Womens health continued Flashcards

1
Q

what is cervical cancer strongly associated with

A

HPV - 16 and 18

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2
Q

how does HPV predispose someone to cancer

A

P53 and pRb are tumour suppressor genes. They have a role in suppressing cancers from developing. HPV produces two proteins (E6 and E7) that inhibit these tumour suppressor genes. The E6 protein inhibits p53, and the E7 protein inhibits pRb. Therefore, HPV promotes the development of cancer by inhibiting tumour suppressor genes.

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3
Q

what are risk factors for cervical cancer

A

Increased risk of catching HPV
Later detection of precancerous and cancerous changes (non-engagement with screening)
Smoking
HIV (patients with HIV are offered yearly smear tests)
Combined contraceptive pill use for more than five years
Increased number of full-term pregnancies
Family history
Exposure to diethylstilbestrol during fetal development (this was previously used to prevent miscarriages before 1971)

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4
Q

what are increased risks of catching HPV

A

Early sexual activity
Increased number of sexual partners
Sexual partners who have had more partners
Not using condoms

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5
Q

how does cervical cancer present

A

may be detected during cervical smears in otherwise asymptomatic women
abnormal vaginal bleeding
vaginal discharge
pelvic pain
dyspareunia

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6
Q

what are appearances which may suggest cervical cancer

A

Ulceration
Inflammation
Bleeding
Visible tumour

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7
Q

what are the grades of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

A

CIN I: mild dysplasia, affecting 1/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to return to normal without treatment
CIN II: moderate dysplasia, affecting 2/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to progress to cancer if untreated
CIN III: severe dysplasia, very likely to progress to cancer if untreated

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8
Q

what are notable exceptions for the smear test

A

Women with HIV are screened annually
Women over 65 may request a smear if they have not had one since aged 50
Women with previous CIN may require additional tests (e.g. test of cure after treatment)
Certain groups of immunocompromised women may have additional screening (e.g. women on dialysis, cytotoxic drugs or undergoing an organ transplant)
Pregnant women due a routine smear should wait until 12 weeks post-partum

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9
Q

when are women called to the cervical screening programme

A

Every three years aged 25 – 49
Every five years aged 50 – 64

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10
Q

what are the different cytology results someone can get

A

Inadequate
Normal
Borderline changes
Low-grade dyskaryosis
High-grade dyskaryosis (moderate)
High-grade dyskaryosis (severe)
Possible invasive squamous cell carcinoma
Possible glandular neoplasia

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11
Q

what is the management for different smear results based on the public health england guidelines

A

Inadequate sample – repeat the smear after at least three months
HPV negative – continue routine screening
HPV positive with normal cytology – repeat the HPV test after 12 months
HPV positive with abnormal cytology – refer for colposcopy

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12
Q

what is colposcopy

A

it is when a speculum is inserted and uses a colposcope to magnify the cervix which allows the epithelial lining of the cervix to be examined
stains such as acetic acid and iodine solution can be used to differentiate abnormal areas

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13
Q

what is acetic acid

A

causes abnormal cells to appear white. This appearance is described as acetowhite. This occurs in cells with an increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio (more nuclear material), such as cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and cervical cancer cells.

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14
Q

what is schillers iodine test

A

involves using an iodine solution to stain the cells of the cervix. Iodine will stain healthy cells a brown colour. Abnormal areas will not stain.

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15
Q

what is large loop excision of the transformation zone

A

it is a procedure called a loop biopsy which can be performed with local anaesthetic during colposcopy, which involves using diathermy to remove abnormal epithelial tissue of the cervix

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16
Q

what is a cone biopsy

A

it is a treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and very early stages of cervical cancer. The surgeons removes a cone shaped piece of cervix

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17
Q

what are the main risks of a cone biopsy

A

Pain
Bleeding
Infection
Scar formation with stenosis of the cervix
Increased risk of miscarriage and premature labour

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18
Q

what is the staging used for cervical cancer

A

The International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system is used to stage cervical cancer:

Stage 1: Confined to the cervix
Stage 2: Invades the uterus or upper 2/3 of the vagina
Stage 3: Invades the pelvic wall or lower 1/3 of the vagina
Stage 4: Invades the bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis

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19
Q

what is the management of cervical cancer

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and early-stage 1A: LLETZ or cone biopsy
Stage 1B – 2A: Radical hysterectomy and removal of local lymph nodes with chemotherapy and radiotherapy
Stage 2B – 4A: Chemotherapy and radiotherapy
Stage 4B: Management may involve a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy and palliative care

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20
Q

what is the five year survival for cervical cancer

A

The 5-year survival drops significantly with more advanced cervical cancer, from around 98% with stage 1A to around 15% with stage 4

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21
Q

what is pelvic exenteration

A

an operation that may be used in advanced cervical cancer. It involves removing most or all of the pelvic organs, including the vagina, cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, bladder and rectum. It is a vast operation and has significant implications on quality of life.

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22
Q

what is Bevacizumab

A

monoclonal antibody that may be used in combination with other chemotherapies in the treatment of metastatic or recurrent cervical cancer. It is also used in several other types of cancer. It targets vascular endothelial growth factor A (VEGF-A), which is responsible for the development of new blood vessels.

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23
Q

when is the HPV vaccine given and what does it protect you against

A

12-13 yrs before sexual activity
The current NHS vaccine is Gardasil, which protects against strains 6, 11, 16 and 18:

Strains 6 and 11 cause genital warts
Strains 16 and 18 cause cervical cancer

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24
Q

what is the most common type of endometrial cancer

A

adenocarcinoma
it is an oestrogen sensitive cancer

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25
Q

what is endometrial hyperplasia

A

precancerous condition involving thickening of the endometrium. The risk factors, presentation and investigations of endometrial hyperplasia are similar to endometrial cancer. Most cases of endometrial hyperplasia will return to normal over time

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26
Q

what are the two kinds of endometrial hyperplasia

A

hyperplasia without atypia
atypical hyperplasia

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27
Q

how is endometrial hyperplasia treated

A

progestogens, with either:
Intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena coil)
Continuous oral progestogens (e.g. medroxyprogesterone or levonorgestrel)

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28
Q

what are risk factors for endometrial cancer

A

unopposed oestrogen
Increased age
Earlier onset of menstruation
Late menopause
Oestrogen only hormone replacement therapy
No or fewer pregnancies
Obesity
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Tamoxifen
type 2 diabetes
hereditary nonpolyposis colorecta cancer/lynch syndrome

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29
Q

for endometrial protection what should women with PCOS be given

A

one of:
The combined contraceptive pill
An intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena coil)
Cyclical progestogens to induce a withdrawal bleed.

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30
Q

what are protective factors against endometrial cancer

A

Combined contraceptive pill
Mirena coil
Increased pregnancies
Cigarette smoking

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31
Q

how does smoking affect the risk of endometrial cancer

A

it reduces the risk of it as it is anti-oestrogenic
Oestrogen may be metabolised differently in smokers
Smokers tend to be leaner, meaning they have less adipose tissue and aromatase enzyme
Smoking destroys oocytes (eggs), resulting in an earlier menopause

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32
Q

how does endometrial cancer present

A

postmenopausal bleeding
Postcoital bleeding
Intermenstrual bleeding
Unusually heavy menstrual bleeding
Abnormal vaginal discharge
Haematuria
Anaemia
Raised platelet count

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33
Q

what is the referral criteria for endometrial cancer

A

The referral criteria for a 2-week-wait urgent cancer referral for endometrial cancer is:
Postmenopausal bleeding (more than 12 months after the last menstrual period)
NICE also recommends referral for a transvaginal ultrasound in women over 55 years with:
Unexplained vaginal discharge
Visible haematuria plus raised platelets, anaemia or elevated glucose levels

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34
Q

what investigations are done for suspected endometrial cancer

A

Transvaginal ultrasound for endometrial thickness (normal is less than 4mm post-menopause)
Pipelle biopsy, which is highly sensitive for endometrial cancer making it useful for excluding cancer
Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy

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35
Q

what are the stages of endometrial cancer

A

The International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system is used to stage endometrial cancer:

Stage 1: Confined to the uterus
Stage 2: Invades the cervix
Stage 3: Invades the ovaries, fallopian tubes, vagina or lymph nodes
Stage 4: Invades bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis

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36
Q

how is endometrial cancer treated

A

The usual treatment for stage 1 and 2 endometrial cancer is a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, also known as a TAH and BSO
other treatment options include:
A radical hysterectomy involves also removing the pelvic lymph nodes, surrounding tissues and top of the vagina
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Progesterone may be used as a hormonal treatment to slow the progression of the cancer

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37
Q

what are the types of ovarian cancers

A

Epithelial cell tumours
dermoid cysts/germ cell tumours
sex cord stromal tumours
metastasis

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38
Q

what is an epithelial cell ovarian tumour

A

Epithelial cell tumours (tumours arising from the epithelial cells of the ovary) are the most common type. Subtypes of epithelial cell tumours include:
Serous tumours (the most common)
Endometrioid carcinomas
Clear cell tumours
Mucinous tumours
Undifferentiated tumours

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39
Q

what are dermoid cysts/germ cell ovarian tumours

A

These are benign ovarian tumours. They are teratomas, meaning they come from the germ cells. They may contain various tissue types, such as skin, teeth, hair and bone. They are particularly associated with ovarian torsion. Germ cell tumours may cause raised alpha-fetoprotein (α-FP) and human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG).

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40
Q

what are sex cord stromal ovarian tumours

A

These are rare tumours, that can be benign or malignant. They arise from the stroma (connective tissue) or sex cords (embryonic structures associated with the follicles). There are several types, including Sertoli–Leydig cell tumours and granulosa cell tumours.

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41
Q

what is a Krukenberg tumour

A

a metastasis in the ovary, usually from a gastrointestinal tract cancer, particularly the stomach. Krukenberg tumours have characteristic “signet-ring” cells on histology, which look like signet rings on under a microscopy.

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42
Q

what are risk factors for ovarian cancer

A

Age (peaks age 60)
BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes (consider the family history)
Increased number of ovulations
Obesity
Smoking
Recurrent use of clomifene
early onset periods
late menopause
no pregnancies

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43
Q

what are protective factors for ovarian cancer

A

Having a higher number of lifetime ovulations increases the risk of ovarian cancer. Factors that stop ovulation or reduce the number of lifetime ovulations, reduce the risk:

Combined contraceptive pill
Breastfeeding
Pregnancy

44
Q

how do ovarian tumours present

A

non specific symptoms:
Abdominal bloating
Early satiety (feeling full after eating)
Loss of appetite
Pelvic pain
Urinary symptoms (frequency / urgency)
Weight loss
Abdominal or pelvic mass
Ascites
ovarian mass may press on the obturator nerve and cause referred hip/groin pain

45
Q

what is the referral criteria for ovarian cancer

A

Refer directly on a 2-week-wait referral if a physical examination reveals:
Ascites
Pelvic mass (unless clearly due to fibroids)
Abdominal mass

carry out further investigations before referral in women presenting with symptoms of possible cancer with a CA125: new Sx of IBS, abdo bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain, urinary frequency and weight loss

46
Q

what investigations are done for ovarian cancer

A

primary care: CA125 blood test (>35IU/ml is sig) and pelvic ultrasound
look at the risk of malignancy index which takes into account: menopausal status, ultrasound findings and CA125 levels
imaging: CT, histology, pancreatitis

47
Q

what do women under 40 with a complex ovarian mass require investigation wise

A

require tumour markers for a possible germ cell tumour
- alpha fetoprotein
- human chorionic gonadotropin

48
Q

what are causes pf raised CA125

A

CA125 is a tumour marker for epithelial cell ovarian cancer. It is not very specific, and there are many non-malignant causes of a raised CA125:
Endometriosis
Fibroids
Adenomyosis
Pelvic infection
Liver disease
Pregnancy

49
Q

what are the stages of ovarian cancer

A

The International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system is used to stage ovarian cancer. A very simplified version of this staging system is:

Stage 1: Confined to the ovary
Stage 2: Spread past the ovary but inside the pelvis
Stage 3: Spread past the pelvis but inside the abdomen
Stage 4: Spread outside the abdomen (distant metastasis)

50
Q

what is the management of ovarian cancer

A

Ovarian cancer will be managed by a specialist gynaecology oncology MDT. It usually involves a combination of surgery and chemotherapy.

51
Q

what is the most common type of vulval cancer

A

squamous cell carcinomas

52
Q

what are risk factors for vulval cancer

A

Advanced age (particularly over 75 years)
Immunosuppression
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
Lichen sclerosus
Around 5% of women with lichen sclerosus get vulval cancer.

53
Q

what is vulval intraepithelial neoplasia

A

it is a premalignant condition which affects the squamous epithelium of the skin that can precede vulval cancer

54
Q

what is High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

A

it is a type of VIN associated with HPV infection that typically occurs in younger women aged 35 – 50 years.

55
Q

what is Differentiated VIN

A

alternative type of VIN associated with lichen sclerosus and typically occurs in older women (aged 50 – 60 years).

56
Q

what are the treatment options for VIN

A

Watch and wait with close followup
Wide local excision (surgery) to remove the lesion
Imiquimod cream
Laser ablation

57
Q

how does vulval cancer present

A

Vulval lump
Ulceration
Bleeding
Pain
Itching
Lymphadenopathy in the groin
Vulval cancer most frequently affects the labia majora, giving an appearance of:
Irregular mass
Fungating lesion
Ulceration
Bleeding

58
Q

what is the referral criteria for vulval cancer

A

Suspected vulval cancer should be referred on a 2-week-wait urgent cancer referral.
Establishing the diagnosis and staging involves:
Biopsy of the lesion
Sentinel node biopsy to demonstrate lymph node spread
Further imaging for staging (e.g. CT abdomen and pelvis)

59
Q

what system is used to stage vulval cancer

A

The International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) system is used to stage vulval cancer.

60
Q

what is the management of vulval cancer

A

Wide local excision to remove the cancer
Groin lymph node dissection
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy

61
Q

when should infertility be investigated

A

when a couple has been trying to conceive for 12 months without success

62
Q

what are causes of fertility issues

A

Sperm problems (30%)
Ovulation problems (25%)
Tubal problems (15%)
Uterine problems (10%)
Unexplained (20%)
40% of infertile couples have a mix of male and female causes.

63
Q

what is general advice given to people to improve fertility issues

A

The woman should be taking 400mcg folic acid daily
Aim for a healthy BMI
Avoid smoking and drinking excessive alcohol
Reduce stress as this may negatively affect libido and the relationship
Aim for intercourse every 2 – 3 days
Avoid timing intercourse

64
Q

what investigations are done with fertility issues

A

in primary care: BMI, chlamydia screen, semen analysis, female hormone testing, rubella immunity in mother
in secondary care: ultrasound of pelvis, hysterosalpingogram, laparoscopy and dye test

65
Q

what female hormones are tested when investigating fertility issues

A

Serum LH and FSH on day 2 to 5 of the cycle
Serum progesterone on day 21 of the cycle (or 7 days before the end of the cycle if not a 28-day cycle).
Anti-Mullerian hormone
Thyroid function tests when symptoms are suggestive
Prolactin (hyperprolactinaemia is a cause of anovulation) when symptoms of galactorrhea or amenorrhoea

66
Q

why is anti-mullerian hormone tested

A

Anti-Mullerian hormone can be measured at any time during the cycle and is the most accurate marker of ovarian reserve. It is released by the granulosa cells in the follicles and falls as the eggs are depleted. A high level indicates a good ovarian reserve.

67
Q

what is a hysterosalpingogram

A

type of scan used to assess the shape of the uterus and the patency of the fallopian tubes, via a small tube which is inserted into the cervix and a contrast medium is injected into the uterine cavity and fallopian tubes. If the dye doesnt fill the tubes then this will be seen on X ray and suggests obstruction
tubal cannulation under Xray guidance can be performed during the procedure to open the tubed

68
Q

what is laparoscopy and dye test

A

During the procedure, dye is injected into the uterus and should be seen entering the fallopian tubes and spilling out at the ends of the tubes. This will not be seen when there is tubal obstruction. During laparoscopy, the surgeon can also assess for endometriosis or pelvic adhesions and treat these.

69
Q

what is the management options for anovulation

A

weight loss for overweight patients
clomifene
letrozole - used instead of clomifene to stimulate ovulation
gonadotropins - stimulate ovulation in women resistant to clomifene
ovarian drilling
metformin

70
Q

what is clomifene

A

anti-oestrogen (a selective oestrogen receptor modulator). It is given on days 2 to 6 of the menstrual cycle. It stops the negative feedback of oestrogen on the hypothalamus, resulting in a greater release of GnRH and subsequently FSH and LH.
it is used to help stimulate ovulation

71
Q

what is the management for tubal factors causing fertility issues

A

Tubal cannulation during a hysterosalpingogram
Laparoscopy to remove adhesions or endometriosis
In vitro fertilisation (IVF)

72
Q

what is the management for sperm problems causing infertility

A

surgical sperm retrieval
surgical correction of obstruction is present
intra-uterine insemination
intracytoplasmic sperm injection - injecting sperm directly into cytoplasm of egg
donor insemination

73
Q

what are instructions given to men providing a sample for semen analysis

A

Abstain from ejaculation for at least 3 days and at most 7 days
Avoid hot baths, sauna and tight underwear during the lead up to providing a sample
Attempt to catch the full sample
Deliver the sample to the lab within 1 hour of ejaculation
Keep the sample warm (e.g. in underwear) before delivery

74
Q

what factors can affect semen analysis and sperm quality and quantity

A

Several lifestyle factors may affect the results of semen analysis and the quality and quantity of sperm:
Hot baths
Tight underwear
Smoking
Alcohol
Raised BMI
Caffeine

75
Q

what are the normal results indicated by the WHO for semen analysis

A

Semen volume (more than 1.5ml)
Semen pH (greater than 7.2)
Concentration of sperm (more than 15 million per ml)
Total number of sperm (more than 39 million per sample)
Motility of sperm (more than 40% of sperm are mobile)
Vitality of sperm (more than 58% of sperm are active)
Percentage of normal sperm (more than 4%)

76
Q

what is polyspermia

A

it is a high number of sperm in a sample - more than 250 million per ml

77
Q

what is oligospermia

A

it is a reduced number of sperm in the semen sample:
Mild oligospermia (10 to 15 million / ml)
Moderate oligospermia (5 to 10 million / ml)
Severe oligospermia (less than 5 million / ml)

78
Q

what is cryptozoospermia

A

refers to very few sperm in the semen sample (less than 1 million / ml).

79
Q

what are pre-testicular causes of abnormal semen analysis

A

Testosterone is necessary for sperm creation. The hypothalamo-pituitary-gonadal axis controls testosterone. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism (low LH and FSH resulting in low testosterone), can be due to:
Pathology of the pituitary gland or hypothalamus
Suppression due to stress, chronic conditions or hyperprolactinaemia
Kallman syndrome

80
Q

what are testicular causes of abnormal semen analysis

A

Testicular damage from:
Mumps
Undescended testes
Trauma
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Cancer

81
Q

what genetic/congenital disorders can affect sperm

A

Klinefelter syndrome
Y chromosome deletions
Sertoli cell-only syndrome
Anorchia (absent testes)

82
Q

what are post testicular causes of abnormal semen analysis

A

Obstruction preventing sperm being ejaculated can be caused by:

Damage to the testicle or vas deferens from trauma, surgery or cancer
Ejaculatory duct obstruction
Retrograde ejaculation
Scarring from epididymitis, for example, caused by chlamydia
Absence of the vas deferens (may be associated with cystic fibrosis)
Young’s syndrome (obstructive azoospermia, bronchiectasis and rhinosinusitis)

83
Q

what investigations should be done if someone has an abnormal semen analysis

A

The initial steps for investigating abnormal semen analysis include a history, examination, repeat sample and ultrasound of the testes.
Hormonal analysis with LH, FSH and testosterone levels
Genetic testing
Further imaging, such as transrectal ultrasound or MRI
Vasography, which involves injecting contrast into the vas deferens and performing xray to assess for obstruction
Testicular biopsy

84
Q

what is the management for abnormal sperm sample

A

Management depends on the underlying cause, and can involve:

Surgical sperm retrieval where there is obstruction
Surgical correction of an obstruction in the vas deferens
Intra-uterine insemination involves separating high-quality sperm, then injecting them into the uterus
Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) involves injecting sperm directly into the cytoplasm of an egg
Donor insemination involves sperm from a donor

85
Q

what is in vitro fertilisation

A

fertilising an egg with sperm in a lab, then injecting the resulting embryo into the uterus

86
Q

what is the percentage success rate for IVF

A

Each attempt has a roughly 25 – 30% success rate at producing a live birth.

87
Q

what are the steps in the process of IVF

A

Suppressing the natural menstrual cycle
Ovarian stimulation
Oocyte collection
Insemination / intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
Embryo culture
Embryo transfer

88
Q

what are the protocols for suppressing the menstrual cycle in IVF

A

two protocols
1. GnRH agonists - goserelin injected in the luteal phase which stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete high FSH/LH. This causes negative feedback and the natural production of GnRH is suppressed
2. GnRH antagonist protocol: daily subcutaneous infections of GnRH antagonist starting from day 5-6 of ovarian stimulation. This suppresses LH

89
Q

what is ovarian stimulation

A

it involves using medications to promote the development of multiple follicles in the ovaries
- done with subcutaneous injections of FSH over 10-14 days
- when enough follicle have developed to an adequate size, FSH is stopped and hCG is given to stimulate the final maturation of the follicles

90
Q

how are oocytes collected in IVF

A

a needle is inserted through the vaginal wall into each ovary to aspirate the fluid from each follicle which will contain the mature oocytes
- done under guidance of transvaginal ultrasound scan and under sedation (Not GA)

91
Q

how does oocyte insemination occur in IVF

A

The male produces a semen sample around the time of oocyte collection. Frozen sperm from earlier samples may be used. The sperm and egg are mixed in a culture medium. Thousands of sperm need to be combined with each oocyte to produce enough enzymes (e.g. hyaluronic acid) for one sperm to penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida and fertilise the egg.

92
Q

how long is the embryo cultured for in IVF

A

Dishes containing the fertilised eggs are left in an incubator and observed over 2 – 5 days to see which will develop and grow. They are monitored until they reach the blastocyst stage of development (around day 5).

93
Q

when are embryos transferred into the mother in IVF

A

After 2 – 5 days, the highest quality embryos are selected for transfer. A catheter is inserted under ultrasound guidance through the cervix into the uterus. A single embryo is injected through the catheter into the uterus, and the catheter is removed. Generally, only a single embryo is transferred. Two embryos may be transferred in older women (i.e. over 35 years). Any remaining embryos can be frozen for future attempts at transfer.

94
Q

when is a pregnancy test performed in IVF

A

around day 16

95
Q

what is given to the woman from the time of oocyte collection until 8-10 weeks gestation in IVF

A

progesterone - used to mimic the progesterone released by the corpus luteum during a typical pregnancy

96
Q

what are the complications of IVF

A

Failure
Multiple pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
There is a small risk of complications relating to the egg collection procedure:
Pain
Bleeding
Pelvic infection
Damage to the bladder or bowel

96
Q

what is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

it is a complication of ovarian stimulation during IVF infertility treatment and is associated with the use of hCG to mature the follicles during the final steps of ovarian stimulation

97
Q

what is the pathophysiology of OHSS

A

an increase in VEGF released by the granulosa cells of the follicles. This increased vascular permeability causing fluid to lead from the capillaries which can move into the extravascular space and cause oedema, ascites and hypovolaemia
use of LH/FSH during ovarian stimulation results in the development of multiple follicles. OHSS is provoked by the trigger injection of hCG which stimulates the release of VEGF from follicles and cause the condition

98
Q

what are risk factors for OHSS

A

Younger age
Lower BMI
Raised anti-Müllerian hormone
Higher antral follicle count
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Raised oestrogen levels during ovarian stimulation

99
Q

how can OHSS be prevented

A

Women are individually assessed for their risk of developing OHSS.

During stimulation with gonadotrophins, they are monitored with:
Serum oestrogen levels (higher levels indicate a higher risk)
Ultrasound monitor of the follicles (higher number and larger size indicate a higher risk)

100
Q

what strategies are put in place with women who are at high risk of OHSS

A

Use of the GnRH antagonist protocol (rather than the GnRH agonist protocol)
Lower doses of gonadotrophins
Lower dose of the hCG injection
Alternatives to the hCG injection (i.e. a GnRH agonist or LH)

101
Q

what are features of OHSS

A

Early OHSS presents within 7 days of the hCG injection. Late OHSS presents from 10 days onwards. Features of the condition include:
Abdominal pain and bloating
Nausea and vomiting
Diarrhoea
Hypotension
Hypovolaemia
Ascites
Pleural effusions
Renal failure
Peritonitis from rupturing follicles releasing blood
Prothrombotic state (risk of DVT and PE)

102
Q

what are the different severities of OHSS

A

Mild: Abdominal pain and bloating
Moderate: Nausea and vomiting with ascites seen on ultrasound
Severe: Ascites, low urine output (oliguria), low serum albumin, high potassium and raised haematocrit (>45%)
Critical: Tense ascites, no urine output (anuria), thromboembolism and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

103
Q

what is the management of OHSS

A

Oral fluids
Monitoring of urine output
Low molecular weight heparin (to prevent thromboembolism)
Ascitic fluid removal (paracentesis) if required
IV colloids (e.g. human albumin solution)
- patients with mild to moderate are usually managed as an outpatient. Severe cases require admission and critical cases may require admission to ICU

104
Q

what might be monitored to assess the volume of fluid in the intravascular space in OHSS

A

Haematocrit - when this goes up, this indicates less fluid in the intravascular space as the blood is becoming more concentrated

105
Q
A