur before an OIS weapon is allowed back into service?

A

Shall be checked by academy gunsmith.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Recruitment funds shall not be used for?

A

Salaries, OT, travel, testing sites, gifts, depart. equipment not related to recruitment, events not related to recruitment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Recruiters shall not do what w people with disabilities?

A

Should not deny material or inquire about their impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the recruitment PCA code?

A

75013

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How long to evaluate a new investigator?

A

Not less than 15 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What shall be carried by on-duty applicant investigator?

A

Badge, ID card, DL, primary firearm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the types of reinstatement’s?

A

Mandatory and permissive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If a strike occurs, what shall be done.

A

Supervisor shall interrogate either, during, or after strike.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

If you dock a person for striking, an you still do an AA?

A

HPM 10.8

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are types of employee activity if employees are unhappy w working conditions?

A

Strike, sick out, slowdown, enforcement speed up, picketing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

HPM 90.1

Who are collision reports releasable to?

A

Involved parties
Insurance companies
Attorneys
If media requests, forward through COMR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Who may release information regarding fatal victim of a collision?

A

Coroner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Are BAC results releasable after a collision?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Are TC photographs releasable to the media?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

PRA requests can release what info?

A

Arrestee’s full name, full address, Victims names and addresses (with exceptions), Arrestees occupation, physical description, DOB, Time, date, location,and circumstances of arrest. Pursuit or use of weapons by officers. Name of arresting officer, time, date,location of booking,charges,warrants, bail amount, court schedule,time and manner of release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When a juvenile has been involved in a traffic collision, and nor arrested, what is releasable?

A

Name, age, hometown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is cutoff age for juvenile, releasable info?

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Are employee personnel actions releasable?

A

No, per POBR. CHP does not discuss pending litigation either.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is releasable in the disclosure of complaints or requests for assistance?

Pertinent to traffic enforcement complaint histories and requests for assistance.

A

Time, substance, location, time and nature of the response, info regarding crimes, time, date, location, of occurrence, time and date of report, name and age of victims with exception, facts/circumstances surrounding crime, general description of injuries, property, or weapons involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Can you release the name of a suspect prior to arrest if it will aid in the arrest?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Can you release that the suspect confessed?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

An officer shall or should place a 422 on an unoccupied vehicle that appear abandoned, unlawfully parked or disabled in all CHP jurisdictions.

A

Shall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Who has final approval for CHP SWAT fallout?

A

AC Field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How often shall explosive containers be checked?

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Division Chiefs may authorize solo patrol during which time periods?

A

0400-0600 & 2200 -0000 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which five things shall recorded on MVARS?

A

Enforcement contacts, pursuits, code 3 responses, vehicle searches, disabled motorists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

MVARS policy shall be reviewed how often?

A

Annually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

After the employee submits the CHP 179 (MVARS Precheck), where does it go?

A

Shall be forwarded to the Division MVARS coordinator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Can a supervisor review an event recording for a minor 11-82?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the five strategic goals?

A
Protect life & property
Provide superior service
Enhance the public trust
Invest in our people
Identify and respond to evolving law needs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When shall a DS 427 be completed?

A

when one is cited or arrested for VC 2100 through 23336 and when the driver exhibits evidence of incapacity which the officer reasonable believes the driver is incapable of operating a MV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which VC section requires the Commissioner to enforce all laws regulating the operation of vehicle and the use of highways?

A

2400 VC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How long to notify for a fire or explosion a state facility?

A

24 hours (Commute-net to AC and affected Division/ENTAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How shall FI cards be stored?

A

Sorted by year, month, and day and in a secure environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How often shall warrant service teams train?

A

One eight hour day per quarter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When shall category B incidents be reported?

A

TO RMU by next business day?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Each division office and field command shall/should designate a TLO officer?

A

Shall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What should staffing be for and MEP?

A

80% of available officers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which days out of the year are MEPs?

A
New Years
Memorial Day Weekend
Independance Day
Labor Day Weekend
Thanksgiving
Christmas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which amendment protects people from unreasonable searches?

A

4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What four requirements are there for a consent search?

A

Consent must be granted freely and voluntarily
The person must have standing
The scope of the search cant be exceeded
Person granting search can withdraw consent at any time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are our Organizational Values-GO 0.1?

A
FREE
Fairness
Respect for others
Ethical Practices
Equal treatment for all
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

CHP shall/should not issue any person a courtesy card or communication that could extend any immunity?

A

Shall not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The citizen advisory board is made up of how many members?

A
  1. One from each Division and three from HQ.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is a supervisor’s role in regards to CHP PRIDE?

A

Shall learn motto
Internalize and support it
Serve as role model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are manager’s role in regards to property, GO 0.9?

A

Ensure employees have equipment adequate to perform their duties.
Ensure equipment and resources are maintained in roper working condition.
Ensure employees understand and acknowledge policy regarding use of equipment and resources and that misuse may lead to AA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Commander responsibilities for equipment?

A

Monitor compliance with policy
If misuse of equipment is alleged, take immediate action to:
Validate a misuse by completing by an investigation, if necessary.
Collect reimbursement from employee for actual costs
Take appropriate administrative action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are three reasons we engage in Public Trust? GO 0.12

A

For public and officer safety
Essential for safer communities
Provides an opportunity for CHP to assume a leadership role in building a bloc trust framework that could serve as a model for others.
Commanders shall review this order with new hires and ensure discussion during annual evaluation and periodic discussions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How often is the Code of Ethics reviewed? GO 0.13

A

Annually during 118s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How long shall Area meeting minutes be posted? GO 1.5

A

Five days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

For open public meetings, what is to be included? GO 1.5

A

Name, address, and contact info, a specific agenda, shall include CHP website address.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Minimum distance to smoke next to a state building?

A

25 feet, sign shall be in English with a max of two other different languages-Commander’s choice.

Department shall provide ashtrays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are normal CHP office hours?

A

0800 - 1700. If extended hours, at least on uniformed officer must be present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are requirements for OIC.

A
2 officers
6 or more hours
Should be proficient in all 118s
Not currently serving an AA
Has demonstrated good judgement and supportive of Dept. policy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What can OIC and acting sergeants do?

A

Everything except sign off 415s and evaluations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What must a commander do when needing to extend office hours?

A

Meet with affected employees and the BU representatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How long does OIG have to notify a command of an audit?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Does management have to provide additional breaks for lactation?

A

No, lactation breaks should be concurrent with regular breaks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Can a bathroom be used for lactation purposes?

A

Shall make reasonable accommodations other than the restroom which can be locked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the CALEA testing cycle?

A

Every four years?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What shall commanders do with new hires?

A

Within 30 days, familiarize employees with accreditation process, can be learned thru online video, review GO, on going discussion, completion of nonuniform orientation course at academy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Who formed CALEA?

A

International Assoc. of Chiefs of Police
National Organization of Black law enforcement executives,
National Sheriffs Association
Police Executive research forum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How long are promotional lists valid?

A

Minimum 12 months, max of 48 mos. usually 24 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

When can a retirees ID card be taken?

A

Incident that causes embarrassment to the Department

Employee utilized ID card to influence, harass, or intimidate others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

If a retiree loses their ID card, who do they contact?

A

HRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Who handles retiree privileges?

A

RMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Are nonuniformed employees allowed to carry a 3”fixed blade knife?

GO 10.23

A

Yes

No tasers, B.B. guns, OC, or knives over 4”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Are CHP officers allowed to attend parole hearings for cop killers?

A

The family may request their presence, but may not wear uniform.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Supervisors and managers shall monitor EIS, what are the events?

A
3 complaints in 18 months
3 use of force in 12 months
2 MODs in 12 months
2 Form 2’s in 12 months
2 positive comments on 12 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Can use of force incidents include a supervisory analysis?

A

No, shall not include.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are prerequisites for command in terms of numbers?

A

50 or more officers should be a captain
30 or fewer should be LT
Commands with dispatch centers should be captain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

How often shall org. roster be updated?

A

Quarterly bases and be distributed to all employees electronically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Do all injuries and deaths need to be reported on the 144 system?

A

Yes, shall promptly record.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Can CHP personnel make death notifications?

A

Yes, only when requested and shall not voluntary assume those duties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What does a strategic plan consist of?

A

Dept. office or Area goals
Objectives to achieve those goals
Performance metrics to achieve those goals
Action plans to implement those goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How often is the strategic plan updated?

A

Every 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How often does live scan password have to be changed?

A

Biannually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Who is OPI for livescan?

A

RPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are guidelines for speed monitoring?

A
Unmarked vehicle 
Conceal monitoring activity
Calibrate equipment
Should be done during off peak hours
Minimum of 100 vehicle speeds.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are requirements for golf cart crossings?

A

Crossing use is prohibited during darkness
Posted speed limit is not greater than 45 miles per hour.
Immediate adjacent to course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

If a pursuit goes into another area who is responsible for 187?

A

Officer’s home area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

If it is a multi area/multi area pursuit, who completes 187?

A

Each area is responsible for their portion.

The first area to complete their portion of 187 is responsible for obtaining follow up info. Only one 187.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How long to complete info into PRS?

GO 40.10

A

10 calendar days following date of occurrence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Where should allied agency info be placed in the PRS?

A

In the Area Specific Information page, by the applicable CHP Area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

For freeway dedication, how long to get plan to Division.

A

30 days prior to event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are rules for cell phones in dispatch centers?

A

Set on vibrate, shall not be answered unless exigent circumstances and approval from supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

How often shall AVLS policy be reviewed?

A

Annually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Can a supervisor use AVLS to monitor activity?

A

No, shall not be viewed for speed or randomly viewed for policy violations. Can be viewed to disprove allegations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How often shall uniformed employees attend driver training?

A

Shall attend one four hour training course held every odd year
1 ride along per year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

How often shall senior volunteers and nonuniformed attend driver training?

A

Every 4 years and must complete initial online training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

When is the multi-gun competition held?

A

Every October.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

How many state work days may a multi-gun team member use?

A

Up to 2 days for matches and 1 day for Academy meeting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Will the Department replace personally owned cameras, camcorders, etc.?

A

No. Employees should not take these items out on patrol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Is a command required to maintain social media account?

A

Not required but another tool for commands to connect to the people they serve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What are rules (3) for employees in regards to their social media accounts?

GO 90.1

A

Employees shall not post comments related to their position that could bring discredit or embarrassment to the Dept.
Must be mindful not to post images of other employees without asking their permission.
Cannot post view that represent the Dept. without consent from their commander.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is required to post images of juveniles on our Facebook?

A

CHP 464, Photograph/Video Authorizaiton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Who shall the Dept. consult with for planned lane closures?

A

Caltrans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are criteria for Special Relationships?

GO 100.6

A

Places person in peril
Increase risk or harm by act
Creates special relationship with implied promise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

After establishing special relationship, when can an officer excuse themself?

A

Properly relieved by another CHP
Relinquished scene management to allied agency
Another emergency that requires immediate attention
Received direction from supervisor
Protection no longer reasonably necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Are bridge tolls reimbursable?

A

Yes, if on State business.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How many CHP A415 entries do you make?

A

One for each person contacted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Who has to make CHP A415 entries?

A

All officers and sergeants assigned to road, commercial, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

If you cite and release for a recordable offense what must be obtained?

A

Fingerprints
Provide subject with CHP 194 and advise them to fingerprint prior to their courts appearance
JUS 8715 or 8716

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Who are the four types authorized for ride-alongs?

A

Non uniformed employees
Persons considering employment
Persons in cadet selection process
Cadets with approval from Academy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Can juveniles go on a ride-along?

A

Yes, with parents approval, CHP 428.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Can officer go in uniform with allied agency ride along?

A

Not without commander approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Can a ride along take photos or record?

A

Shall be prohibited unless member of media with commander approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Do officers have to check all disabled or unattended vehicle?

A

Yes, shall check, and shall remain on scene if foreseeable danger exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Should/Shall/May-a 422 be attached to all unattended vehicles in our jurisdiction?

A

Yes, shall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Who has access to canine explosives?

A

Canine officer
Canine supervisors
Other supervisory personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Explosive magazine logs shall be retained for how long?

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

How often shall canine officer or supervisors visual inspect magazine?

A

Every 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

How often to audit explosive magazine storage locations?

A

Initial and annual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

How often to check canine training aids to verify the amount of explosives present and ensuring their structural integrity?

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

How often shall officers and supervisors review MVARS policy?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What 8 threshold incidents can supervisors review?

A

Any incident where a member of Dept. dies or severely injured, Any use of force that causes death or sever injury to suspect,
Any in custody death
Any PC TC that results in great bodily injury or death
When any member discharges weapon, accidentally or on purpose
Pursuit; ECW discharge; or any other event which generates a 268/270.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

If a supervisor sees any policy violations on MVARS, what should be done?

GO 100.61

A

If no AA, use as training opportunity, discuss incident w/employee.
If any corrective documentation, must get commanders approval
Nothing prohibits further action if it is habitual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is role of supervisor regarding MVARS?

A
Ensure:
Personnel follow policy
Repairs are coordinated through RPS
MVARS no used for personal use
Personnel are trained
Coordinators are doing their job.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is primary objective of officer in Active Shooter incident?

A

Move, confront, stop shooter quickly

Secondary is rescue victims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

In Active Shooter, what is role of supervisor?

GO 100.101

A
Contact Comm. Center to request Allied Agency Assistance.
Request ENTAC be notified
Ensure officers get into teams
Switch to predesignated TAC Channel
Utilize rifle
Should move past victim
Ensure emergency traffic used
For barricaded subject, hold established positions
Be cognizant of IEDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What are training requirements for active shooters?

A

Managers shall complete initial two day course
Supervisors and below shall attend one day every three years
Non Uniformed shall have 2 hours every three years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Shall employees check on court cancellations?

GO 100.18

A

Yes, shall check within 24 hours, between 8 and 5 excluding weekends and holidays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What does a supervisor do if he gets subpoena day of court?

A

Shall refuse service unless attendance is deemed critical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

If you want to stop a train, what should you do?

GO 100.31

A

Swing visible object horizontally, for emergency same by faster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are steps for loose livestock?

GO 100.36

A

Make reasonable effort to notify owner
Notify owner of damaged fence
Notify hide and brand inspector, USDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What are requirements for car seats?

GO 100.40

A

Less than 8 still have to be in seat (unless 4’9”)
Less than 2 still in rear facing restraint system unless child weighs 40 or more pounds or is 40 or more inches tall.
If emergency situation, or if in authorized emergency vehicle, may be transported and shall use seatbelt if no child seat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

If driver refuses to sign DL 310, is it still valid?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What are requirements for standard and priority reevaluations of a driver?

GO 100.66

A

Standard-Driver cannot operate vehicle and no citation, habitual drug offender, driving has regressed

Priority-Driver is cited and officer believes offender is incapable and present clear danger. Shall not issue to suspend or no license.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Shall each command have a TLO?

GO 100.87

A

Yes, shall have at each Area and Division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

If you search someone on PRCS, what must be filled out on 415 if search is negative?

GO 100.91

A

Subjects name DL/ID number, whether on parole, PRCS, or probation and dispatch log #.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Marsy’s law requires LEO’s to do what?

GO 100.94

A

Give Marsy’s rights card and victim resources and survival guide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

If a personal cell phone is used to take work pictures, what shall be done?

GO 100.95

A

Shall be transferred off of device and deleted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What electronics are prohibited at work?

A

TV’s, DVD players, video game systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Can an employee carry a music device in a patrol vehicle?

A

Yes, but no earphones are permitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

If you use a cell phone while operating a marked enforcement vehicle, what is required?

A

Hands free.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

In custody deaths must be reported within how many days DOJ?

A

10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Hover boards and electric bicycles shall be labled as what on the 555?

A

Other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Hover boards shall be coded as what on a 555?

Electric bikes?

A

93

91

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Can hover boards be coded as a motor vehicle?

A

Yes, but only for a DUI, use section 21296 VC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What are the approved calibers for secondary weapons?

A

380, 9mm, .38 thru .45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

How long shall all records in regards to hiring an appointment be retained?

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What are the new groups added to EEO discrimination?

A

Gender, Gender Identity, Gender expression, Military, Veteran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Articulated buses shall not exceed how many feet in length?

A

82.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

During a monthly night shoot, an employee who chooses to utilize a weapons mounted light shall demonstrate what to a range officer?

A

Knowledge and function of both light and holster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Where shall the new CHP 268 be stored?

A

Shall only be stored in a folder designated “Risk Management Reports”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

How many days for the CHP 268 to get to ORM (Threshold and Non threshold)

A

7 calendar days for both threshold and non threshold incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

If more than one employee is involved in an incident, how many CHP 268s?

A

Only one but all employees need to be listed as involved or witness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is retention for CHP 268, both threshold and nonthreshold?

A

Ten years for threshold.
Five year for non.
Areas shall confirm with ORM and OLA if litigation is pending.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

How shall all use of force incidents be documented?

A

CHP 268 and CHP 275 shall be utilized regardless of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

How many days to get CHP 275 to ORM?

A

7 calendar days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Of a display of a firearm is conducted on an innocent party by an officer, what form needs to be completed?

A

CHP 268

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

If a control hold is utilized to overcome physical resistance, what form shall be completed?

A

CHP 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Supervisors and managers who review a CHP 275 shall do what?

A

Shall document the review on the routing log.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Can a CHP 268 be included in Civilians complaint report or AA package?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Does flight alone allow the discharge of ECD or less lethal?

A

No. Graham v Connor dictates we must consider severity of crime, if suspect poses immediate threat, and totality of circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Are less lethal report required to be sent to division and the academy?

A

No, shall be documented in accordance with GO 100.39 and GO 10.21.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What form(s) is required after a less lethal deployment?

A

CHP 268 & CHP 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

If involved in a TC with your personal vehicle on state time, what shall you do?

A

Shall report to your insurance company within 10 days. 555 will be listed as RO and insurance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

How often do we test radio base station?

A

Every month and shall be documented on CHP 159.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Are you required to submit a CHP 121 to SCIF for first aid only claims?

A

No, and do not provide employee w SCIF 3301.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

How many days to submit a CHP 121D to Division?

A

By the tenth of each month.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

At what amount of time shall a commander notify the appropriate AC, Div Commander, DRU, and HRS, of an employee who is off duty due to an occupational injury or illness?

A

The day following the first 30 calendar days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What is the timeframe to submit the CHP 100S?

A

Areas shall submit to Division the 10th day of the month.

Division shall submit to CVS by 20th day of the month.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Can an officer force blood from an unconscious driver?

A

No, shall only be conducted pursuant to a search warrant absent exigent circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Can a headset be worn by airplane crew members?

A

Yes, either helmet or headset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What are the mandatory activations for body worn cameras?

A

Enforcement contacts, vehicle searches, confrontational interactions, pat down frisks, and searches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What are the restricted activations for Body Worn Cameras?

A

Shall not record conversations with other employees during non enforcement interactions
Should not be made in private areas unless criminal activity or exigent circumstances require activation
Should not be made in medical facilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Can an officer discontinue recording during prisoner transport?

A

Yes, unless party is combative or uncoorporative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

If victim or witness requests no recording, what shall be done?

A

Should attempt to record statement, not required to turn it off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Who is responsible for Body Cam for care and upkeep?

A

The employee the camera is issued to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Where shall the Body Cam be worn?

A

Front of employee’s uniform above the waist level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What is Body Cam policy in regard to equipment check?

A

Shall check prior to start of shift. If found defective, shall attempt to fix, if not, shall get issued a replacement. If no replacement, note on CHP A415.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

If issued a Body Cam, may an employee use personally owned devices to record work?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

When is data from Body Cam required to be downloaded?

A

End of shift, if not then notify a supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What is retention period for Body Cam footage?

A

At least one year for evidence.

No evidentiary value can be erased after 60 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Which Body Cam recorded incidents should a supervisor view?

A

When early warning system identifies three or more negative events.
Employee exhibits certain behavior that causes concern.
Supervisors shall review a minimum of two BWC recordings in conjunction with CHP 118.

224
Q

Employees have access to what Body Cam recordings?

A

In preparation of reports, review for AA’s, review for court, review to provide statement for OIS.

225
Q

Restricted access to Body Cam recordings include what?

A

Criminal Investigations of employee by Allied Agency, when employee is charged with a crime, CHP conducting AA alongside a criminal investigation.

226
Q

Cost of Body Cam footage to an outside agency?

A

No cost for criminal, fee for civil.

227
Q

Prior to release of Body Cam footage, due to a PRA request, who must be consulted?

A

OLA

228
Q

What is the responsibility of supervisors for Body Cams?

A

Ensure employees follow policy,
Repair and replacement is conducted through RPS
Ensure personnel are trained.
Ensure employees are completing pilot survey.

229
Q

What is retention period for a CHP 36?

A

Life of evidence plus five years.

230
Q

Inspection requirements for rifle and shotgun?

A
Field strip 3 times year.
Full strip 1 time per year.
Test fire only after break down 
One full mag for rifle
10 rounds for shotgun
231
Q

Is embroidered rank allowed on Blue Utility Uniform?

A

Yes

232
Q

Does activating your red light constitute a detention?

A

Yes

233
Q

If you see contraband during a consensual encounter, may you seize it?

A

Yes and it provides PC for an arrest.

234
Q

If a suspect produces an ID that you know is false, can you arrest?

Can you search for other ID?

A

Yes, 148.9 PC

Yes a limited search for other ID.

235
Q

If you detain a foreign national, how long before you shall advise them of the right to communicate with an official form the consulate of his country?

A

2 hours.

236
Q

MM’s are good for how long?

A

9 mos. but a six mos. extension can be granted.

237
Q

Does an MM establish policy?

A

Not until it is permanentley written in a manual.

238
Q

How long are Comm Nets good for?

A

90 days.

239
Q

Do former employees have the right to our publications?

A

No. They are treated like the general public.

240
Q

Who is responsible for quality and content of correspondence?

A

Signer

241
Q

What color ink for signatures?

A

Shall be blue for original.

242
Q

If we can’t respond within 15 days of correspondence, what needs to go out?

A

Interim correspondence.

243
Q

What governs our grammar?

A

Greggs manual

244
Q

What is a Cat 1 correspondence

A

Memo

245
Q

What is a Cat 2 correspondence?

A

Letter

246
Q

How many elements shall file number consist of?

A
Generally 4
Location code
Signer
Composer
OPI
247
Q

Is the SCIF 3301, Employee’s Claim for Worker’s Compensation Benefits, form provided to employee’s for a Record Only or First Aid?

A

No

248
Q

How many hours does a command have to forward SCIF a SCIF 3301?

A

Within five days of command receipt of the form

249
Q

Attachments are for…?

A

Memos

250
Q

Enclosures are for …?

A

Letters

251
Q

How many contacts does the Dept manage (__ of 21 bargaining units)?

A

12

252
Q

What is the Excluded Employee’s Bill of Rights?

A

Dictates that supervisory employees have the right to be represented regarding all matters related to employment conditions and supervisory employer-employee relations.

253
Q

If conflict between policy and contract comes into effect, what governs?

A

Contract

254
Q

Do we extend POBR to all employees?

A

All except cadets.

255
Q

How long does an employee have to complete a grievance?

A

Normally, max of four hours of state time and four hours for the rep.

256
Q

How much state time for reps to represent an employee for incidents such as shootings, AAs?

A

Eight hours.

257
Q

What are the complaint/grievance levels?

A
Informal discussion
Level 1-Commander
Level 2-Division Commander
Level 3-Commissioner
Level 4-Cal HR
258
Q

Who conducts the Informal Level grievance?

A

Employee and immediate supervisor.

259
Q

What are retention periods for grievances and complaints?

A

Grievance-3 years

Complaints-1 year

260
Q

What are grievance response times in writing?

A

Level 1-10 work days
Level 2-15 work days
Level 3-15 work days
Level 4-20 work days

261
Q

What form does a grievance go on?

A

CHP 94

262
Q

What is retention period for union leave requests?

A

12 months from date of request and at OER for 3 years.

263
Q

What are four specialty pay positions and who can remove?

A

Bilingual, Motor, Investigator, Flight,

-Removal through AC Field

264
Q

What are four things to make a substance test effective?

A

Reasonable suspicion supported by proper documentation.
Sample properly collected
Chain of custody is maintained
Employee rights not violated

265
Q

Which employees are subject to substance testing?

A

Only employees listed in Sensitive Positions.

266
Q

If an employee submits to voluntary testing who pays for it?

A

The Dept.

267
Q

Which positions are listed as sensitive?

A

Officers, cadets, auto techs, mechanics, CVIS, PSDS, PSD, PSO, Gunsmith, Heavy Truck Driver, Lead Auto Mechanic, Lead Motor Mechanic, MCS 1, 2, 3, School Pupil Transportation Safety Coordinator

268
Q

If there is a potential for a criminal violation in a 9.2 investigation, what do we do?

A

Investigate the criminal part first.

269
Q

What is the intoxication level to be considered a positive result?

A

.04% or higher BAC

Any other traceable amount is I & I.

270
Q

Is an anonymous tip of a possible 9.2 enough to develop reasonable suspicion?

A
No, must have articulable facts to substantiate RS.
First Obs
Objective Signs
FSTs
DRE Report
271
Q

Is a tip from a reliable informant alone, in regard to a possible 9.2 incident, enough to develop reasonable suspicion?

A

It could be, such as in the case where the tip comes from a peace officer.

272
Q

Can the confirming official be the suspected employees immediate supervisor?

A

No.

It also may not be the person who made the initial observation.

273
Q

Which type of chemical tests are used in a 9.2 incident?

A

Breath for alcohol

Blood for drugs

274
Q

For a 9.2 investigation, how much urine is collected during a drug, chemical test.

A

60 ml split into two containers.

275
Q

How long do we keep positive or negative samples from a 9.2 investigation?

A

Three weeks for a negative

One year for a Positive

276
Q

In a 9.2 incident, what do you do if an officer refuses to submit to a chemical test?

A

Advise employee of possible consequences
Suspend PO powers and any 318s on file
Ensure employee receives memo expressing his rights
Do not allow to drive home
If employee refuses ride or cannot care for them-self, shall remain at the office until arrangements can be made. Be cognizant of medical needs.

277
Q

What are Government Codes for RDP and Adverse Action?

A

RDP 19173 GC

AA 19572 GC

278
Q

What are the four outcomes of an internal investigation?

A

AA
RDP
Misc
Non punitive termination

279
Q

What is a nexus to employment?

A

Act occurred on duty
Criminal acts by uniformed
Criminal acts by non-uniformed that are felonies or of moral turpitude
While off duty, employment status is affirmatively established by an overt act.
Misconduct could bring discredit to the Dept.

280
Q

Should all interrogations be recorded?

A

All interrogations shall be recorded.

281
Q

What document does Bazemore need to be included in?

A

MODs

Also included in Notice of AA

282
Q

What is minor discipline for a BU 5 employee?

A

1 to 5 day suspension, or equivalent step reduction, i.e. five mos. step reduction.

283
Q

What are the three levels of employee actions, i.e., ride alongs, MOD, Suspensions

A

Preventative Actions
Corrective Actions
Adverse Actions

284
Q

What are Corrective Actions?

A

Informal/formal counseling

Corrective documentation, ie MOD, Form 2, Negative CHP 100 comment

285
Q

What six types of AA’s (penalties) are there?

A
Dismissal
Suspension
Step Reduction
Involuntary Transfer
Formal Written Reprimand
Demotion
286
Q

Can administrative evidence be released to an allied agency?

A

Only certain evidence may be shared. Evidence may not result from a compelled statement.

10.2, p. 4-6

287
Q

If an employee is under Federal Civil Right violations and interviewed, what must a manager do?

A

Ensure a supervisor is present during interview and ensure it is recorded.

288
Q

What are the requirements for a locker search?

A

Employee grants consent
In employee’s presence
When employee is notified and has opportunity to respond to location
With a criminal warrant

ONLY NEED TO SATISFY ONE REQUIREMENT

289
Q

In the case of an AA with the recommendation of dismissal, can the interrogation be summarized?

A

No shall be transcribed.

290
Q

Can you search an employee’s desk?

A

May search for work product.

Same conditions as a desk search apply when the command has allowed a reasonable expectation of privacy.

291
Q

How long does a uniformed employee have to file for reinstatement?

HPM 10.3

A

Within three years

292
Q

Permissive reinstatement of a uniformed employee shall be at what rank, regardless of rank when the employee separated?

A

Shall be approved at the rank of Officer, regardless of rank when they separated.

293
Q

What are probationary appraisal time lines?

A

6 month probation-2, 4, & 6 months

12 month probation-4, 8, 12 months

294
Q

What is the maximum age allowed for mandatory reinstatement of a uniformed employee?

A

Must be at least six months less than the age of compulsory retirement.

295
Q

What are the maximum allowed travel distances for take home state vehicles?

A

50 miles for employees

70 miles for commanders

296
Q

What are the minimum hours worked for 6 month and 12 month probationary employees?

A

6 mos. 840 hours

12mos. 1,680 hours

297
Q

What is discretionary leave?

A

Regular leave of absence. Adoption leave.

Temp leave of absence. Informal leave.

298
Q

What is non-discretionary leave?

A

Pregnancy leave, veterans, military, spousal military, FMLA, CFRA, NDI, SDI

299
Q

What is maximum amount of regular leave allowed?

A

Up to one year, additional year may be approved by commissioner

300
Q

What is short term military and long term military leave?

A

Short-Less than 180 days

Long Term-Greater than 180 days

301
Q

In order to approve a CHP 318, what must occur?

A
Check the 318
Check if I & I
May not interfere with regular work
Ensure secondary employment activities are discussed with employee
Reevaluate
302
Q

Overtime is credited in how many minute increments?

A

15

303
Q

What are four categories of complaints?

A

Cat 1-Use of Force, Falsification
Cat 2-Verbal Discourtesy
Other-Dept, Cite Validity
Non Complaint-Traff

304
Q

What are the five findings of a 10.4 investigation?

A
Sustained
Exonerated
Undetermined-No Finding
Departmental
Unintentional Error
305
Q

In the case of a combined allegation in a citizens complaint, is the finding of the highest allegation listed as the finding for the entire complaint?

A

Yes

HPM 10.4, p. 6-2

306
Q

Do frivolous or rescinded complaints have a finding?

A

Shall not have a finding.

307
Q

How long to respond to a complaint?

A

Five days

308
Q

What doesn’t meet the definition of a complaint?

A
Third party
Other agency
Off duty complaint
Complaints from other departmental personnel
Traffic complaints
Storage/impound validity
Tort claims
Monetary damages
309
Q

Are complaints on a uniformed employee accepted via the internet?

A

Must have a CHP 240B submitted for uniformed personnel

No internet

310
Q

What are time requirements to finish a 10.4?

A

Regular-60 days

Legislative-30 days

311
Q

Are statements of complainant and witnesses to be recorded?

A

Shall for all serious allegations

Should for others

312
Q

When do we send closing correspondence out of a 10.4?

A

In all complaint cases.

313
Q

What are retention periods for a 10.4 investigation?

A

Five years.

Corrective documentation issued to employee shall be removed after three years.

314
Q

Can you amend an original CHP 240 investigation

A

No, must complete a new CHP 240 face page and and include any other memoranda or documents and process as if new complaint.
Mark “Amended” on 240.
Complete Employee Discussion and Review section.

315
Q

How many counseling sessions are allowed though EAP?

A

7 for uniformed

3 for non uniformed

316
Q

Can employee EAP records be released?

A
No, unless employee allows
Unless by subpoenaed
Employee expresses desire to harm self
If child abuse is suspected
If individual confesses to crime
317
Q

Commanders shall refer employees to post-shooting briefings within how many hours?

A

72

318
Q

If a Peer Support Officer is called and no state vehicle is available, can they be reimbursed for mileage?

A

Yes

319
Q

How long is initial class for Peer Support Officers?

A

32 hours

320
Q

What is the requirement for a Peer Support Officer?

A

Must have been involved in at least one critical incident.

321
Q

Does an employee involved in an OIS have to attend a critical incident stress debriefing?

A

Yes, but voluntary for others

322
Q

What is an Occupational Injury?

A

Any injury or exposure on the on involving a single causative event in the the work place.

323
Q

What is a Record Only injury?

A

Non-Disabling injury which does not require medical treatment or first aid

324
Q

What is a disabling injury?

A

Any injury that the employee cannot return the next work day.

325
Q

What is a non-disabling injury?

A

When an employee can return the next day whether light duty or full

326
Q

What is the supervisor responsible for in a work related injury of an employee?

A

Documentation, case file updates, case management, and actively engaged in process

327
Q

Are senior volunteers entitle to work comp?

A

No, senior volunteers have their own medical

328
Q

If a recurrence of an injury happens, how is it documented?

A

On a memorandum outlining the events of the recurrence of the injury or illness

10.7 p. 3-5

329
Q

When on occupational injury occurs, how long to update the OSHA log?

A

6 days

330
Q

How long is the retention period for all Occ Safety/injury documentation?

A

5 years

331
Q

How long to complete a 121 and get it to SCIF?

A

24 hours to complete and sign. Must get to SCIF within five days.

332
Q

If temporarily assigned to another command, who is responsible for completing a 121 after a work related injury?

A

The temporary command

333
Q

What actions are incompatible labor actions?

A

Work slowdowns, sick outs, strikes, enforcement speed up, or reduced attendance

334
Q

Are BU meetings allowed on state facilities?

A

Yes

335
Q

What are personal characteristics essential to critical tasks? (Rank not a consideration)

A

Dependability, Accuracy, Good Judgement, Courtesy, Initiative
Must ascribe to GO 0.8, CHP PRIDE

336
Q

What are potential rating errors during an appraisal process?

A
Halo effect
Lenient Harsh effect
Central Tendency effect
Similar to me effect
Contrast effect
First or last impression effect
Stereotype effect
337
Q

Which appraisal form has the rating of Needs Improvment

A

CHP 100

338
Q

Which appraisal form has the term Deficient

A

CHP 118

339
Q

What do the substandard ratings mean on an appraisal form, i.e. CHP 100/118?

A

Needs improvement serves as a non-career threatening mechanism that warns an officer
Deficient is a pattern of substandard behavior

340
Q

When should a supervisor review the CHP 100?

A

Should be reviewed by the 15th of the month, complete review after the last day of the calendar month.

341
Q

What ratings are comments (CHP 100) mandatory for?

A

Excellent and Needs Improvement

342
Q

If an officer receives a single needs improvement on a CHP 100, shall interim be started?

A

No, but a single Deficient rating on a CHP 118 would.

343
Q

During Interim Reporting, which Critical Task is rated?

A

Only the Deficient Task

344
Q

How many Critical Tasks are there for an officer?

A

9

345
Q

How many Critical Tasks are there for a Sergeant?

A

10

346
Q

How many phases are there in the FTEP program for a trainee??

A

Four phases

347
Q

How many hours of training must a break-in officer have (Hours of Break-in)?

A

600

348
Q

How long does an extension period on Break-in last?

A

Two weeks

349
Q

When shall sergeants conduct ride a longs?

A

Phase 3

350
Q

Can a probationary sergeant be the FTEP coordinator?

A

Yes, but should not

351
Q

What are the qualifications to be an FTO?

A

Post certificate
One year experience
Completion of FTO course
Supervisor recommendation

352
Q

What is the training requirement for an FTO?

A
40 hours initial class
24 hours every three years.
353
Q

If a trainee opts to resign, what is an adequate amount of time for them to consult an advisor?

A

48 hours

354
Q

Which rating for a trainee (officer) on the DOR is deemed to be an acceptable performance rating, ie. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5?

A

3

355
Q

How long are EEO investigations retained?

A

Held by Division for 5 years

356
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining an EEO discrimination free environment?

A

Managers and Supervisors

357
Q

What is sexual harassment?

A

Unwanted sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature, when it creates and effects employment, interferes with, or creates a hostile work environment

358
Q

What is policy on harassment?

A

Workplace free of discrimination including sexual harassment. Zero tolerance

359
Q

What is quid pro quo?

A

This for that.

When sexual advances are used for promotion or denial of employment

360
Q

What is a hostile work environment

A

When harassment affects the employee’s work environment or inter fears with performance

361
Q

What is the supervisor’s/manager’s role in in the EEO program?

A

Shall be familiar with EEO policy
Shall assure the dissemination of the EEO program
Support, implement, facilitate EEO policy
Assure hiring, promotion, assignment, and training is conducted consistent with policy

362
Q

Does the EEO victim have to confront the harasser?

A

No but must demonstrate some behavior to show it is unwelcome.

Complains to co-workers, displays uneasiness around the alleged harasser

363
Q

Does a single incident necessarily raise conduct to harassment status in an EEO situation?

A

No, usually prolonged

364
Q

What are the two governing bodies over persons with disabilities?

A

ADA and Rehabilitation Act

365
Q

Are discrimination complaints available to all employees? (EEO)

A

Yes, including cadets

366
Q

What are the four government entities to file discrimination complaints to externally?

A

Federal EEO commission- 300 days after the incident
Dept. of Labor 180 days after
CA Dept of Fair Labor and Housing 365 days after
CA Dept of Industrial Relations 180 days after

367
Q

Per diem is not allowed within how many miles of employees headquarters or residence?

A

50

368
Q

Can overtime meals be claimed on travel status?

A

No

369
Q

Receipts are required for what type of expenses when claiming reimbursement?

A

Business expenses over $5
Bus fairs over $25
Taxi fairs over $10

370
Q

What is the mileage rate for bicycles?

A

4 cents per mile

371
Q

How many days,maximum, is an employee allowed to take per diem?

A

60 days

372
Q

What is the minimum amount of miles required for a move, in order for an employee to claim per diem(Moving expense reimbursement)?

A

50 miles plus the number of miles between the old residence and the old headquarters.

373
Q

How much does the Dept. charge for a witness deposit for a civil appearance?

A

$275

374
Q

What are the CHP 270 submittal requirements?

A

Within 48 hours to ORM and DGS for collisions.

375
Q

What are some exceptions to reporting damage on a CHP 270?

A

MC falls off of a kick stand, damage to windshield from a rock, suspect causes damage to car, birds fly into path of vehicle, legal intervention.

376
Q

What are the retention periods for Threshold incidents?

A

10 years

Non threshold 5 years

377
Q

Is the approved weapon required when utilizing a state vehicle?

A

Yes

378
Q

What can be released in accordance with a PRA request?

A

Releasable training records
Inspection reports
Arrested person requests except juveniles
Coordinate with OLD

379
Q

What is the maximum amount allowed for a DUI recovery cost?

A

$12,000

380
Q

What are petty cash requirements?

A

Max purchase may be $50.
Max petty cash on hand is $200
No purchase splitting

381
Q

What is the maximum amount of change allowed?

A

$100 secured in a locked box in a secured cabinet

382
Q

What is minor purchase? Major purchase?

A

Minor, under $5,000
Major, over $5,000

Materials Management Manual

383
Q

How many employees must be present for an evidence inspection?

A

2

384
Q

What is the evidence inspection sample requirements?

A

10% or ten items

385
Q

How long can evidence stay in temporary lockers?

A

Must be booked on the next business day.

386
Q

What can the fuel card be used for?

A

87 gas, oil, tire change, tire balance, lube and oil, wash, chain install, emergency service part, ($50 max),

Maximum of 3500 monthly

387
Q

What is home storage of a vehicle?

A

72 nights in a year

36 nights in six months

388
Q

What are vehicle service requirements?

A

Every 5000 miles and must be completed within 500 miles of being due

389
Q

What are times for evening and night shift differential?

A

1800-0100 and 2300-0600, must have four hours to qualify

390
Q

What shall be documented on the CHP A415 for verbal warnings?

A

Section violated, and DL number

391
Q

What shall be documented on CHP A415 for a Motorist Service?

A

License Plate or VIN

392
Q

What shall be documented on the CHP A415 for business calls?

A

Time of call, reason for call, who called

393
Q

What shall be written on the CHP A415 for short notice court cancellation?

A

Defendant’s name
Report number
Contacted by
Date notified

394
Q

What time increment do you document a business call on a CHP A415?

A

If less than 29 minutes, exact number of minutes

395
Q
What time incriments are used to document the following on a CHP A415?
V time and sick time
Bereavement
Injury
Jury
Witness 
Military
AWOL
Dock
ITO
A
V time and sick time
Bereavement
Injury
Jury
Witness             30 min
————— 
Military every 1 hour
AWOL six minutes
Dock six minutes
ITO 4 hour
396
Q

Stand by time is accrued in what allotment?

A

One hour for every four hours of shift time

397
Q

Beat code for sergeant and OIC

A

822

398
Q

How many emergency preparedness drills a year?

A

2

399
Q

What are the three emergency proclaimations?

A

Local
State of emergency
State of war emergency

400
Q

When can ICS be ceased?

A

When operations have terminated and order has been restored.

401
Q

Who has ICS for all HM on state or county CHP jurisdiction?

A

CHP

402
Q

What are the five planning stages of ICS?

A
Command 
Operations
Planning
Finance
Logistics
403
Q

Supervisors or managers shall determine number of resources to allocate…T or F

A

True

404
Q

How do allied agencies request mutual aid?

A

Through mutual aid operations area coordinator, from the requesting agency

405
Q

Can a commander authorize mutual aid?

A

Yes for immediate need but commissioners office needs to be notified

406
Q

What are differences between operations plan, incident action plan, and emergency operations plan?

A

Ops plans are for planned specific events
Emergency Ops plans are for short term incidents
IAP are for long term complex incidents

407
Q

What must all commands develop in relation to ICS?

A

72 hour self sufficient ops plan

408
Q

Who can initiate a tactical alert?

A

Division commander

409
Q

In a bomb incident on the freeway, who makes the decision to close the highway?

A

First officer on scene

410
Q

What are the rules pertaining to radio use in a bomb incident?

A

No radio communications for 300’

411
Q

What are the three types of evidence?

A

Testimonial, documentary, physical

412
Q

Can the evidence officer refuse to book evidence?

A

Evidence officer shall have the right to refuse evidence if it is not packaged or documented properly

413
Q

What is the pill count policy for evidence purposes?

A

If pill count is under 300 it will be counted instead of weighed.

414
Q

What are drug and money limits for temporary evidence lockers?

A

Drugs with street value over $10,000 and money over $1000

415
Q

How long shall MAIT evidence be stored?

A

10 years

416
Q

How long must evidence from adjudicated cases held (minimum)?

A

Misdemeanor 60 days
Felony 90 days
Juvenile cases 90 days

417
Q

A lawful owner of a firearm has been notified that the Dept intends to return their weapon to them. The owner fails to contact the departement. What is the minimum amount of days the Dept must hold the weapon before it initiates the destruction of the weapon?

A

180 days

418
Q

Weapons seized out of a Domestic Violence incident, shall be held for how many hours, minimum?

A

48
Shall be made available to the lawful owner after five business days

HPM 70.1 p 11-8

419
Q

How often are evidence inventories conducted?

A

100% annually

At change of command

420
Q

How often are evidence audits conducted?

A

Quarterly

421
Q

If an officer wants to place an evidence hold, what is the procedure?

A

Notify the supervisor and notify the DA within 72 hours

422
Q

What color of sleeves do the MVARS discs containing significant events have to be?

A

RED

423
Q

When do MVARS discs have to be submitted?

A

At the end of shift

424
Q

What amount of time do MVARS discs need to be retained?

A

One year for MVARS discs

Five years for administrative evidence
Consent search = 3 years

425
Q

How long are CHP 330’s kept?

A

3 years plus the current year

426
Q

When shall CHP 330’s be sent to the academy?

A

5th of the month

427
Q

Do CHP 330’s need to be completed when rendering medical aid?

A

Yes, on and off duty

428
Q

If exposed to HIV, what shall a supervisor do?

A

Shall complete a memo stating facts, address and phone number of and attach it to CHP 121 and CHP 121A

429
Q

Which are the three validated DUI FST’s?

A

HGN
One leg stand
Walk and turn

430
Q

Who is not eligible for a DUI cite and release?

A

Prior DUI conviction, under the influence of drugs, violent or aggressive, danger to others or themselves

431
Q

Urine test is not a DUI test option, unless?

A

Combo DUI/alcohol
No other tests are available
Hemophiliac
Arrestee takes anticoagulant

432
Q

How long do we retain DUI blood test?

A

1 year

433
Q

How long to get a DS 367 to DMV?

How long to get chemical test results to DMV (DS 367A)?

A

5 days

15 days

434
Q

How often is the PAS calibrated?

A

Every 10 days or every 150 tests

435
Q

How long do we retain a CHP 202K

A

Two years plus current

436
Q

how long to get a DUI check point ops plan to Division?

A

1 week

437
Q

How long to notify the media of a DUI checkpoint?

A

48 hours

438
Q

How long to notify the media of a DUI checkpoint location?

A

2 hours

439
Q

What is the minimum amount of signs to be posted for a DUI checkpoint?

A

Six

440
Q

What is the procedure when a driver is found to be unlicensed during a DUI checkpoint?

A

Shall make reasonable attempt to identify and contact RO of vehicle, and release if valid license, or may release to RO’s designee if valid license.
If not able to release, park it and lock it.
If unable to park it, take it for 22651 (p) VC, but document on the 180 the steps taken to ID the registered owner

441
Q

How long to get a CHP 205 to RPD and Division?

A

48 hours after conclusion

442
Q

What are the requirements to be an Explorer?

A

Age 15-21
No felony convictions
2.0 gpa or better
Good standing with work or school

443
Q

If explorers go on ride a long, what are some of the prohibitions?

A

Shall not contact violators.
Officer is responsible for the explorer
May not lay flare patterns

444
Q

Is an officer’s demeanor a force option?

A

No

445
Q

What are the 7 force options?

A
Control holds
Personal weapons
Deadly Force
OC
ECD
Less lethal
Baton
446
Q

What are reporting requirments for use of force

A

CHP 268, CHP 275, within seven days to ORM

447
Q

In regard to use of force, when is it necessary to complete a CHP 268?

A

Any use of force, control holds, or handcuffs which result in injury, complaint of pain, or subject complains of injury, high risk or felony stops where a person is released.

448
Q

When shall the finger be allowed to be on the trigger?

A

When a felon refuses to show hands or follow instructions, during building search where suspect is located and refuses to comply, when confronted by suspect and approaches aggressively or refuses to comply.

449
Q

When shall the finger be off the trigger?

A

During felony stop with suspect complying, during foot pursuit where gun is out of holster, during felony handcuffing techniques, during building search and suspect has not been located.

450
Q

When are we required to report a weapons discharge (not training)?

A

Anytime the firearm is discharged

451
Q

Should an officer continue in a vehicle pursuit if they have a ride along?

A

Should not,

Not shall.

452
Q

What are the 7 legal interventions?

A
Ramming
Roadblock
Firearms
Spike strip
Channelization
Boxing in
PIT
453
Q

On which vehicles SHALL the spike strip not be used?

A

MCs or mopeds, or similar vehicles

454
Q

On which vehicles SHOULD the spike strip not be used?

A

Vehicle transporting HM
Passenger bus transporting passengers
Vehicle which would pose unusual hazard

455
Q

Pursuit policy shall be reviewed how often?

A

Annually

456
Q

What is the only condition in which an officer “SHALL” discontinue a pursuit?

A

When directed by a supervisor

457
Q

During felony stops, what is the rifle or shotgun’s status?

A

Low ready, round chambered, safety on

458
Q

Name two requirements of establishing a road block?

A

Shall have warning signs 300’, shall have definite knowledge of violent felony been committed

459
Q

What are the no strike zones for baton?

A
Head
Neck
Groin
Sternum
Spine
Throat
460
Q

What is the minimum distance to use OC?

A

Shall not use 3 feet or less

461
Q

What is the distance requirement for using the less lethal shotgun?

A

5-60 feet

462
Q

What is the distance requirement for using the ECD?

A

7-15’ nominal

Max of 25’

463
Q

When shall ECD probes not be pulled out?

A

When stuck into Head, neck, groin, breast of female, spinal column, joints

464
Q

Minimum number of warnings to subject before releasing the canine?

A

Two

465
Q

May we release a canine on a juvenile?

A

Shall obtain a supervisor’s permission

466
Q

Procedure after canine bite and scene has settled?

A
Provide first aid
Hospital clearance
Immediate notification
Photograph injury
Incident report
467
Q

Uniformed employees shall fire ___ primary firearm shoots per year.

A

12

468
Q

How many rounds shall be fired using the shotgun on a quarterly basis by officers and sergeants? (Training)

A

18

469
Q

How many rounds shall be fired using the rifle on a quarterly basis by officers and sergeants? (Training)

A

60

470
Q

Areas shall have a minimum number of loaner guns?

Range officers?

A

2 and 2

471
Q

How many CMTOs must an Area who utilizes MCs have?

A

1

472
Q

How often do motor officers attend in service training?

A

Every two years

473
Q

How long to notify the academy motor unit of a MC TC?

A

5 days

474
Q

What is the maximum distance allowed to home store a Dept MC?

A

50 miles

475
Q

Does the motor officer have to keep a home stored Dept MC ins a locked environment?

A

Yes

476
Q

What are the objectives of the departmental training program?

A

Provide guidance for training efforts
Allocate resources in priority order: Job required, job related, upward mobility, career related, identify strengths and weaknesses through assessment center program, provide validation of training for critical tasks

477
Q

Name some of the Dept training schedules? (i.e. annual)

A

CPR,
FRO/HMIC
OST
Special Relationships

478
Q

Name some of the Dept training schedules? (i.e. quarterly)

A

Pursuits
Shooting policy
Civil disturbance
Search and seizure

479
Q

Are senior volunteers covered under SCIF?

A

No, they have their own insurance. If injured document on memo.

480
Q

What is training for the senior volunteer program?

A

SVP academy
Ongoing training
Certificate of completion

481
Q

What are the four types of uniforms

A

Formal
Work
Utility
Cold Weather

482
Q

When blue jacket is worn, what is the neck attire requirement?

A

Dickie or tie

483
Q

Is the campaign has required for traffic control?

A

Yes

484
Q

Shall all members wear body armor?

A

Enforcement duty only
Operation of a marked unit
Live fire training

485
Q

Who can wear a CHP ball cap?

A
Flight crews
MRE
Civil Disturbance when off line
Cold weather
Under rain jacket
486
Q

Which accouterments are authorized to wear on the left pocket, flap?

A

Flag
Medal of Valor
Officer of the year

487
Q

Which accouterments are authorized to wear on the right pocket, flap?

A

No more than 3 with the smallest in the middle.

Wearers perspective

488
Q

Who are the primary wearers of the utility uniform?

A
SMVP officers
Bomb detection officers 
Commercial
MAIT
K9
489
Q

Who are the incidental wearers of the utility uniform?

A
VIN Officers
MC officers, not enforcement duty
Area training officers
Area range/weapons officers
Part time SMPV
CVEF commanders
DREs
MFF
Tactical Alert Status
490
Q

How often is body armor replaced?

A

Every five years

491
Q

Name some Male grooming standards.

A

Sideburns shall not extend below bottom of ear
Not to exceed 1 1/2 inches in width
2 conservative rings
No earrings either in uniform or out on duty

492
Q

Name some grooming requirements for females.

A

In uniform, no earrings

In civilian, one pair max and stud type no more than 4 mm

493
Q

Can a juvenile be an informant?

A

Not unless for tobacco enforcement

494
Q

What are the informant fund limits?

A

750 w approval of division commander

2000 w approval of ACF

495
Q

What are storage documentation requirements?

A

Shall inventory all contents, do not force open locks, confiscate contraband and document on CHP 180

All officers involved shall be documented on 180

496
Q

What is the notification requirement for a post storage hearing.

A

Must notify the RO within 10 days

497
Q

What shall be done if a VIN returns w no record on file?

A

Take vehicle for O

498
Q

What is the 30 day impound requirement?

A
Shall issue a cite
Should get supervisor approval
Shall not issue citation out of a crash
No 30 day if W & I
RO shall be sent notice within 2 days
499
Q

A threshold incident documented on a CHP 268 shall be transmitted through proper channels to ORM within how many days?

A

7

500
Q

A non-threshold incident documented on a CHP 268 shall be transmitted through proper channels to ORM within how many days?

A

7

MM17-045

501
Q

What shall be done if a CHP 268 cannot be completed in the seven day time period?

A

A preliminary report shall be completed. Shall contain all information available at the time of the report is generated. Shall be saved within the Area’s Risk Management Reports folder

502
Q

If a threshold incident involves criminal prosecution, and results in incarceration, the associated documents shall be retained as evidence for how long?

A

Ten years or length of incarceration , which ever is longer.

503
Q

For a Potential Civil Liability incident, may audio/video recordings be routed to ORM, via CHP File Share?

A

Yes

MM17-045

504
Q

Which forms are replacing IAPro/Blue Team?

A

CHP 275, Risk Management Use of Force Report

505
Q

Is the CHP 275, Risk Management Use of Force Report protected under Attorney Client Privilege?

A

No

MM17-045

506
Q

Is a CHP 275, Risk Management Use of Force Report required when an a civilian conducts a UOF on a peace officer resulting in serious bodily injury or death?

Is it necessary when a member of the public discharges a firearm at a departmental peace officer, regardless if struck or not?

A

Yes and yes

507
Q

Is a CHP 275 Risk Management Use of Force Report necessary when an officer utilizes force to overcome physical resistance from an uncooperative subject?

A

Yes

508
Q

Is CHP 275 Risk Management Use of Force Report necessary when a dept officer discharges a weapon at subject, regardless if hit or not?

A

Yes

509
Q

Is a CHP 275 Risk Management Use of Force Report necessary when a control hold is used to overcome physical resistance from uncooperative subject?

A

Yes

510
Q

In the event that a canine was utilized to overcome a subject, is it necessary to complete more than one CHP 275 Risk Management Use of Force Report?

A

Yes
One by area (supervisor)
one for canine officer (done by division)

511
Q

How long can we hold a vehicle for the purposes of hit and run?

A

48 hours

512
Q

What needs to be written on the CHP 180 in the top right hand corner for an evidence hold?

A

535.05 in red ink

513
Q

May we impound for speed contest participation?

A

Shall obtain supervisor approval

514
Q

How long to hold evidence for asset forfeiture?

A

15 days

515
Q

If cash seized or evidence in excess of 25,000, what must be done?

A

Transported by two employees and counted at financial institution.

If less, than counted by two employees and booked

516
Q

What is done with cash having no evidentiary value?

A

Deposited in an interest bearing account within five days

517
Q

Is a DL required to operate an implement of husbandry?

A

No

518
Q

What is the certification requirement after completing commercial Level 1 course?

A

30 Level 1 inspections within 45 days.

519
Q

Can you take enforcement action agains military vehicles?

A

Shall not unless highways endangered

520
Q

What is needed to place a vehicle out of service?

A

MRE or supervisor

521
Q

Can you cite violations for size, weight, loading, or permit violations on a CHP 281?

A

No

522
Q

What are the commercial vehicle driver BAC limits?

A

.01% - .03% Cite and place driver OOS for 24 hours

.04% or greater, arrest for DUI

523
Q

In a HM spill, what determines jurisdiction?

A

First drop, or first release of product, determines which agency has INITIAL overall HMIC responsibility

524
Q

Who has HMIC responsibility at state buildings located in the political boundaries of a city?

A

CHP

525
Q

After a HM incident, when is the CHP 407E due to Division?

A

10 days of incident, notify county health within 72 hours

526
Q

What are the four mandatory notifications in a HM incident?

A

911, county health, OES, National Response Center

527
Q

How many gallons of diesel determine a HM incident?

A

42

528
Q

How long to hold a copy of the 407E at area?

A

1 year plus current

529
Q

When are the explosives route survey and the inhalation route survey due?

A

Explosive Nov 15

Inhale. May 15

530
Q

What are the minimum safe distances for an inspection site for a vehicle carrying explosives?(From school or hospital)

A

1500 feet

531
Q

Are PAS and BAC results releasable to the media?

A

PAS are, BAC not

532
Q

Which holiday reports must be prepared for Media purposes?

A
New Years
Memorial Day
4th of July
Labor Day
Thanksgiving
Christmas
533
Q

For media purposes, what items are not releasable?

A

Name of a sex crime victim
Identity of suspect prior to arrest (no special circumstance)
Investigative reports
OIS
Confessions of a crime
Officer’s opinion in a plea bargain
Photos unless they can aid in apprehension
Officer’s personal opinion on strength of case

534
Q

In regard to the Radar Manual, how long before deployment of radar enforcement after the initial road survey?

A

30 days

535
Q

How often to calibrate radar equipment?

A

Every 30 mos.

536
Q

What is the certification requirements for an officer to use radar?

A

24 hour course
100 speed and distance estimations
Recertify annually and conduct 5 moving and 5 stationary estimations

537
Q

How often to audit inventory of radar equipment?

A

Every 24 mos

538
Q

How long to retain copies of CHP 215s?

A

Office keeps white copies for 6 mos

Officer keeps green for a year

539
Q

How do you void a CHP 215?

A

Memo from commander and 4 copies must be attached.

540
Q

How long to correct a CHP 281?

A

30 days

541
Q

If a prison requests unarmed mutual aid, do we respond?

A

No

542
Q

In a mutual aid situation, CHP response shall normally be used for what?

A

Protection of life and property

543
Q

Do we enforce in National Parks?

A

No, exclusive juridiction

Partial jurisdiction is treated the same

544
Q

May we cite traffic violators in Concurrent Jurisdiction?

A

Yes

But no federal civil laws

545
Q

What is our responsibility over proprietary jurisdiction?

A

The Dept shall provide its full range of services

546
Q

How to approach dept responsibility on Indian Reservations and Rancherias?

A

Considered Proprietary jurisdiction with respect to criminal matters

547
Q

How do we approach CVC infractions by tribal members on their own reservation?
DL laws including misdemeanors?

A

Shall not enforce

548
Q

How do we approach CVC infractions by tribal members on another tribes reservation?

A

May be enforced by the Dept.

549
Q

Can we enforce zero tolerance laws for minors DUI on Indian reservations or rancherias?

A

No, unless there is a contract for services

HPM 100.67 , Ch. 6

550
Q

Can we impose Admin per se on Indian reservations or rancherias?

A

No, unless there is a contract for services

551
Q

What kind of immunity is offered to diplomatic agents?

A

Highest level of immunity includes immediate family
May not arrest or detain

Currently none in CA but they do visit

552
Q

What kind of immunity is offered to Consular officers?

A

Immune to arrest or detention with the exception of a felony warrant

Acts must be raised in court
HPM 100.67, p. 8-4

553
Q

If a vehicle is owned by a subject with full diplomatic immunity, may we search his car?

A

Not without his permission

554
Q

While doing enforcement, parking on on-ramps is limited to what?

A

Providing services, investigating TCs, enforcement,

555
Q

How many phone calls and in what time period is an adult in-custody allowed?

A

3 in 3 hours

If custodial parents, shall be allowed 2 additional calls to make custody arrangements

556
Q

How many phone calls are minors who are in custody allowed?

A

2 within one hour, to parents employer or attorney

557
Q

What are the temporary lock-up requirements for a minor? (Not jail)

A

14 years or older
Temporary custody on the basis of having violated a criminal law
Presents a serious security risk of harm to self or others
May not be longer than 6 hours, only to give time to investigate the case, facilitate release to parent/guardian, or arrange transport to appropriate juvenile facility
Separated from adults
Told how long the incarsaration can last
Adequately supervised
Keep written record explaining the need and length of detention