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Phase 3a Jemima > Paediatrics - neonatology, development and genetics > Flashcards

Paediatrics - neonatology, development and genetics Flashcards

1
Q

what cells produce surfactant

A

type II alveolar cells

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2
Q

what is the function of surfactant

A

to reduce the surface tension of the fluid in the lungs, and keeping alveoli inflated and maximising the surface area of the alveoli
- increases lung compliance

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3
Q

at what age do babies start to produce surfactant

A

between 24-34 weeks of gestation

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4
Q

what are required to maintain the ductus arteriosus

A

prostaglandins

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5
Q

what are issues surrounding neonatal resuscitations

A
  • babies have a large surface area to weight ratio and get cold easily
  • babies are born wet so loose heat rapidly
  • babies are born through meconium which may enter their mouth and airway
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6
Q

what are the principles of neonatal resuscitation

A
  1. Need to warm the baby
  2. calculate the APGAR score
  3. stimulate breathing
  4. Inflation breaths
  5. chest compressions
  6. severe situations
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7
Q

what can you do to keep a new baby warm

A
  • get the baby dry as quickly as possible, vigorous drying also helps stimulate breathing
  • keep baby warm with warm delivery rooms and a heat lamp
  • babies under 28 weeks are placed in a plastic bag while wet and managed under a heat lamp
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8
Q

how can you stimulate breathing in a new baby

A
  • stimulate the baby to prompt breathing, like vigorous rubbing with a towel
  • place babies head in a neutral position to keep the airway open
  • if gasping or unable to breath check for obstruction and consider aspiration
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9
Q

when are inflation breaths required in a new baby

A

when the neonate is gasping or not breathing despite adequate initial stimulation

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10
Q

how do you give inflation breaths in a neonate

A

two cycles of five inflation breaths (3 seconds each) to stimulate breathing and heart rate
if no response then 30 seconds of ventilation breaths
if still no response then chest compressions are used

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11
Q

what should be used for inflation breaths in
a. term babies
b. pre-term babies

A

a. air
b. air and oxygen

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12
Q

when do you start chest compressions in a neonate

A

if the heart rate remains below 60bpm despite resuscitation and inflations breaths

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13
Q

what ratio are chest compressions performed at with ventilation breaths

A

3:1

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14
Q

what is a baby at risk of with prolonged hypoxia

A

hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy

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15
Q

what are the different things measured in the APGAR score

A

Appearance - skin colour
Pulse
Grimmace - response to stimulation
Activity - muscle tone
Respiration

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16
Q

what is the APGAR score used for

A

used as an indicator of the progress over the first five minutes of life

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17
Q

what is placental transfusion

A

this is delayed cord clamping

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18
Q

what are the benefits of delayed cord clamping

A

improved haemoglobin, iron stores and blood pressure
reduction in interventricular haemorrhage and necrotising enterocolitis

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19
Q

what are the current guidelines from the resuscitation council UK on delayed cord clamping

A

uncompromised neonates should have a delay of at least one minute in the clamping of the umbilical cord following birth

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20
Q

what is considered a slow hear rate in a newborn

A

between 60-100 bpm

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21
Q

how do you deliver chest compressions in a newborn

A

three compressions to one ventilation
30 inflations and 90 compressions per minute

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22
Q

what temperature should newborns be maintained between

A

36.5-37.5

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23
Q

what are the important steps to do immediately after birth of a baby

A

skin to skin
delayed cord clamping
dry the baby
keep baby warm with hats and blankets
vitamin K
label the baby
measure weight and length

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24
Q

why is it important to give vitamin K after birth

A

babies are born with a deficiency of vitamin K. As it is required for normal clotting of blood vitamin K is given to all babies via IM injection as standard practice
- Can also give it orally as drops but takes longer to act and requires three doses

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25
Q

what are the benefits of skin to skin contact

A

helps warm baby
improves mother and baby interaction
calms the baby
improves breast feeding

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26
Q

what are the nine conditions screened for in the blood spot screening test

A

sickle cell disease
cystic fibrosis
congenital hypothyroidism
phenylketonuria
medium chain acyl coA dehydrogenase deficiency
maple syrup urine disease
isovaleric acidaemia
glutaric aciduria type 1
homocystin

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27
Q

when is the blood spot screening test taken

A

on day 5

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28
Q

when is the newborn examination performed

A

first 72 hours after birth
repeated 6-8 weeks by their GP

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29
Q

what are questions that should be asked before starting the newborn examination

A

has the baby passed meconium
is the baby feeding okay
is their any family history of congenital heart, eye or hip problems
have the parents noticed any issues

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30
Q

what oxygen saturations need to be checked in a baby

A

pre-ductal and post-ductal oxygen saturations
- should not be more than a 2% difference between the two
- pre-ductal measured in babies right hand
- post-ductal measured in either foot

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31
Q

what is measured with a babies general appearance in the newborn baby check

A

colour
tone
cry

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32
Q

how is the head examined in the newborn baby check

A
  1. general appearance
  2. head circumference
  3. anterior and posterior fontanelles
  4. sutures
  5. ears - skin tags, low set ears, asymmetry
  6. eyes - slight squints are normal, epicanthic folds, purulent discharge
  7. red reflex - absent with cataracts and retinoblastoma
  8. mouth - cleft lip or tongue tie
  9. sucking reflex and palate
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33
Q

how are the shoulders and arms examined in the newborn baby check

A
  1. shoulder symmetry
  2. arm movements
  3. brachial pulses
  4. radial pulses
  5. palmar creases
  6. digits
  7. sats probe on right wrist for pre-ductal reading
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34
Q

how is the chest examined in the newborn baby check

A
  1. oxygen saturations in right wrist and feet
  2. observe breathing and look for signs of respiratory distress
  3. heart sounds - murmurs, heart sounds, heart rate
  4. breath sounds
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35
Q

how is the abdomen examined in the newborn baby check

A
  1. observe the shape
  2. umbilical stump - look for discharge, infection and periumbical hernia
  3. palpate for organomegaly, hernias or masses
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36
Q

how are the genitals examined in the newborn baby check

A
  1. observe the sex, ambiguity and abnormalities
  2. palpate the testes and scrotum
  3. inspect the penis for hypospadias, epispadias and urination
  4. inspect the anus to check if patent
  5. ask about meconium
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37
Q

how are the legs examined in the newborn baby check

A
  1. observe the legs and hips for equal movements, skin creases, tone and talipes
  2. Barlow’s and Ortolani maneuvers - check for clunking, clicking and dislocation
  3. count the toes
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38
Q

how is the back inspected in the newborn baby check

A
  1. inspect and palpate the spine - curvature, spina bifida and pilonidal sinus
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39
Q

what reflexes are testes in the newborn baby check

A
  1. Moro reflex: when rapidly tipped backward arms and legs will extend
  2. suckling reflex
  3. rooting reflex: tickling the cheek will cause them to turn towards the stimulus
  4. grasp reflex
  5. stepping reflex
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40
Q

what skin findings are you looking out for in the newborn baby check

A

haemangiomas
port wine stains
mongolian blue spot
cradle cap
desquamation
erythema toxicum
milia
acne
naevus simplex
moles
transient pustular melanosis

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41
Q

what are talipes

A

clubfoot - where the ankles are in a supinated position and rolled inwards

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42
Q

what are the two types of talipes

A

structural - bones of foot and ankle involved and requires surgery referral
positional - muscles slightly tight around ankle but bones unaffected

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43
Q

what are port wine stains

A

pink patches of skin often on the face which is caused by abnormalities affecting the capillaries
dont fade with time and will often get darker
can be related to Sturge-Weber syndrome

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44
Q

what is caput succedaneum

A

involves fluid collecting on the scalp, outside the periosteum

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45
Q

what causes caput succedaneum

A

pressure to a specific area of the scalp during traumatic, prolonged or instrumental delivery

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46
Q

What is cephalohaematoma

A

it is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum

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47
Q

what are causes of cephalohaematoma

A

it is caused by damage to blood vessels during a traumatic, prolonged or instrumental delivery

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48
Q

how can you tell the difference between cephalohaematoma and caput succedaneum

A

cephalohaematoma doesnt cross the suture lines of the skull where as caput succedaneum does

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49
Q

what does a baby with caphalohaematoma need to be monitored for

A

anaemia, jaundice and resolution of the haematoma

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50
Q

what is erbs palsy

A

it is a result of C5/6 injury in the brachial plexus during birth

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51
Q

what is erbs palsy associated with

A

associated with shoulder dystocia, traumatic or instrumental delivery and large birth weight

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52
Q

what are the symptoms of erbs palsy

A

weakness of shoulder abduction
weakness of external rotation
weakness of arm flexion
weakness of finger extension

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53
Q

what is the appearance of an arm with erbs palsy

A

‘waiters tip’
- internally rotated shoulder
- extended elbow
- flexed wrist facing backwards
- lack of movement in the affected arm

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54
Q

why might a clavicle be fractured during birth

A

may be associated with shoulder dystocia, traumatic or instrumental delivery or large birth weight

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55
Q

how might a broken clavicle be picked up on the newborn baby exam

A

noticeable lack of movement or asymmetry of movement in the affected arm
asymmetry of the shoulders with the affected shoulder being lower than the normal one
pain and distress on movement of the arm

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56
Q

what are common organisms that cause neonatal sepsis

A

Group B streptococcus
E.coli
listeria
klebsiella
staph. aureus

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57
Q

what are risk factors for developing neonatal sepsis

A

vaginal GBS colonisation
GBS sepsis in a previous baby
maternal sepsis, chorioamnionitis or fever over 38
prematurity
early (premature) rupture of membranes
prolonged rupture of membranes

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58
Q

what are clinical features of neonatal sepsis

A

fever
reduced tone and activity
poor feeding
respiratory distress or apnoea
vomiting
tachycardia or bradycardia
hypoxia
jaundice within 24 hours
seizures
hypoglycaemia

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59
Q

what are red flags of neonatal sepsis

A

confirmed or suspected sepsis in the mother
signs of shock
seizures
term baby needing mechanical ventilation
respiratory distress starting more than 4 hours after birth
resumed sepsis in another baby in multiple pregnancy

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60
Q

how do you treat presumed sepsis

A
  • if one risk factor or clinical feature then monitor the obs and condition for >12 hours
  • if two or more risk factors start antibiotics
  • antibiotics should be given if there is a single red flag
  • antibiotics need to be given within 1hr of deciding to give them
  • blood cultures should be taken before antibiotics are given
  • check baseline FBC and CRP
    -perform LP if meningitis suspected
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61
Q

what do nice recommend as first line antibiotics in presumed sepsis

A

benzylpenicillin and gentamycin

alternatively given third generation cephalosporin (cefotaxime) may be given as an alternative in lower risk babies

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62
Q

when would you consider stopping antibiotics in a previously septic baby

A

when the baby is clinically well, the blood cultures are negative 36 hours after taking them and both CRP results are negative

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63
Q

what is Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy

A

lack of oxygen and restriction of blood flow to the brain causing brain malfunctioning
- in neonates as a result of hypoxia at birth

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64
Q

what can Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy lead to

A

permanent brain damage causing cerebral palsy
severe HIE can result in death

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65
Q

when do you suspect Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy in neonates

A

hypoxia during the perinatal or intrapartum period
acidosis on the umbilical artery blood gas
poor APGAR scores
features of mild/moderate/severe HIE
multi-organ failure

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66
Q

what are causes of Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy

A

anything that leads to asphyxia
- maternal shock
- intrapartum haemorrhage
- prolapsed cord
- nuchal cord: where cord is wrapped round neck of the baby

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67
Q

what is are the features of mild Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy

A
  • poor feeding, general irritability and hyper alert
  • resolves within 24 hours
  • normal prognosis
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68
Q

what are the features of moderate Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy

A
  • poor feeding, lethargic, hypotonic, seizures
  • can take up to weeks to resolve
  • up to 40% develop cerebral palsy
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69
Q

what are features of severe Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy

A
  • reduced consciousness, apnoeas, flaccid and reduced or absent reflexes
  • up to 50% mortality
  • up to 90% develop cerebral palsy
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70
Q

how is Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy managed

A

supportive care with neonatal resuscitation and ventilation, circulatory support, nutrition, acid base balance and treatment of seizures
therapeutic hypothermia

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71
Q

what is therapeutic hypothermia

A

babies near or at term considered to have Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy benefit from therapeutic hypothermia
- baby is actively cooled to between 33-34
- continue for 72 hours
- then baby is gradually warmed to normal temperature over 6 hours

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72
Q

what is the intention of therapeutic hypothermia

A

to reduce inflammation and neurone loss after hypoxic injury
- reduces the risk of cerebral palsy, developmental delay, learning difficulties, blindness and death

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73
Q

what causes jaundice

A

high levels of bilirubin in the blood

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74
Q

what are the two ways conjugated bilirubin is excreted

A

via the biliary system into GI tract
urine

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75
Q

what is physiological jaundice

A

fetal red blood cells break down more rapidly than normal RBC releasing lots of bilirubin
normally this is excreted via the placenta however after birth this is no longer available
this leads to a normal rise in bilirubin after birth, it normally resolves completely by 10 days old

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76
Q

what are symptoms of physiological jaundice

A

mild yellowing of the skin and sclera from 2-7 days
otherwise normal healthy baby

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77
Q

what are causes of neonatal jaundice

A

increased production: haemolytic disease of the newborn, ABO incompatibility, haemorrhage, intraventricular haemorrhage, cephalo-oedema, polycythaemia, sepsis and DIC. G6PD deficiency
decreased clearance of bilirubin: prematurity, breast milk jaundice, neonatal cholestasis, biliary atresia, endocrine disorders (thyroid/pituitary) and gilbert syndrome

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78
Q

is jaundice in the first 24 hours of life normal?

A

no it is pathological - needs urgent investigations and managed (think sepsis)

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79
Q

why might premature babies get jaundice

A

due to the immature liver - the process of physiological jaundice is exaggerated

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80
Q

what is Kernicterus

A

brain damage due to high bilirubin levels

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81
Q

who are more likely to get jaundice, those who are bottle fed or breastfed

A

those who are breastfed

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82
Q

why are breastfed babies more likely to get neonatal jaundice

A
  1. components of breast milk inhibit the ability of the liver to process the bilirubin
  2. breastfed babies are more likely to become dehydrated if not feeding adequately
  3. inadequate breast feeding may lead to slow passage of stools, increasing absorption of bilirubin in the intestines
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83
Q

what is haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

it is caused by incompatibility between the rhesus antigens on the surface of the red blood cells of the mother and the fetus

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84
Q

when might haemolytic disease of the newborn occur

A

when a woman is rhesus negative and her baby is rhesus negative
- mother becomes sensitised to the resus D antigens and will normally cause issues in the second + pregnancy

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85
Q

what happens in haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

the mothers anti-D antibodies can cross the placenta into the fetus, and if that fetus is rhesus positive this can cause the immune system of the fetus to attack their own cells
this leads to haemolysis, anaemia and high bilirubin levels

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86
Q

when is jaundice considered prolonged

A

more than 14 days in full term babies
more than 21 days in premature babies

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87
Q

what can cause prolonged jaundice

A

biliary atresia
hypothyroidism
G6PD deficiency

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88
Q

what investigations should be done in neonatal jaundice

A

FBC and blood film - polycythaemia or anaemia
conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
blood type testing
direct coombs test for haemolysis
thyroid function
blood and urine cultures if infection suspected
G6DP levels

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89
Q

what is the management for neonatal jaundice

A
  • monitor total bilirubin levels and plot on treatment threshold charts
  • if total bilirubin reaches threshold then they will be commenced on treatment
  • phototherapy
  • exchange transfusion
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90
Q

what is phototherapy

A

phototherapy converts unconjugated bilirubin into isomers that can be excreted in the bile and urine without requiring conjugation

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91
Q

how is phototherapy performed

A
  • remove clothing down to nappy and eye patches to protect eyes
  • baby is put into a light box which shines blue light onto the babies skin
  • bilirubin is monitored during treatment
  • once phototherapy is complete rebound bilirubin should be measured 12-18 hours after stopping to ensure levels dont rise again
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92
Q

how does kernicterus present

A

less responsive, floppy, drowsy baby with poor feeding

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93
Q

what is the long term issues with kernicterus

A

the damage to the nervous system is permanent
- cerebral palsy
- learning difficulties
- deafness

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94
Q

what is prematurity defined as

A

birth before 37 weeks gestation

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95
Q

what number of weeks are classified as
1. extreme preterm
2. very preterm
3. moderate to late preterm

A
  1. under 28 weeks
  2. 28-32 weeks
  3. 32-37 weeks
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96
Q

what can increase the chance of preterm birth

A

social deprivation
smoking
alcohol
drugs
overweight or underweight mothers
maternal co-morbidities
twins
personal or family history of prematurity

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97
Q

in women with a history of preterm birth or an ultrasound demonstrating reduced cervical length, how can you try to delay birth

A
  1. prophylactic vaginal progesterone
  2. prophylactic cervical cerclage - suture in the cervix to hold it closed
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98
Q

where preterm labour is suspected or confirmed how can the outcomes be improved

A
  1. tocolysis with nifedipine: calcium channel blocker that suppresses labour
  2. maternal corticosteroids
  3. IV magnesium sulphate
  4. delayed cord clamping or cord milking
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99
Q

what issues might a preterm baby have in early life

A

respiratory distress syndrome
hypothermia
hypoglycaemia
poor feeding
apnoea and bradycardia
neonatal jaundice
intraventricular haemorrhage
retinopathy of prematurity
necrotising enterocolitis
immature immune system and infection

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100
Q

what are long term effects of prematurity

A

chronic lung disease of prematurity
learning and behavioural difficulties
susceptibility to infections, particularly RTI
hearing and visual impairment
cerebral palsy

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101
Q

what is apnoea of prematurity

A

periods where breathing stops spontaneously for more than 20 seconds with oxygen desaturations or bradycardia

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102
Q

what are causes of apnoea of prematurity

A
  • immaturity of the autonomic nervous system
  • infection
  • anaemia
  • airway obstruction
  • CNS pathology such as seizures or haemorrhage
  • GORD
  • neonatal abstinence syndrome
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103
Q

how is apnoea of prematurity managed

A
  • attached to apnoea monitors which make a sound when apnoea is occuring
  • tactile stimulation is used to prompt baby to restart breathing
  • IV caffeine can be used to prevent apnoea and bradycardia in babies with recurrent episodes
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104
Q

what is respiratory distress syndrome

A

it affects premature neonates, born before the lungs start to produce adequate surfactant

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105
Q

what is seen on chest Xray in respiratory distress syndrome

A

ground glass appearance

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106
Q

what is the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome

A
  • inadequate surfactant leads to high surface tension within alveoli
  • this leads to lung collapse (atelectasis) and it is more difficult for alveoli to expand
  • this leads to inadequate gaseous exchange resulting in hypoxia, hypercapnia and respiratory distress
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107
Q

what is the management of respiratory distress syndrome

A
  1. antenatal steroids given to mothers with suspected or confirmed preterm labour
  2. intubation and ventilation to assist breathing
  3. endotracheal surfactant which is an artificial surfactant delivered into the lungs via an endotracheal tube
  4. continuous positive airway pressure to keep lungs inflated while breathing
  5. supplementary oxygen to maintain between 91-95% in neonates
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108
Q

what are short term complications of respiratory distress syndrome

A

pneumothorax
infection
apnoea
intraventricular haemorrhage
pulmonary haemorrhage
necrotising enterocolitis

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109
Q

what are long term conditions of respiratory distress syndrome

A

chronic lung disease of prematurity
retinopathy of prematurity
neurological, hearing and visual impairment

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110
Q

what is necrotising enterocolitis

A

disorder affecting premature neonates where part of the bowel becomes necrotic. This can lead to perforation, peritonitis and shock

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111
Q

what are risk factors for developing NEC

A

very low birth weight or very premature
formula feeds
respiratory distress and assisted ventilation
sepsis
patient ductus arteriosus and other congenital heart disease

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112
Q

how doe necrotising enterocolitis present

A

intolerance to feeds
vomiting, particularly with green bile
generally unwell
distended tender abdomen
absent bowel sounds
blood in stool

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113
Q

what investigations should be done in suspected necrotising enterocolitis

A

bloods - FBC, CRP, capillary blood gas, blood culture
Abdominal X-ray

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114
Q

what can x ray show in necrotising enterocolitis

A

dilated loops of bowel
bowel wall oedema
pneumatosis intestinalis - gas in the bowel
pneumoperitoneum
gas in the portal veins

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115
Q

what is pneumoperitoneum

A

it is free gas in the peritoneal cavity and indicated perforation

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116
Q

how is necrotising enterocolitis managed

A
  1. Nil by mouth
  2. IV fluids
  3. total parenteral nutrition
  4. antibiotics
  5. NG tube can be inserted to drain fluid and gas from the stomach and intestines
  6. immediate referral to the neonatal surgical team
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117
Q

what surgical interventions may be done for necrotising enterocolitis

A

removal of the dead bowel tissue
may be left with temporary stoma

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118
Q

what are complications of necrotising enterocolitis

A

perforation and peritonitis
sepsis
death
abscess formation
strictures
recurrence
long term stoma
short bowel syndrome after surgery

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119
Q

what is bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

it is a form of chronic lung disease affecting newborns, most often those premature.
the bronchi are damaged causing tissue destruction in the alveoli

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120
Q

are babies born with bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

no the condition results from damage to the lungs usually caused by mechanical ventilation and long term use of oxygen

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121
Q

what can cause bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

can occur when newborns lungs are underdeveloped at birth, requiring the use of a ventilator or oxygen therapy. because their lungs are vulnerable high amounts of inhaled oxygen and pressure may overstretch the alveoli causing inflammation and damage to the inner lining of the airways, alveoli and blood vessels surrounding them

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122
Q

what conditions are linked with the development of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

respiratory distress syndrome
patent ductus arteriosus

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123
Q

what are the symptoms of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

rapid breathing
laboured breathing
wheezing
need for continuous oxygen after 36 weeks
difficulty feeding
repeated lung infections

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124
Q

how does bronchopulmonary dysplasia affect a babies health

A

trouble feeding
GORD
pulmonary hypertension
delayed speech
learning difficulties
heard defects
infections

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125
Q

how is bronchopulmonary dysplasia diagnosed

A

clinical evaluation, degree of prematurity and the need for oxygen after certain ages

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126
Q

how is bronchopulmonary dysplasia treated

A

no specific cure but treatment focuses on minimising further lung damage and providing support to the newborns lungs to heal and grow
- diuretics to decrease fluid in lungs
- bronchodilators
- corticosteroids
- viral immunisation
- cardiac medications
more severe cases may need oxygen for several months such as BiPAP

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127
Q

when do symptoms of bronchopulmonary dysplasia usually subside

A

by the age of 2-3 and treatment usually ends by 5 years of age

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128
Q

what is meconium aspiration syndrome

A

respiratory distress in neonates born through meconium stained liquor

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129
Q

what are risk factors are there for developing meconium aspiration syndrome

A

being born through meconium stained liquor which increases with postdates gestation and small for gestational age

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130
Q

what are clinical features of meconium aspiration syndrome

A

meconium stained liquor
respiratory distress at or shortly after birth
chest x ray showing hyperinflation, patchy opacification and consolidation
increased oxygen requirements

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131
Q

how can meconium affect the respiratory system

A

respiratory distress: damaging affect on surfactant and its metabolism resulting in reduced surfactant
pneumonitis: irritation and inflammation
bacterial pneumonia: e.coli
pneumothorax

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132
Q

what are differential diagnosis for meconium aspiration syndrome

A

other causes of respiratory distress in newborn
- transient tachypnoea of the newborn
- delayed transition from foetal circulation
- sepsis
- congenital pneumonia
- persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
- pneumothorax
- hypovolaemia

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133
Q

what investigations are done for meconium aspiration syndrome

A

pre and post ductal saturations to assess respiratory involvement
capillary gas or venous gas
bloods: FBC, CRP, cultures
imaging: CXR

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134
Q

what is preventative management for meconium aspiration syndrome

A

prevention of fetal hypoxia and prevention of postdates gestation
can have oropharyngeal suctioning if there is meconium obstructing the airway

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135
Q

what is management of meconium aspiration syndrome post delivery

A

asymptomatic infants with APGAR>9 don require additional monitoring
infants with resp distress after birth should be admitted to the neonatal unit for 4-6 hours
management is supportive
- oxygen therapy where needed
- assisted ventilation if required
- some infants may need sedation and surfactant therapy
- antibiotic prophylaxis

136
Q

what are complications of meconium aspiration syndrome

A

short term: ongoing oxygen requirements, seizures, necrotising enterocolitis
increased incidence of reactive airway disease

137
Q

what is a TORCH infection

A

an infection of the developing foetus or newborn that can occur in utero, during delivery or after birth:
- Toxoplasma gondii
- Other agents: treponema pallidum, VZV, parvovirus 19, HIV
- Rubella
- CMV
- HSV

138
Q

what are complications of TORCH infections

A

preterm birth
delayed development of the foetus - intrauterine growth restriction
physical malformations - deafness, patent ductus arteriosus
loss of pregnancy

139
Q

how are TORCH infections transmitted

A

in utero: mother can transmit infection to fetus through the placenta
during childbirth: while passing through birth canal
after birth: pass infection via breast milk

140
Q

how is toxoplasma gondii transmitted

A

consumption of undercooked meats or exposure to cat faeces

141
Q

how can toxoplasma gondii present in a foetus or infent

A

inflammation of the choroid and retina
hydrocephalus
rash
intracranial calcifications

142
Q

how is rubella transmitted

A

direct contact with infected saliva, mucus or air droplets

143
Q

what can rubella cause in a foetus

A

congenital rubella syndrome
- deafness
- cataracts
- rash
- heart defects

144
Q

how is CMV transmitted

A

direct contact with infected bodily fluids such as saliva, tears, mucus, semen and vaginal fluid

145
Q

how can CMV infection present in a foetus

A

rashes
deafness
inflammation of the eye
seizures
microcephaly
intercranial calcifications

146
Q

how is HSV transmitted

A

HSV-1: oral secretions: kissing, sharing utensils, sharing drinks
HSV-2: sexually transmitted disease

147
Q

how can HSV present in infants

A

blisters and inflammation of the brain - meningoencephalitis

148
Q

what does treponema pallidum cause when transmitted to a fetus in utero

A

congenital syphilis

149
Q

what can congenital syphilis cause in a foetus

A

fetal death
craniofacial malformations
rash
deafness

150
Q

what is a symptom of parvovirus 19 in an infected newborn

A

anaemia of an infected newborn due to reduction in red blood cells

151
Q

what non specific signs and symptoms are there for TORCH infection

A

fever
development of microcephaly
low birth weight
lethargy
cataracts
hearing loss
congenital heart disease
hepatosplenomegaly
may have petechiae or purpura
may have jaundice

152
Q

how is TORCH infection diagnosed

A

history of maternal infections during pregnancy
prenatal ultrasound
PCR testing of the amniotic fluid
physical examination of the child plus viral cultures, PCR and antibody testing post birth

153
Q

How are children with toxoplasmosis treated

A

with pyrimethamine - antiparasitic
and sulfadiazine - antibiotic

154
Q

how are cases of HSV infection treated

A

acyclovir

155
Q

how is congenital CMV infection treated

A

ganciclovir or other antiviral medications

156
Q

how is rubella treated

A

supportive
- screening for hearing and vision issues
- surgery for any heart defects

157
Q

how is treponema pallidum treated

A

benzylpenicillin

158
Q

what is gastroschisis

A

abdominal wall defect where the abdomen doesnt fully develop in the womb
- intestines develop outside and are open to the air when the child is born

159
Q

what is the difference between gastroschisis and omphalocele

A

there is a membrane covering the babies organs with an omphalocele diagnosis and no membrane covers the organs during gastroschisis

160
Q

what are the symptoms of gastroschisis

A

findings on ultrasound may include:
stomach, large or small intestines located outside the foetus’ body
- swollen intestines
- twisted intestines
- hypothermia

161
Q

how is gastroschisis diagnosed

A

diagnosis is either during pregnancy or visually once the baby is born
- ultrasound
- blood screening - alpha-fetoprotein
- MRI

162
Q
A
163
Q
A
164
Q

are there any complications or gastroschisis surgery

A

infection at surgical site
difficulty eating

164
Q

how is gastroschisis treated

A

surgery is necessary to place childrens organs back into their body and to repair the hold the organs in the abdomen
depending on severity will be
- primary repair: neonate will receive surgery immediately after birth
- staged repair

164
Q

are there any bowel complications after gastroschisis treatment

A

bowel resection due to damaged intestines
ileostomy or colostomy

165
Q

what are side effects of gastroschisis

A

premature birth
intestinal blockage
short bowel syndrome

166
Q

what is oesopageal atresia

A

a birth defect that affects the way the babies oesophagus develops, where the passageway is missing or closed making it impossible for the baby to feed normally

167
Q

what other birth defect occurs very commonly with oesophageal atresia

A

tracheoesophageal fistula, where the oesophagus connects to the trachea meaning they can inhale or choke on what they swallow

168
Q

what are the different types of oesophageal atresia

A

Type A: doesnt include tracheoesophageal fistula and the oesophagus is closed at the bottom
Type B: oesophagus is closed at the bottom and a tracheoesophageal fistula branches off from the upper part of the oesophagus connecting it to the trachea
Type C: oesophagus is in two separate pieces. upper part connects mouth and ends in a closed loop, and lower part connects to the stomach at the bottom and trachea at the top
Type D: oesophagus is in two unconnected segments and both have separate tracheoesophageal fistulas

169
Q

what is the most common type of oesophageal atresia

A

type c

170
Q

what are symptoms of oesophageal atresia

A

coughing
choking
cyanosis
foamy mucus in babies mouth
excess saliva, spitting up or drooling
gagging when attempting to feed
respiratory distress

171
Q

are there any risk factors associated with oesophageal atresia

A

advanced maternal age or paternal age - 35 and 40 respectively
assisted reproduction technologies
multiple births
other congenital malformations and genetic syndromes

172
Q

how is oesophageal atresia diagnosed

A

may be seen on antenatal ultrasound
mother may have polyhydramnios
after birth: attempt to pass a tube into babies stomach, Xray

173
Q

how is oesophageal atresia managed

A

immediate intervention: suctioning of fluids from babies oesophagus, install breathing tube, install feeding tube, IV antibiotics
surgery soon after birth - anastomosis and close off connections

174
Q

what is the recovery and follow up of oesophageal atresia

A

the baby will need an oesophagram several days after the surgery to look at what happens when fluid passes through their oesophagus

175
Q

what is bowel atresia

A

gap or narrowing in the bowel that leads to a segment of the bowel not developing correctly causing a complete blockage, not allowing fluid of food to pass through

176
Q

where is bowel atresia most common

A

in the small bowel - jejunum and ileum

177
Q

how common is bowel atresia

A

1/5000 babies

178
Q

how is bowel atresia diagnosed

A

in a few babies the diagnosis can be made on antenatal ultrasound scans
after birth if there is evidence of a blockage the neonate will have an X-ray and occasionally a contrast study

179
Q

how do babies with bowel atresia present

A

will present soon after birth with bilious vomiting
abdomen may be swollen
may be jaundiced
not passing meconium

180
Q

what is the initial management of bowel atresia

A

milk feeds stopped
NG tube to drain any fluid and air collecting in the stomach
IV fluids

181
Q

how is bowel atresia treated

A

surgery in the first few days of birth
- atresia cut away and bowel is joined together or a temporary stoma is made

182
Q

what will the bowel proximal to the atresia be like

A

may be dilated and dysmotile

183
Q

what is recovery like post bowel atresia surgery

A

dependent on type of atresia
- may be able to drink milk few days post operation
- those who have dilated bowel proximal to the atresia will take longer to get better
- may require parenteral nutrition

184
Q

what is the cause of bowel atresia

A

think it is due to reduced blood supply to sections of the bowel during development

185
Q

what is type 1 bowel atresia

A

The blockage, which can be partial or complete, is caused by a web-like membrane that forms inside the intestine while the baby is developing in the womb. The baby’s intestine usually grows to normal length.

186
Q

what is type 1 bowel atresia

A

The blockage results when one or more segments of the intestine forms a “blind end.” The blind ends are connected by a cord of fibrous tissue, and the baby’s intestine usually grows to normal length.

187
Q

what is type 3 bowel atresia

A

the segments that end in blind ends are not connected by a fibrous cord. As a result, the blood supply within the intestine is interrupted, and the baby’s intestine usually fails to grow to a normal length. If the end of the intestines below the blockage is not coiled, the blockage is called a type IIIa atresia. Sometimes, however, that end forms a spiral “apple-peel” shape. Such a blockage is known as a type IIIb atresia.

188
Q

what is type 4 bowel atresia

A

The blockage involves many obstructions, giving the intestine a “string-of-sausages” appearance. The blockages may include various combinations of types I, II and III atresia. The baby’s intestine is significantly shorter than normal.

189
Q

what is gestational diabetes

A

it is diabetes which is triggered by pregnancy caused by reduced insulin sensitivity during pregnancy

190
Q

what are the most significant immediate complications of gestational diabetes

A

large for date fetus
macrosomia

191
Q

what are risk factors for developing gestational diabetes

A

previous gestational diabetes
previous macrosomic baby (>4.5kg)
BMI>30
ethnic origin - black carribean, middle eastern and south asian
family history of diabetes

192
Q

when is an oral glucose tolerance test used in patients

A

when there are risk factors for gestational diabetes and when there are features which suggest gestational diabetes such as
- large for date fetus
- polyhydramnios
- glucose on urine dipstick

193
Q

how is the OGTT performed

A

in the morning after a fast
patient drinks 75g glucose drink
blood sugar is measured before the sugar drink and then at 2 hours

194
Q

what are normal results of OGTT

A

fasting <5.6 mmol/l
at 2 hours <7.8 mmol/l
anything higher than that suggests gestational diabetes

195
Q

what are babies of mothers with gestational diabetes at risk of

A

neonatal hypoglycaemia
polycythaemia (raised haemoglobin)
jaundice (raised bilirubin)
congenital heart disease
cardiomyopathy

196
Q

what do babies of mothers with gestational diabetes need monitoring

A

they need close monitoring of their blood sugars for neonatal hypoglycaemia
- may need IV dextrose

197
Q

what do babies need to maintain their blood sugar above

A

2mmol/l

198
Q

what is the impact of a mother with hypothyroidism on the foetus

A

lower IQ and impaired psychomotor development

199
Q

how does uncontrolled hyperthyroidism affect the foetus

A

preterm birth
low birth weight baby
neonatal graves disease

200
Q

what are symptoms and signs of neonatal thyrotoxicosis

A

small for gestational age - or intrauterine growth restriction
preterm birth
goitre
central nervous system signs - irritability and restlessness
eye signs - lid retraction, oedema, proptosis
cardiovascular signs - tachycardia
systemic and pulmonary hypertension
hypermetabolism
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
thrombocytopenia
microcephaly
frontal bossing
jaundice and liver disease

201
Q

is screening for GBS offered to women in the uk

A

no

202
Q

how is GBS diagnosed

A

while it is not routinely screened for it may be found during pregnancy during a vaginal/anal swab or urine test

203
Q

how can a mother with GBS affect her baby

A

majority do not become ill
neonate can develop sepsis, pneumonia and meningitis

204
Q

what increases the risk of a neonate developing GBS acquired illness

A

preterm delivery
previous baby with GBS infection
high temperature or other signs of infection during labour
positive urine or swab test for GBS in pregnancy
waters broken more than 18 hours before the baby is born

205
Q

how is the risk to the baby reduced with a GBS positive mother

A
  • if GBS is found during pregnancy give IV during labour
  • if urine infection with GBS treat immediately and IV drip during labour
  • if they have had a previous baby who developed GBS infection, IV antibiotics during delivery
  • if waters break after 37 weeks, induction of labour straight away to reduce exposure time
  • if labour is before 37 weeks recommended to have IV antibiotics no matter GBS status
206
Q

what antibiotic is given for GBS infection

A

Benzylpenicillin
if allergic can give vancomycin

207
Q

what are signs of neonatal GBS infection

A

grunting, noisy breathing, respiratory distress signs
lethargic or unresponsive
crying inconsolably
unusually floppy
not feeding or keeping feed down
high or low temperature
skin changing colour
low blood pressure
low blood sugar
abnormally fast or slow heart and breathing rate

208
Q

what treatment is given to neonates with suspected GBS infection

A

penicillin

209
Q

how is GBS infection diagnosed in neonates

A

bloods - cultures and general bloods
lumbar puncture

210
Q

how is HSV transmitted to a neonate

A

during delivery through an infected maternal genital tract

211
Q

what are symptoms and signs of neonatal HSV infection

A

local or disseminated disease
skin vesicles
localised CNS disease

212
Q

how is neonatal HSV infection diagnosed

A

HSV culture or PCR
immunofluorescent testing of lesions or electron microscopy
also need to test nasopharynx, eyes, rectum, blood, CSF

213
Q

what is the mortality rate of untreated disseminated herpes simplex disease

A

85%

214
Q

what is treatment of neonatal HSV infection

A

parenteral acyclovir
supportive therapy - IV fluids, respiratory support, correction of any clotting abnormalities, control of seizures

215
Q

how can listeria be acquired during pregnancy

A

ingestion of contaminated dairy products, raw vegetables, meats or refrigerated foods that require no cooking before they are eaten

216
Q

how does neonatal listeriosis present

A

depends on timing and the route of infection
- abortion
- still birth
- premature delivery with amnionitis
- neonatal sepsis

217
Q

how is neonatal listeriosis diagnosed

A

culture or PCR testing of blood, cervix, amniotic fluid of febrile pregnant woman
culture or PCR of blood, CSF, gastric aspirate, meconium and infected tissues of neonate

218
Q

what is the treatment of neonatal listeriosis

A

ampicillin plus an aminoglycoside
other drugs include ampicillin/penicillin with rifampicin or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

219
Q

how can neonatal listeriosis be avoided

A

avoid food products with higher risk of contamination by listeria such as unpasturised dairy produces, soft cheeses, raw vegetables, deli meats and salads, refrigerated meat spreads or smoked seafood

220
Q

how may a pregnant woman with listeriosis present

A

may present with no symptoms or they may have flu like symptoms such as chills, fever and muscle aches

221
Q

what is the prognosis for listeriosis in newborns

A

about 10 to 50% of newborns will die, death rate is higher among newborns who have early onset listeriosis

222
Q

what are symptoms of listeria infection in newborns

A

little interest in feeding
irritability
fever
vomiting
difficulty breathing

223
Q

what are causes of listeria infection

A
  • raw vegetables contaminated from soil
  • contaminated meat
  • unpasturised milk or foods made with unpasturised milk
  • certain processed foods such as soft cheeses, hot dogs and deli meats
224
Q

what is a cleft lip and palate

A

openings or splits in the upper lip, the roof or the mouth or both due to facial structures not closing correctly during development

225
Q

what are symptoms of cleft lip or palate

A
  • split in the lip and the roof of the mouth that affects one or both sides of the face
  • split in the lip that appears as a small notch or extends from the lip through the upper gum and palate into the bottom of the nose
  • split in the roof of the mouth that doesnt affect appearance of the face
226
Q

what symptoms might a baby have with a cleft lip

A

difficulty with feeding
difficulty swallowing with the potential for liquids or foods to come out of the nose
nasal speaking voice
chronic ear infections

227
Q

what are causes cleft lip and palate

A

occurs when the tissue in the babies face and mouth dont fuse correctly
- mix of environmental and genetic

228
Q

what are risk factors for developing a cleft lip and palate

A

family history
exposure to certain substances during pregnancy such as cigarettes, alcohol and medications
diabetes
obesity during pregnancy

229
Q

what are complications of cleft lip and palate

A

difficulty feeding
ear infections and hearing loss
dental issues
speech difficulties
challenges of coping with a medical condition

230
Q

how is cleft lip and palate diagnosed

A

antenatal ultrasound
amniocentesis to determine if genetic condition involved
visual inspection post birth

231
Q

who is involved in the treatment of cleft lip and palate

A

surgeons - plastic and ENT
oral surgeons
pediatricians
paediatric dentists
orthodontists
nurses
auditory or hearing specialists
speech therapists
genetic counselors
social workers
psychologists

232
Q

typically when is surgery for cleft lip and palate performed

A

cleft lip repair - within the first 3 to 6 months of age
cleft palate repair - by the age of 12 months or earlier if possible
follow up surgeries - between the age of 2 and later teen years

233
Q

what is the general surgical procedure for cleft lip

A
  1. incisions made both sides of the cleft creating flaps of tissue
  2. the flaps are then stitched together including the lip muscles
  3. if nasal repair is needed this is done at the same time
234
Q

what is the general procedure of a cleft palate repair

A

incisions made on both sides of the cleft and repositions the tissue and muscle
this is then stitched closed

235
Q

what is ear tube surgery

A

for children with cleft palate ear tubes may be placed to reduce the risk of chronic ear fluid which can lead to hearing loss
tubes are places in the eardrum to create an opening and prevent fluid buildup

236
Q

what other treatments may be added for complications caused by cleft lip and palate

A

feeding strategies such as using a special bottle or feeder
speech therapy to correct difficulty with speaking
orthodontic adjustments to the teeth and bite such as having braces
monitoring by dentist for tooth development
monitoring for ear infections - ear tubes
hearing aids
therapy

237
Q

why does neonatal hypoglycaemia happen

A

due to the neonate transitioning from a continuous glucose supply across the umbilical circulation to intermittent feed and fast cycle of milk feeding

238
Q

what neonates have risk factors for hypoglycaemia

A

maternal diabetes
maternal medication use - beta blockers
small for gestational age - less than 10th percentile
large for gestational age - greater than 90th
intrauterine growth restriction
premature birth - less than 37 weeks
G6DP deficiency
fatty acid oxidation disorders
glycogen storage disease
congenital disorders - hyperinsulinism, hormone deficiencies, adrenal hyperplasia
resp. distress
sepsis
poor suck
vomiting

239
Q

what are signs of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

central nervous system excitation
- jitteriness
- high pitched cry
- seizures
central nervous system depression
- lethargy
- apnoea
- poor feeding

240
Q

what investigations are done when a neonate is suspected to have hypoglycaemia

A

true blood glucose via a capillary blood gas
glucose infusion rate - measure of how much glucose a neonate is receiving
bloods
urine

241
Q

what is the treatment for neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

need to keep baby warm, pink, sweet (Maintaining normal BGL), and calm
IV fluid with glucose
single bolus injection of glucagon
buccal glucose 40%

242
Q

how are glucose levels monitored in a neonate

A

blood glucose taken before second feed (2-4 hours post birth) and this is repeated before every feed until blood glucose levels are stable for two consecutive tests

243
Q

what do WHO recommend giving you child for the first 6 months of life

A

exclusively breastfeeding

244
Q

how much formula milk should a baby receive per kg of body weight

A

about 150 ml

245
Q

how much weight is acceptable for a baby to loose post birth

A

10 %

246
Q

what age should a baby be back to their birth weight

A

day 10

247
Q

what is the most common cause of excessive weight loss/not regaining weight as a neonate

A

dehydration due to underfeeding

248
Q

when does weaning usually start

A

starts around 6 months

249
Q

what are the three phases of growth

A

phase 1: first two years - rapid growth driven by nutritional factors
phase 2 : 2 years to puberty - steady slow growth
phase 3 : during puberty - rapid growth driven by sex hormones

250
Q

what is faltering growth defined as

A
  1. one or more centile spaces if their birthweight was below the 9th
  2. two or more centile spaces if their birthweight was between the 9th-91st
  3. three or more centile spaces if their birthweight was above the 91st
251
Q

what are causes of failure to thrive

A

inadequate nutritional intake
difficulty feeding
malabsorption
increased energy requirement
inability to process nutrition

252
Q

what is short stature defined as

A

two standard deviations below the average for their age and sex

253
Q

what is a childs predicted height

A

boys: (mums height + dads height +14)/2
Girls: (mums height + dads height - 14)/2

254
Q

what are causes of short stature

A

familial short stature
constitutional delay in growth and development
malnutrition
chronic diseases
endocrine disorders
genetic disorders
skeletal dysplasia’s

255
Q

what is constitutional delay in growth and puberty

A

it is a variation of normal development
leads to short stature in childhood but normal height in adulthood as puberty is delayed and the growth spurt lasts longer

256
Q

what is a key feature of constitutional delay in growth and puberty

A

delayed bone age

257
Q

what are the four major domains of child development

A

gross motor
fine motor
language
personal and social

258
Q

what gross motor milestones should a child hit

A

4 months - support head and keep it in line with body
6 months - maintain sitting position
9 months - sit unsupported and start crawling
12 months - stand and begin cruising
15 months - walk unaided
18 months - squat, pick up things from floor
2 years - run, kick a ball
3 years - climb stairs one at time, stand on one leg for few seconds, ride tricycle
4 years - hop, climb and descend stairs like adult

259
Q

what fine motor early milestones should a child be hitting

A

8 weeks - fixes eyes on object 30cm in front of them and attempts to follow it
6 months - palmer grasp of objects
9 months - scissor grasp of objects
12 months - pincer grasp
14-18 months - clumsy use of spoon

260
Q

what drawing skills should a child have at different developmental stages

A

12 months: holds crayon and scribbles
2 years: copies vertical line
2.5: copies horizontal line
3 years: copies circle
4 years: copies cross and square
5 years: copies triangle

261
Q

what are the ‘tower of brinks’ milestones in children

A

14 months: tower of two bricks
18 months: tower of 4 bricks
2 years: tower of 8 bricks
2.5 years: tower of 12 bricks
3 years: can build a 3 block bridge or train
4 years: can build steps

262
Q

what are the different stages of pencil grasp in childhood development

A

under 2 years: palmer supinate grasp (fist)
2-3 years: digital pronate grasp
3-4 years: quadruped grasp or static tripod grasp
5 years: multiple tripod grasp

263
Q

what are the expressive language milestones

A

3 months - cooing noises
6 months - makes noises with consonants
9 months - babbles
12 months - says single words in context
18 months - has around 5-10 words
2 years - combines 2 words, around 50+ words total
2.5 years - combines 3-4 words
3 years - basic sentences
4 years - tells stories

264
Q

what are the repetitive language milestones

A

3 months - recognises parents and familiar voices
6 months - responds to tone of voice
9 months - listens to speech
12 months - follows simple instructions
18 months - understands nouns
2 years - understands verbs
2.5 years - understands propositions
3 years - understands adjectives
4 years - follows complex instructions

265
Q

what are the personal and social milestones

A

6 weeks - smiles
3 months - communicates pleasure
6 months - curious and engaged with people
9 months - cautious and apprehensive with strangers
12 months - engages by pointing and handing objects, wave bye and claps
18 months - imitates activities
2 years - extends interest beyond parents, parallel play
3 years - seek out other children, bowel control
4 years - has best friend, dry by night, dresses self, imaginative play

266
Q

what are red flags of development

A

lost developmental milestones
not being able to hold an object at 5 months
not sitting unsupported at 12 months
not standing independently at 18 months
not walking independently at 2 years
not running at 2.5 years
no words at 18 months
no interest in others at 18 months

267
Q

what might a delay in the gross motor domain indicate

A

cerebral palsy
ataxia
myopathy
spinal bifida
visual impairment

268
Q

what might a delay in the fine motor domain indicate

A

dyspraxia
cerebral palsy
muscular dystrophy
visual impairment
congenital ataxia (rare)

269
Q

what might a delay in the speech and language domain indicate

A

specific social circumstances i.e multilingual
haring impairment
learning disability
neglect
autism
cerebral palsy

270
Q

what might delay in personal and social domain indicate

A

emotional and social neglect
parenting issues
autism

271
Q

what is Gillick competence

A

judgement about whether the understanding and intelligence of the child is sufficient to consent to treatment

272
Q

what is frazer guidelines

A

specific guidelines surrounding contraception in patients under 16
1. they are mature and intelligent enough to understand the treatment
2. they cant be persuaded to discuss it with their parents or let the health professional discuss it
3. they are likely to have intercourse regardless of treatment
4. their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without treatment
5. treatment is in their best interest

273
Q

what are classic dysmorphic features of downs syndrome

A

hypotonia - reduced muscle tone
brachycephaly - small head with flat back
short neck
short stature
flattened nose and face
prominent epicanthic folds
upward sloping palpebral fissures
single palmer crease

274
Q

what are complications of downs syndrome

A

learning disability
recurrent otitis media
deafness - eustachian tube abnormalities
visual problems - myopia, strabismus and cataracts
hypothyroidism
cardiac defects - ASD, VSD, patent ductus arteriosus and tetralogy of fallot
atlantoaxial instability
leukaemia
dementia

275
Q

what is the antenatal screening for downs syndrome

A

combined test - 11 - 14 weeks nuchal translucency, beta HCG and pregnancy associated plasma protein A
triple test - 14 to 20 weeks, beta HCG, alpha fetoprotein and serum oestriol
quadruple test - 14 to 20 weeks, same as triple test but with inhibin A added

276
Q

what antenatal tests can be done to diagnose downs syndrome

A

chronic villus sampling - biopsy of placental tissues (before 15 weeks)
amniocentesis - aspiration of amniotic fluid

277
Q

what is non invasive prenatal testing

A

blood sample from the mother and extracting the foetal DNA to perform DNA testing
- not a definitive test but good indication of if the foetus is affected

278
Q

how is downs syndrome managed

A

occupational therapy
speech and language therapy
physiotherapy
dietician
pardiatrician
GP
health visitors
cardiologist
ENT specialist
audiologist
optician
social services for social care and benefits
additional support with educational needs
charities

279
Q

what is Klinefelter syndrome

A

where a male has an additional X chromosome making them 47 XXY

280
Q

what are features of klinefelter syndrome

A

usually appear normal males until puberty when features develop:
taller height
wider hips
gynaecomastia
weaker muscles
small torso
reduced libido
shyness
infertility
subtle learning difficulties

281
Q

what are the management options for klinefelter syndrome

A

testosterone injections
advanced IVF techniques
breast reduction surgery
speech and language therapy
occupational therapy
physiotherapy
educational support

282
Q

what is the prognosis of someone with klinefelters

A

slight increased risk of
- breast cancer than other males
- osteoporosis
- diabetes
- anxiety and depression

283
Q

what is turners syndrome

A

where a female has a single X chromosome making them 45 XO

284
Q

what are the features of turners syndrome

A

short stature
webbed neck
high arching palate
downward sloping eyes with ptosis
broad chest with widely spaces nipples
cubitus valgus
underdeveloped ovaried with reduced function
late or incomplete puberty
most women are infertile

285
Q

what is cubital valgus

A

it is an abnormal feature of the elbow - when the arm is extended downwards with the palms facing forward, the angle of the forearm at the elbow is exaggerated angled away from the body

286
Q

what conditions are associated with turners syndrome

A

recurrent otitis media
recurrent UTI
coarctation of the aorta
hypothyroidism
hypertension
obesity
diabetes
osteoporosis
various specific learning disabilities

287
Q

what is the management of turners syndrome

A

growth hormone therapy
oestrogen and progesterone replacement
fertility treatment

288
Q

what is noonan syndrome

A

autosomal dominant genetic disorder which stops traditional development in parts of the body

289
Q

what causes Noonan syndrome

A

caused by multiple different genome mutations

290
Q

what are features of Noonan syndrome

A

short stature
broad shoulders
download sloping eyes with ptosis
hypertelorism - wide space between eyes
prominent nasolabial folds
low set ears
webbed neck
widely spaced nipples

291
Q

what are conditions which are associated with Noonan syndrome

A

congenital heart disease - pulmonary valve stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and ASD
cryptorchidism - undescended testes
learning disability
bleeding disorders
lymphoedema
increased risk of leukaemia and neuroblastoma

292
Q

what is the management for Noonan syndrome

A

There is no treatment for the underlying genetic defect. Management is supportive with involvement of the multidisciplinary team. The main complication is congenital heart disease and often patients will require corrective heart surgery

293
Q

what is marfan syndrome

A

autosomal dominant condition affecting the gene responsible for creating fibrillin, resulting in abnormal connective tissue

294
Q

what are features of marfan syndrome

A

Tall stature
Long neck
Long limbs
Long fingers (arachnodactyly)
High arch palate
Hypermobility
Pectus carinatum or pectus excavatum
Downward sloping palpable fissures

295
Q

what are the two tests for arachnodactyly

A
  1. cross thumb across palm, if thumb tip goes past the opposite edge this is a sign
  2. wrap thumb and fingers of one hand around the other wrist, if thumb and fingers overlap this is a sign
296
Q

what are conditions associated with marfans syndrome

A

Lens dislocation in the eye
Joint dislocations and pain due to hypermobility
Scoliosis of the spine
Pneumothorax
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Mitral valve prolapse (with regurgitation)
Aortic valve prolapse (with regurgitation)
Aortic aneurysms

297
Q

what is the management of marfans syndrome

A

minimise blood pressure and heart rate to reduce stress on the heart
avoiding intense exercise
avoid caffeine and stimulants
beta blockers and angiotensin receptor antagonists
physiotherapy
genetic counselling
yearly echocardiograms and ophthalmologist

298
Q

what is fragile X syndrome

A

caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome, which codes for the fragile X mental retardation protein which plays a role in cognitive development

299
Q

what is the inheritance pattern of fragile X syndrome

A

X linked
unclear if it is dominant or recessive as males are always affected but females vary in how much they are affected

300
Q

what are features of fragile X syndrome

A

delay in speech and language development
Intellectual disability
Long, narrow face
Large ears
Large testicles after puberty
Hypermobile joints (particularly in the hands)
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Autism
Seizures

301
Q

what is the management for fragile X syndrome

A

There is no cure for the condition. Management is supportive and involves treating the symptoms. This involves the multidisciplinary team to support the learning disability, manage autism and ADHD and treat seizures if they occur. Life expectancy is similar to the general population depending on associated disabilities and complications

302
Q

what is Prader-Willi syndrome

A

genetic condition caused by the loss of functional genes on the proximal arm of the chromosome 15 inherited from the father.
This can be due to a deletion of this portion of the chromosome, or when both copies of chromosome 15 are inherited from the mother.

303
Q

what are features of Prader-willi syndrome

A

Constant insatiable hunger that leads to obesity
Poor muscle tone as an infant (hypotonia)
Mild-moderate learning disability
Hypogonadism
Fairer, soft skin that is prone to bruising
Mental health problems, particularly anxiety
Dysmorphic features
Narrow forehead
Almond shaped eyes
Strabismus
Thin upper lip
Downturned mouth

304
Q

what is the management of prader-willi syndrome

A

no cure
carefully limiting access to food under guidance of a dietician to control weight
growth hormone
education support
social workers
psychologists
physiotherapists
occupational therapists

305
Q

what is angelman syndrome

A

genetic condition caused by loss of function of the UBE3A gene, specifically the copy of the gene that is inherited from the mother.
This can be caused by a deletion on chromosome 15, a specific mutation in this gene or where two copies of chromosome 15 are contributed by the father, with no copy from the mother.

306
Q

what are features of angelman syndrome

A

Delayed development and learning disability
Severe delay or absence of speech development
Coordination and balance problems (ataxia)
Fascination with water
Happy demeanour
Inappropriate laughter
Hand flapping
Abnormal sleep patterns
Epilepsy
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
Dysmorphic features
Microcephaly
Fair skin, light hair and blue eyes
Wide mouth with widely spaced teeth

307
Q

what is the management of angelman syndrome

A

no cure - MDT approach
Parental education
Social services and support
Educational support
Physiotherapy
Occupational therapy
Psychology
CAMHS
Anti-epileptic medication where required

308
Q

what is William syndrome

A

deletion of genetic material on one copy of chromosome 7
It usually the result of a random deletion around conception, rather than being inherited from an affected parent.

309
Q

what are the features of William syndrome

A

Broad forehead
Starburst eyes (a star-like pattern on the iris)
Flattened nasal bridge
Long philtrum
Wide mouth with widely spaced teeth
Small chin
Very sociable trusting personality
Mild learning disability

310
Q

what conditions are associated with Williams syndrome

A

Supravalvular aortic stenosis (narrowing just above the aortic valve)
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
Hypertension
Hypercalcaemia

311
Q

what is the management of Williams syndrome

A

no cure - MDT approach
Echocardiograms
blood pressure monitoring
low calcium diet
avoid calcium and vitamin D supplements

312
Q

What is edwards syndrome

A

trisomy 18 - causes physical growth delays during fetal development. children with trisomy 18 have low birth weight, multiple birth defects and defining physical characteristics

313
Q

how common is edwards syndrome

A

1 out of every 5-6000 live births
more common in pregnancy however at least 95% of fetuses dont survive full term

314
Q

what are symptoms of edwards syndrome in utero

A

very little fetal activity
single artery in umbilical cord
small placenta
birth defects
polyhydramnios

315
Q

what are the characteristics of edwards syndrome after birth

A

decreased muscle tone
low set ears
internal organs forming or functioning incorrectly
issues with cognitive development - severe
overlapping fingers and/or clubfeet
small physical size - head, mouth, jaw

316
Q

what severe symptoms of edwards syndrome can be present after birth

A

congenital heart disease and kidney disease
breathing abnormalities - resp. failure
gastrointestinal tract and abdominal wall issues
hernias
scoliosis

317
Q

how is edwards syndrome diagnosed

A

antenatal ultrasound screening tests - look for fetal activity, amniotic fluid and placenta size
amniocentesis
chorionic villus sampling
screening

318
Q

how is edwards syndrome managed

A

no cure
- cardiac treatment: surgery
- assisted feeding: NG tube
- orthopaedic treatment: bracing or surgery
- psychosocial support

319
Q

what is Patau syndrome

A

trisomy 13 - genetic condition which affects how the face, brain and heart develop

319
Q

how common is patau syndrome

A

estimated 1 out of 10-20,000 live births
mortality rate is high during first few days of life and only 5-10% of babies survive past their first year

320
Q

what are the symptoms of patau syndrome

A

congenital heart abnormalities
physical growth irregularities - spinal cord
severe cognition issues
underdeveloped internal organs
cleft lip or palate
difficulty gaining weight
extra fingers or toes
low set ears
growth abnormalities in the arms and legs
low muscle tone
small head and lower jaw
very small, close together or underdeveloped eyes

321
Q

what are the internal organ symptoms of patau syndrome

A

gastrointestinal problems - difficulty eating
heart failure
hearing issues
underdeveloped lungs
visual issues
increased risk of cancer and seizures

322
Q

what are the three types of trisomy 13

A

complete trisomy 13
translocation - 20% cases
Mosaic trisomy 13 - in some cells not all

323
Q

how is patau syndrome diagnosed

A

antenatal ultrasound scans plus genetic tests - karyotype testing

324
Q

how is patau syndrome treated

A

educational support
symptom treatment
speech, behavioural and physical therapy
surgery to repair physical abnormalities

325
Q

what is the legal framework for child safeguarding

A

the children act 1989

326
Q

what is a child in need

A

it refers to a child that is likely to need support services to maintain their health and development, or is disabled

327
Q

what are the different types of abuse

A

physical
emotional
sexual
neglect
financially
identity

328
Q

what are risk factors for abuse in children

A

domestic violence
previously abused parent
mental health problems
emotional volatility in household
social, psychological or economic stress
disability in a child
learning disability in the parents
alcohol misuse
substance misuse
non engagement with services

329
Q

what are possible signs of abuse

A

change in behaviour or extreme emotional stress
dissociative disorders
bullying, self harm or suicidal behaviours
unusually sexualised behaviours
unusual behaviour during examination
poor hygiene
poor physical or emotional development
missing appointments or not complying with treatments

330
Q

what is the management when there is a suspected safeguarding issue

A

NHS organisers have a safeguarding team/lead
once a concern has been identified that person who identifies is responsible for escalating it to someone who can take action on it
generally safeguarding cases are referred to childrens services (social services)
if a child is in immediate danger police may need to be involved

331
Q

what measures can be arranged by appropriate professionals to help support families of children with safeguarding concerns

A

Home visit programmes to support parents
parenting programmes
attachment based interventions to help parents bone and nurture their child
child-parent psychotherapy
parent-child interaction therapy
multi-systemic therapy for child abuse and neglect
cognitive behavioural therapy or children who have suffered trauma or sexual abuse

332
Q
A

Phase 3a Jemima (16 decks)

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