Paediatrics - infectious disease and ENT Flashcards

1
Q

what are examples of inactivated vaccines

A

polio
flu vaccine
hepatitis A
rabies

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2
Q

what are examples of subunit and conjugate vaccines

A

pneumococcus
meningococcus
hepatitis B
pertussis
haemophilus influenza type B
HPV
shingles

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3
Q

what are examples of live attenuated vaccines

A

MMR
BCG
chicken pox
nasal influenza
rotavirus

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4
Q

what are examples of toxin vaccines

A

diphtheria
tetanus

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5
Q

what vaccines would a 8 week old receive

A

6 on 1 vaccine (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib and hepatitis B)
meningococcal type B
rotavirus (oral vaccine)

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6
Q

what vaccines would a 12 week old receive

A

6 in 1
pneumococcal - 13 different serotypes
rotavirus

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7
Q

what vaccines would a 16 week old receive

A

6 in 1
meningococcal type B

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8
Q

what vaccinations would a 1 year old receive

A

2 in 1 (haemophilus influenza type B and meningococcal type C)
pneumococcal
MMR vaccine
meningococcal type B

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9
Q

what vaccination will a child receive yearly between the ages of 2-8

A

influenza vaccine

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10
Q

what vaccine will a child receive at 3 years and 4 months

A

4 in 1 (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis , polio)
MMR vaccine

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11
Q

what vaccine will a child receive between 12-13 years

A

the HPV vaccine - 2 doses given 6 to 24 months apart

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12
Q

what vaccines would a 14 year old receive

A

3 in 1 (tetanus, diphtheria, polio)
meningococcal groups A, C, W and Y

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13
Q

what is the current NHS HPV vaccine

A

Gardasil - protects against strains 6, 11, 16 and 18

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14
Q

what is kawasaki disease

A

systemic vasculitis which mainly affects infants and young children

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15
Q

what are infective causes of prolonged fever

A

localised infection
bacterial infections
deep abscesses
infective endocarditis
tuberculosis
non tuberculosis mycobacterial infections
viral infections
parasitic infections

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16
Q

what are non infective causes of prolonged fever

A

systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis
systemic lupus erythematosus
vasculitis
inflammatory bowel disease
sarcoidosis
malignancy
macrophage activation syndromes
drug fever
fabricated or induced illness

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17
Q

what age does kawasaki disease normally present

A

6 months to 4 years old

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18
Q

what is the cause of kawasaki disease

A

exact cause is unknown, although it is likely to be a result of immune hyperreactivity to a variety of triggers in a genetically susceptible host

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19
Q

how is kawasaki disease diagnosed

A

no diagnostic test - diagnosis made on the clinical findings

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20
Q

what are features of kawasaki disease

A

fever for over 5 days and four other features of:
- non purulent conjunctivitis
- red mucous membranes
- cervical lymphadenopathy
- rash
- red oedematous palms and soles or peeling of the fingers and toes

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21
Q

how many children with kawasaki will have coronary artery involvement

A

in about 1/3 of children within the first 6 weeks of illness

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22
Q

what is the treatment of Kawasaki disease

A

prompt treatment with intravenous immunoglobulins within the first 10 days
aspirin used to reduce the risk of thrombosis
echocardiogram at 6 weeks
children with giant coronary artery aneurysms may require long term warfarin therapy and close follow up
persistent inflammation and fever may require treatment with infliximab, steroids or ciclosporin

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23
Q

what are complications of kawasaki disease

A

coronary artery aneurysm
sudden death

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24
Q

what are clinical features of measles

A

fever
cough
runny nose
conjunctivitis
marked malaise
koplik spots - white spots on the buccal mucosa
maculopapular rash initially and then becomes blotchy and confluent

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25
where does the rash in measles start
starts on the face
26
how long is someone with measles infectious for
4 days before and 4 days after the onset of the rash
27
how is measles diagnosed
clinical blood film - leukopenia and lymphopenia LFTs - raised transaminases oral fluid test: measles RNA on oral fluid specimen confirms the diagnosis serum serology
28
what is the management of measles
acute treatment: generally supportive but can include antibiotics for secondary bacterial infection prevention: MMR vitamin A
29
what are complications of measles
acute otitis media lower respiratory tract infection encephalitis subcutaneous sclerosing panencephalitis
30
what is subcutaneous sclerosing panencephalitis
it is a rare and fatal neurological disease with progressive intellectual deterioration, ataxia and seizures about 7 years after measles infection
31
what age does chicken pox tend to occur between
1 and 6 years
32
when is the maximal transmission of chicken pox
between winter and spring
33
what are signs and symptoms of chicken pox
rash; usually starts on the head and trunk and then the rest of the body lesions start as red macules and then progress through stages: papule, vesicle, pustule and crusting headache anorexia signs of upper respiratory tract infection fever itching
34
what is the infectious period for chicken pox
starts 2 days before the vesicles appear and end when the last vesicle crusts over
35
how is chicken pox diagnosed
clinical - characteristic rash other: serology, electron microscopy of vesicle fluid
36
how is chicken pox managed
symptoms: treat fever and itching school exclusion: 5 days from the stark of skin eruption antivirals can be used in severe vzv infection, encephalitis, pneumonia, babies and immunosuppressed patients VZIG can be used as prophylaxis immunisation (non currently part of vaccination schedule)
37
what are complications of chicken pox
secondary bacterial infection with group A strep can lead to necrotising fasciitis or toxic shock purpura fulminans cerebrovascular stroke encephalitis
38
what are the signs and symptoms of rubella
prodrome: child may have mild illness with a low grade fever maculopapular rash which starts on the face and then spreads to cover the whole body suboccipital and post auricular lymphadenopathy sore throat runny nose headache joint pain malaise pink eye
39
how is rubella diagnosed
serology - risk if non immune pregnant women is exposed clinical features
40
what is the management of rubella
supportive treatment - paracetamol or ibuprofen prevention: MMR vaccine
41
how is rubella spread
droplet infection or direct contact
42
how long are you infectious with rubella for
about a week before and a week after the rash appears
43
what are the symptoms of congenital rubella
vision loss - cataracts and glaucoma hearing loss heart defects neurological affects - microcephaly, inflammation, learning and behavioural difficulties bone disease thrombocytopenia, anaemia thyroid disease hepatosplenomegaly type 1 diabetes
44
what are the symptoms of diphtheria
thick grey membrane covering the throat and tonsils sore throat and hoarseness swollen glands in the neck difficulty breathing or rapid breathing nasal discharge fever and chills tiredness
45
what is cutaneous diphtheria
it is a second type of diphtheria which affects the skin, causing pain, redness and swelling may also present with ulcers covered by a grey membrane
46
what is the cause of diphtheria
it is caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae which multiples on or near the surface of the throat or skin
47
how is diphtheria spread
airborne droplets contaminated personal or household items
48
what are risk factors for developing diphtheria
children and adults without up to date vaccines people living in crowded or unsanitary conditions anyone who travels to an area where diphtheria infections are more common
49
what are complications of diphtheria
breathing problems heart damage - myocarditis nerve damage - caused by toxin leading to difficulty swallowing and weakness in the arms and legs
50
how is diphtheria diagnosed
clinical examination culture and microscopy tissue biopsy
51
what is the treatment of diphtheria
treat first if you suspect before you know diagnosis antibiotics - penicillin, erythromycin antitoxin - to counteract diphtheria toxin supportive therapy to those exposed - prophylaxis and a booster vaccine
52
what is scalded skin syndrome
it is a rare, severe, superficial blistering skin disorder characterised by the detachment of the epidermis
53
what causes scalded skin syndrome
it is caused by exotoxin release from specific strains of staphylococcus aureus bacteria
54
what age group is scalded skin syndrome most common in
in children younger than 5, peak age being between 2-3 years old
55
why is scalded skin syndrome most common in children under 5
thought to be due to an immature: immune system renal clearance
56
what causes scalded skin syndrome
toxigenic staphylococcus aureus - releases exfoliative toxins A and B these toxins bind to a specific desmosome present in the epidermis known as desmoglein-1 and breaks it down, leading to skin cells becoming loose and unstuck
57
what are the clinical features of scalded skin syndrome
starts with nonspecific symptoms in children: irritability, lethargy, fever within 24-48 hours there is a painful widespread red rash on the skin followed by large, fragile fluid filled blister
58
where does the rash in scalding skin syndrome start
starts on the face and the flexural regions (groin, axilla, neck) and then spreads rapidly to other parts of the body including the arms, legs and trunk
59
where do you find the large fluid filled blisters in scalding skin syndrome
frequently found in areas of friction such as the axillae, groin and buttocks as well as the centre of the face and body orifices
60
what are complications of scalding skin syndrome
scarring loss of bodily fluids and salts leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance hypothermia secondary infections renal failure
61
how is scalding skin syndrome diagnosed
skin swabs blood cultures Tzanck smear skin biopsy
62
what is the treatment for scalding skin syndrome
IV antibiotics: flucloxacillin other options are ceftriaxone, clarithromycin, cealozin for MRSA infection use vancomycin pain relief monitoring and maintaining fluid intake skincare : gentle washing, emollients
63
what bacteria causes pertussis
Bordetella pertussis
64
how is pertussis transmitted
via respiratory secretions generated by coughing or sneezing or via objects contaminated with respiratory secretions
65
what is the incubation period of pertussis/whooping cough
approximately 7-10 days
66
what are complications of pertussis
apnoea pneumonia seizures cerebral hypoxia encephalopathy otitis media subconjunctival haemorrhage epistaxis ulceration of tongue and surrounding area unilateral hearing loss (rare) pneumothorax umbilical and inguinal hernias rib fracture severe dehydration malnutrition
67
what are the three phases of whooping cough symptoms
catarrhal paroxysmal convalescent
68
what is the catarrhal phase of whooping cough
begins 7-10 days after exposure and lasts 1-2 weeks rhinorrhoea malaise mild cough sore throat conjunctivitis
69
what is the paroxysmal phase of whooping cough
lasts 1-6 weeks but can last up to 10 characterised by rapid violent and uncontrolled coughing fits short expiratory burst followed by an inspiratory gasp (whoop) occur frequently at night may be triggered by external stimuli associated with post-tussive vomiting can cause cyanosis
70
what is the convalescent phase of whooping cough
usually lasts 2-3 weeks gradual improvement in cough frequency paroxysms can recur
71
what is the most infectious phase of whooping cough
the catarrhal phase
72
how do you diagnose whooping cough
examination and clinical findings laboratory tests: culture, PCR, serological testing or oral fluid testing
73
how is whooping cough managed
need to notify public health england if admission not necessary and onset of cough is within the last 14 days prescribe azithromycin or clarithromycin if macrolides contraindicated prescribe co-trimoxazole analgesia adequate fluid intake stay off from school until they have completed 48hrs of antibiotics hospitalisation if there are significant breathing difficulties
74
what are the different kinds of polio infection
abortive polio nonparalytic polio paralytic polio post polio syndrome
75
what are symptoms of abortive polio
mild flu like illness that lasts 2-3 days fever headache muscle aches sore throat stomach ache loss of appetite nausea vomiting
76
what are symptoms of non paralytic polio
more severe form more severe flu like symptoms neck pain and stiffness aches and stiffness in the arms or legs severe headache decreased reflexes muscle weakness
77
what is paralytic polio
begins more like non paralytic and then progresses: intense pain extreme sensitivity to touch tingling or pricking sensations muscle spasms or twitching muscle weakness progressing to paralysis can have paralysis in the breathing muscles difficulty swallowing
78
what are symptoms of post polio syndrome
new signs or symptoms or progression which normally happens decades after having polio - progressive muscle or joint weakness or pain - fatigue - muscle wasting - breathing or swallowing issues - sleep related breathing disorders - lowered tolerance of cold temperatures
79
what is the cause of polio
caused by poliovirus which targets nerve cells mainly in the spinal cord and brain stem naturally occurring poliovirus (wild type) has been eliminated in most countries, where as vaccine derived poliovirus is more widespread
80
how did vaccine derived poliovirus develop
due to communities or regions where not enough people are vaccinated, the weakened virus in the oral vaccine can spread, giving it a chance to mutate and behave like the wild type illness
81
how does polio spread
faeces droplets by sneezing or coughing contact of saliva contaminated water
82
what are complications of polio
permanent paralysis muscle shortening that causes deformed bones or joints chronic pain post polio syndrome
83
how is polio prevented
vaccine the CDC recommends 4 doses of vaccine at 2 months, 4 months, between 6-18 months and between 4-6 years old
84
how is polio diagnosed
clinical symptoms stool sample throat swab during the first week of illness lumbar puncture
85
how is polio treated
there is no cure for polio the focus is on supportive therapy bed rest analgesia hot moist packs to control muscle pain and spasms ventilation to help with breathing physical therapy to prevent bone deformity and loss of muscle function splints or other devices
86
how is TB spread
respiratory route close proximity to someone infected
87
what are the symptoms of TB
fever anorexia and weight loss tender lymph nodes cough haemoptosis breathlessness chest pain joint pain headache chest pain rash
88
what is the pathophysiology of TB
after exposure the bacterium M.tuberculosis is engulphed by macrophages in the lung. most people will clear it at this point, but those who dont will have primary TB. The lung lesion plus the lymph node affected will constitute the Ghon (primary) complex. in most people this will lead to asymptomatic latent TB. This can reactivate. some people will develop primary progressive or extrapulmonary TB
89
what is Extrapulmonary TB
this is TB in an organ other than the lungs and it can affect almost any organ - genitourinary: sterile pyuria, pyelonephritis - CNS: meningitis - GI: peritonitis - Cardiac: pericarditis - lymphatics: lymphadenitis - spinal vertebrae: Potts disease
90
what is miliary TB
this is disseminated TB where the bacteria spreads through the bloodstream and affects multiple organs throughout the body
91
what are risk factors for developing TB
close contact with an infected individual ethnic minority groups recent travel to high prevalence areas extremes of age homelessness immunodeficiency
92
what are the clinical findings of someone with TB
sputum pots with purulent or blood stained sputum enlarged and tender lymph nodes crackles or bronchial breathing over consolidation dullness to percussion and decreased fremitus over pleural effusions
93
what investigations are done in someone with suspected TB
Urine dip ECG bloods: inflammatory markers, renal and liver profile viral screen sputum microscopy: culture and sensitivities bronchoscopy with lavage mantoux and interferon gamma release assay to diagnose latent TB
94
how are TB samples analysed
with Ziehl-Neelson stain for acid-fast bacilli
95
what can be seen on a chest X ray in someone with TB
lobar or patchy consolidation linear or nodular opacities Miliary TB = small, uniformly distributed nodules cavitating lesions tuberculoma = caseating calcified tuberculoma (ghon focus) or lymph nodes lymphadenopathy pleural effusion
96
how is TB managed
need to notify public health england triple or quadruple therapy; RIPE - rifampicin - isoniazid - pyrazinamide - ethambutol which is then decreased to rifampicin and isoniazid after 2 months the treatment for uncomplicated or lymph node TB is 6 months longer treatment is required for disseminated TB
97
how are asymptomatic children treated for TB
with rifampicin and isoniazid for 3 months as this will decrease the risk of reactivation later in life
98
who is the BCG vaccination offered to in the UK
high risk groups - ethnic minorities - TB in a family member in the previous 5 years - local area has high prevalence
99
what are complications of TB
pleurisy pleural effusions empyema pneumothorax bronchiectasis respiratory failure
100
what drugs used to treat TB do you get hepatitis as a side effect
rifampicin isoniazid pyrazinamide
101
what drug used to treat TB causes visual disturbance
ethambutol
102
what drug used to treat TB causes peripheral neuropathy
isoniazid
103
what drug used to treat TB causes red urine/tears
rifampicin
104
what is meningitis
it is inflammation of the meninges of the brain
105
what is the most common cause of meningitis
viral meningitis
106
what are causes of bacterial meningitis in neonates - 3 months
Group B streptococcus Ecoli and other coliforms listeria monocytogenes
107
what are causes of bacterial meningitis in 3 month-6 years
Neisseria meningitidis streptococcus pneumoniae haemophilus influenzae
108
what are causes of bacterial meningitis in >6 year olds
neisseria meningitidis streptococcus pneumoniae
109
what are symptoms of meningitis
fever headache photophobia lethargy poor feeding or vomiting irritability hypotonia drowsiness loss of consciousness seizures
110
what is seen on examination in someone with meningitis
fever purpuric rash (meningococcal disease) neck stiffness bulging fontanelle arching of back positive brudzinski/kernig signs signs of shock focal neurological signs altered conciousness levels pappiloedema (rare)
111
what investigations would you do in someone with suspected meningitis
full blood count blood glucose and gas coagulation screen U+E culture of blood rapid antigen testing lumbar puncture PCR chest X ray and Mantoux test if TB suspected
112
what are contraindications to performing a lumbar puncture
cardiorespiratory instability focal neurological signs signs of raised ICP coagulopathy thrombocytopenia local infection at the site of LP if it causes undue delay in starting antibiotics
113
what is Brudzinski sign
flexion of the neck with the child supine causes flexion of the knees and hips
114
what is Kernig sign
with the child laying supine with hips and knees flexed there is back pain on extension of the knee
115
what is the management of bacterial meningitis
antibiotics - cefotaxime or ceftriaxone in children under 3 months give IV cefotaxime plus amoxicillin/ampicillin to cover listeria supportive therapy
116
what are complications of meningitis
hearing loss local vasculitis local cerebral infarction subdural effusion hydrocephalus cerebral abscess
117
what is aseptic meningitis
when CSF has whit cells on microscopy but the gram stain is negative and no bacteria are cultured
118
in primary care what do you do if someone is suspected of having bacterial meningitis
URGENT transfer to hospital IM or IV benzylpenicillin
119
how are contacts of someone with bacterial meningitis treated
prophylactic antibiotics given within 24 hours: ciprofloxacin or rifampicin
120
what are causes of viral meningitis
enterovirus EBV adenovirus mumps
121
how is viral meningitis diagnosed
PCR of CSF culture of stool, urine throat swab serology
122
what is slapped cheek syndrome
it is infection with parvovirus, which causes a distinctive rash that develops across the face
123
what are symptoms of slapped cheek syndrome
can be asymptomatic fever upset stomach headache runny nose several days after the early symptoms, a bright red rash may appear on the childs face across the cheeks after a few days a light pink rash may appear on the chest, stomach, arms and thighs. This may be raised, lace like and itchy
124
how long will the rash in slapped cheek syndrome
will fade within a week or two occasionally the body rash may come and go for a few weeks after the infection has passed
125
what can be done as management for slapped cheeked syndrome
rest drink plenty of fluids paracetamol or ibuprofen emollient on itchy skin antihistamines children can return to school once the rash has formed
126
what patients are at risk of complications with slapped cheek syndrome
immunocompromised patients pregnant women patients with haematological conditions: sickle cell, thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic anaemia
127
what are the complications of slapped cheek syndrome
Aplastic anaemia Encephalitis or meningitis Pregnancy complications including fetal death Rarely hepatitis, myocarditis or nephritis
128
how is slapped cheek syndrome spread
droplet infection - inhaled droplets someones sneezed or coughed out or touching a contaminated surface
129
what causes slapped cheek syndrome
Parvovirus B19
130
what is impetigo
common and highly contagious skin infection that causes sores and blisters
131
what are the two types of impetigo
non-bullous impetigo - most common bullous impetigo
132
what are the symptoms of non bullous impetigo
begins with red sores normally around the nose and mouth, but other areas of the face and limbs can be affected as well exudate from the lesions dries to form a thick golden crust after crusts dry they leave a red mark that fade without scarring sores arent painful but they can be itchy swollen glands
133
what are symptoms of bullous impetigo
fluid filled blisters which usually occur on the central part of the body between the waist and neck, or arms or legs blisters may spread quickly before bursting after several days to leave a yellow crust blisters may be painful skin surrounding may be itchy fever swollen glands
134
what are the causes of impetigo
skin infected with bacteria - staphylococcus aureus - streptococcus pyogenes
135
how long does it takes for impetigo symptoms to appear after initial infection
between 4-10 days after initial exposure
136
how is impetigo treated
usually gets better without treatment in around 2-3 weeks Non bullous - Topical fusidic acid/antiseptic cream (hydrogen peroxide 1% cream). can use oral flucloxacillin if its more severe Bullous - antibiotics usually flucloxacillin
137
how long is impetigo infectious for
until the rash disappears until the scabs fall off until you've finished at least two days of antibiotics children should be kept off school during the infection
138
what are the complications of impetigo
complications are rare can cause glomerulonephritis rash spreading to deeper skin layers bacterial infection spreading to other parts of your body permanent skin damage or scarring bullous impetigo can lead to staphylococcus scalded skin syndrome
139
what advice should be given to avoid spreading impetigo
not touching or scratching the lesions hand hygiene avoid sharing face towels and cutlery off school until all lesions have healed or they have been treated with antibiotics for at least 48 hours
140
how is impetigo diagnosed
clinical diagnosis may take a skin culture
141
what is candidiasis
it is a fungal infection caused by an overgrowth of a type of of yeast that lives on your body
142
what types of candidiasis exists
vaginal candidiasis cutaneous candidiasis oral candidiasis candida granuloma invasive candidiasis - systemic
143
who does candidiasis most commonly affect
people with diabetes pregnant people babies and infants people who wear dentures immunocompromised people catheter users
144
what are the symptoms of candidiasis
discomfort itching irritation redness of the skin with raised bumps burning vaginal discharge white patches or sores in your mouth swelling
145
what are risk factors for development of candidiasis
taking antibiotics, steroids, oral contraceptives, medicines that cause dry mouth feeling stresses eating a diet high in refined carbs, yeast or sugar uncontrolled diabetes HIV cancer immunocompromised pregnancy/hormonal changes
146
how is candidiasis diagnosed
clinical diagnosis may also do fungal swabs and culture - charcoal swab can test vaginal pH in women - will be lower than 4.5
147
how is candidiasis treated
antifungal medication - oral or topical clotrimazole (cream) fluconazole (oral)
148
what can cause candidiasis in a child
when skin is damaged when warm or humid when child is immunocompromised use of antibiotics
149
how is candidiasis treated in a child
topical antifungals - miconazole gel or nystatin suppositories mouthwash or lozenges severe infection may need oral or IV meds
150
what are risk factors for children to get candidiasis
age - born premature or low birth weight getting it during birth due to infected mother breastfeeding with untreated yeast infection using human milk from a pump that hasnt been properly sterilised sucking on a pacifier/bottle too often and too long using an inhaler without rinsing beforehand recent history of antibiotic use immunosuppressed
151
what is nappy rash
Nappy rash is contact dermatitis in the nappy area. It is usually caused by friction between the skin and nappy and contact with urine and faeces in a dirty nappy
152
what does diaper rash look like
sore, red, inflamed skin in the nappy area individual patches on exposure areas of skin tends to spare skin creases few red papules itchy distressed infant
153
what are risk factors for nappy rash
Delayed changing of nappies Irritant soap products and vigorous cleaning Certain types of nappies (poorly absorbent ones) Diarrhoea Oral antibiotics predispose to candida infection Pre-term infants
154
what are signs that would point to candidal infection rather than nappy rash
Rash extending into the skin folds Larger red macules Well demarcated scaly border Circular pattern to the rash spreading outwards, similar to ringworm Satellite lesions, which are small similar patches of rash or pustules near the main rash
155
how do you treat nappy rash
Switching to highly absorbent nappies (disposable gel matrix nappies) Change the nappy and clean the skin as soon as possible after wetting or soiling Use water or gentle alcohol free products for cleaning the nappy area Ensure the nappy area is dry before replacing the nappy Maximise time not wearing a nappy infection with candida will need antifungal cream - clomtrimazole or miconazole
156
what are complications of nappy rash
Candida infection Cellulitis Jacquet’s erosive diaper dermatitis Perianal pseudoverrucous papules and nodules
157
what is toxic shock syndrome
rare but life threatening complication of bacterial infection or colonisation chaacterised by high fever, rash, and shock
158
what causes toxic shock syndrome
typically one of two types of bacteria - staphylococcus aureus - streptococcus pyogenes
159
what are causes of staph.aureus toxic shock syndrome
occur after a tampon is left in too long may occur from another infection such as pneumonia, sinusitis, osteomyelitis may occur in the setting of a skin or soft tissue infection
160
what are causes of strep. pyogenes toxic shock syndrome
in those who have recently had chickenpox, bacterial cellulitis or have recently given birth and have had surgery or have wounds
161
what are signs/symptoms of staphylococcus toxic shock syndrome
high fever chills malaise headache fatigue red flat rash that covers most areas of the body low blood pressure vomiting diarrhoea muscle pain increased blood flow to mouth, eyes and vagina making them appear red decreased urine output decreased liver function bruising confusion sloughing of the skin
162
what are symptoms of streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
low blood pressure decreased kidney function bleeding issues bruising red, flat rash decreased liver function decreased urine output difficulty breathing sloughing of skin
163
how is toxic shock syndrome diagnosed
blood cultures blood tests urine tests wound cultures if needed lumbar puncture
164
how is toxic shock syndrome treated
IV antibiotics IV fluids dialysis administration of blood products supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation deep surgical cleaning of infected wound
165
what is scarlet fever
scarlet fever is a bacterial illness which causes a distinctive red rash
166
what causes scarlet fever
streptococcus pyogenes bacteria - Group A
167
what are the symptoms of scarlet fever
usually follows a sore throat or skin infection like impetigo rash - red blotches at first which turns into a fine pink red rash that feels like sandpaper to touch and looks like a sunburn itchy rash usually starts of the chest and the stomach but soon spreads to other parts of the body like ears, neck, elbows, inner thighs, groin rash doesnt usually spread to the face, however the cheeks become flushed swollen neck glands loss of appetitie vomiting or nausea white coating of the tongue which peels leaving it red and swollen (strawberry tongue) malaise
168
how soon does the rash in scarlet fever develop after the initial symptoms
12-48 hours
169
how long do symptoms of scarlet fever develop after initial infection
between 2-5 days
170
how does scarlet fever spread
breathing in bacteria in airborne droplets from an infected person touching the skin of a person sharing contaminated towels, clothes or bed linin
171
what age is scarlet fever most common in
mostly in children under 10
172
how is scarlet fever treated
most cases clear up without treatment however treatment reduces the length of time, speeds up recovery and lowers risk of complications - 10 day course of antibiotics often penicillin or amoxicillin. if allergic use erythromycin
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how long should a child stay away from school/nursery with scarlet fever
at least 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment
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what are complications of scarlet fever
ear infection throat abscess sinusitis pneumonia bacteraemia septic arthritis meningitis necrotizing fasciitis streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
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what is coxsackie disease
otherwise known as hand foot and mouth disease, it is a milk, contagious viral infection common in young children
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what are symptoms of hand foot and mouth disease
fever sore throat feeling sick painful, blister like lesions on the tongue, gums and inside of the cheeks rash on the palms, soles and sometimes buttocks the rash is not itchy but sometimes blisters rash may appear red, white, gray or tiny bumps fussiness in infants and toddlers LOA
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how long is the period from initial infection to the time symptoms appear in hand foot and mouth disease
3 to 6 days
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how soon after the fever begins do the sores develop in hand foot and mouth disease
one or two days after the fever begins the painful sores will develop
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what are the causes of hand foot and mouth disease
infection with coxsackievirus 16
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how does coxsackievirus infection spread
spends by person to person contact with an infected persons: nose secretion or throat discharge saliva fluid from blisters stools respiratory droplets with coughing or sneezing
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when is someone most contagious with hand foot and mouth disease
in the first week of having the disease
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what are risk factors for developing hand foot and mouth disease
age - mostly affects children ages 5-7 those immunosuppressed
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what are complications of hand foot and mouth
dehydration viral meningitis encephalitis
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how is hand foot and mouth diagnosed
clinical diagnosis throat swab or stool specimen
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how is hand foot and mouth treated
no specific treatment, symptoms usually clear up in 7 to 10 days topical oral anaesthetic may help relieve mouth sores over the counter pain medications such a acetaminophen or ibuprofen may help relieve discomfort
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how can you prevent vertical transmission of HIV
use of antenatal, perinatal or postnatal antiretroviral drugs avoid labour and birth canal contact by elective caesarean section avoidance of breastfeeding
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what are he clinical features of HIV in children
dormant infection lasts a short period and has few to no features chronic diarrhoea failure to thrive delayed development cerebral palsy recurrent bacterial and viral infection lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly opportunistic infections: pneumocystitis canirii, candida, herps, varacella respiratory distress
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what are AIDs defining illnesses in a HIV positive child
lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis PCP infection candida oesophagitis
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how is HIV diagnosed in children
specific antibody response (anti-HIV antibodies): infants infected perinatally have an immune response by 4-6 months of age virus or its components in blood: PCR
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how is HIV treated in children
prophylaxis against PCP - co-trimoxazole avoidance of live oral polio vaccine and HCG antiretroviral therapy social, psychological and family support
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how is HIV transmitted
unprotected anal, vaginal or oral sexual activity mother to child at any stage of pregnancy, birth or breastfeeding mucous membranes, blood or open wound exposure
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when would a woman with HIV have a normal vaginal delivery
if her viral load is below 50 copies/ml
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when would a woman with HIV have a caesarean section
considered in patients with over 50 copies/ml and in al women with over 400 copies /ml
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when is IV zidovudine given in birth where the woman is HIV positive
given during caesarean when the viral load is unknown or if there are over 10,000 copies/ml
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what prophylaxis treatment is given for babies born of mothers who have HIV
dependent on the viral load: low risk: where mums have less than 50 copies/ml should be given zidovudine for 4 weeks high risk: when mums viral load is over 50 copies/ml should be given zidovudine, lamivudine and nevirapine for 4 weeks
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when do you test children for HIV with HIV positive patents
HIV viral load test at 3 months HIV antibody test at 24 months
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what will the paediatric HIV MDT be involved in
Regular follow up to monitor growth and development Dietician input for nutritional support when required Parental education about the condition Disclosing the diagnosis to the child is often delayed until they are mature enough Psychological support Specific sex education in relation to HIV when appropriate
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what is encephalitis
inflammation of the brain as a result of infective or non infective causes
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what is the most common cause of encephalitis
with a virus - HSV is the most common. other causes include; VZV, CMV, EBV, enterovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus
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how does encephalitis present
altered consciousness altered cognition unusual behaviour acute onset of focal neurological symptoms acute onset of focal seizures fever
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how is encephalitis diagnosed
LP - CSF for viral PCR Ct scan if LP is contraindicated MRI scan EEG recording swabs - viral and vesicle HIV testing
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what are contraindications to a lumbar puncture
GCS below 9 haemodynamically unstable active seizures post ictal
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what is the management of encephalitis
IV antiviral medications - aciclovir for HSV and VZV - ganciclovir for CMV repeat LP follow up, support and rehabilitation
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what are complications of encephalitis
Lasting fatigue and prolonged recovery Change in personality or mood Changes to memory and cognition Learning disability Headaches Chronic pain Movement disorders Sensory disturbance Seizures Hormonal imbalance
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what are signs of sepsis in children
Deranged physical observations Prolonged capillary refill time (CRT) Fever or hypothermia Deranged behaviour Poor feeding Inconsolable or high pitched crying High pitched or weak cry Reduced consciousness Reduced body tone (floppy) Skin colour changes (cyanosis, mottled pale or ashen)
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what are the NICE guidelines that cover assessment of a child under 5 with a fever
Colour: normal vs cyanosis, mottled pale or ashen activity: active, happy vs abnormal responses, drowsy or inconsolable cry respiratory: normal vs distress, tachypnoea or grunting circulation and hydration: normal vs tachycardia, dry membranes or poor skin turgor other: fever for over 5 days, non blanching rash, seizures, high temp for over 6 months
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what is the immediate management of a child with sepsis
ABCDE Give O2 IV access bloods - FBC, U+E, CRP, clotting blood cultures urine dipstick antibiotics - within 1 hour of presentation IV fluids - 20ml/kg IV bolus of normal saline if lactate is above 2mmol/l
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what additional investigations may be performed if sepsis in a child is suspected
Chest X ray abdominal and pelvic ultrasound lumbar puncture meningococcal PCR serum cortisol if adrenal crisis suspected
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what is septic shock
when sepsis leads to cardiovascular dysfunction - arterial blood pressure falls resulting in hypo-perfusion and leads to anaerobic respiration
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what is the pathophysiology of sepsis
causative pathogens are recognised by macrophages, lymphocytes and mast cells. these release cytokines which lead to release of chemicals such as nitrous oxide which causes vasodilation. these cytokines also cause the endothelial lining to become more permeable and fluid to lead into the extracellular space activation of the coagulation system leads to fibrin deposition causing organ composition and consumption of platelets and clotting factors. this leads to thrombocytopaenia and haemorrhage
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what virus causes infectious mononucleosis
EBV
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how is EBV transmitted
spread by saliva of the infected individuals - kissing, sharing cups, toothbrushes, and other equipment that transmits saliva
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how long can people be infected with EBV before the illness begins
can be infectious for several weeks before the illness begins and is secreted in their saliva
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what are features of infectious mononucleosis
Fever Sore throat Fatigue Lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes) Tonsillar enlargement Splenomegaly and in rare cases splenic rupture
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what antibodies are produces in infectious mononucleosis
heterophile antibodies - takes up to 6 weeks for these antibodies to be produced
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how can you test for heterophile antibodies
monospot test: introduces patients blood to RBC from horses, and if the antibodies are present they will react with the horses blood and give a positive result Paul-bunnell test: similar to monospot but uses red blood cells from sheep
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what specific antibody tests are there for infectious mononucleosis
possible to test for EVB antibodies due to them targeting the viral capsid antigen - IgM: early and suggests acute infection - IgG: persists and suggests immunity
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how is infectious mononucleosis managed
self limiting, lasts around 2-3 weeks avoid alcohol avoid contact sports due to risk of splenic rupture
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what are complications of infectious mononucleosis
Splenic rupture Glomerulonephritis Haemolytic anaemia Thrombocytopenia Chronic fatigue EBV infection is associated with certain cancers, notable Burkitt’s lymphoma.
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how is mumps spread
respiratory droplets
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what is the incubation period of mumps
14-25 days
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how does mumps present
prodrome: initial period of flu like symptoms Fever Muscle aches Lethargy Reduced appetite Headache Dry mouth then a few days later there is parotid gland swelling either uni or bilateral with associated pain abdominal pain (pancreatitis) testicular pain (orchitis) confusion, neck stiffness, headache (meningitis or encephalitis)
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how is mumps diagnosed
PCR testing of saliva swab blood or saliva tested for antibodies clinical diagnosis
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how is mumps managed
need to notify public health with any suspected and confirmed cases supportive management: rest, fluid and analgesia
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what are the complications of mumps
Pancreatitis Orchitis Meningitis Sensorineural hearing loss
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what type of virus is Hep B
DNA virus
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how is hepatitis B transmitted
contact with blood or bodily fluids - sexual intercourse - sharing needles - contaminated products such as toothbrushes or contact between minor cuts or abrasions - vertical transmission
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what is the risk of developing chronic hepatitis B after exposure in children
90% for neonates 30% for children under 5 under 10% for adolescents
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what are the symptoms of hepatitis B in children
most are asymptomatic less that 5% will develop liver cirrhosis less than 0.05% will develop hepatocellular carcinoma (risk increases when they enter adulthood)
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what viral markers are there for hepatitis B
surface antigen - active infection E antigen - marker of viral replication core antigen - implies past or current infection surface antibody - implies vaccination or past or current infection hepatitis B virus DNA - direct count of viral load
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what does HBsAb demonstrate
demonstrates an immune response, however it is given in the vaccine and so it may simply indicate they have been vaccinated
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how can HBcAb distinguish between acute, chronic and past infection
can measure IgM and IgG versions - IgM implies active infection, with a higher titre indicating acute infection - IgG indicates past infection
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which children are important to test for hepatitis B
Children of hepatitis B positive mums (screen at 12 months of age or any time after that) Migrants from endemic areas Close contacts of patients with hepatitis B
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how do you reduce the risk of a baby contracting Hepatitis B if their mother is positive for hepatitis B
at birth (within 24 hours) neonates with hepatitis B positive mothers should be given hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin infusion infants are given additional hepatitis B vaccine at 1 and 12 months they are tested for HBsAg at 1 year
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can mothers positive with Hep B breastfeed
as Hep B can be found in breastmilk the advice is that it is safe for them to breast feed if their babies are properly vaccinated
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what is the hepatitis B vaccination
it is an injection of the hepatitis B surface antigen and requires 3 doses at different intervals
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how are children with chronic hepatitis B managed
usually asymptomatic and dont require treatment will need regular specialist follow up to assess their ALT, HBeAg, HBV DNA, physical examination and liver ultrasound where there is evidence of hepatitis or cirrhosis then treat with antivirals
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what type of virus is Hep C
RNA virus
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how is Hep C spread
via blood and bodily fluids
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how common is vertical transmission in hep C
Hepatitis C is passed from infected mothers to their babies about 5 – 15% of the time. Hepatitis C antivirals are not recommended in pregnancy and there are no additional measures that are known to reduce the risk of transmission.
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how is hepatitis C tested for
Hepatitis C antibody is the screening test Hepatitis C RNA testing is used to confirm the diagnosis of hepatitis C, calculate viral load and identify the genotype
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what is the management of hepatitis C in children
babies to hepatitis c positive mothers are tested at 18 months breastfeeding is not found to spread the virus children often clear the virus spontaneously infected children will require regular specialist follow up to monitor liver function and viral load medical treatment is considered in children over 3
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what treatment is given to children with hepatitis C
pegylated interferon and ribavirin
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what is otitis media
it is an infection in the middle ear
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what is the middle ear
it is the space that sits between the tympanic membrane and the inner ear - where the cochlea, vestibular apparatus and nerves are found
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how can bacteria enter the middle ear
enters from the back of the throat through the eustachian tube
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what is a bacterial infection of the middle ear often preceeded by
a viral upper respiratory tract infection
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what bacteria most commonly cause otitis media
streptococcus pneumoniae. Other common causes include: Haemophilus influenzae Moraxella catarrhalis Staphylococcus aureus
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how does otitis media present
ear pain reduced hearing in the affecting ear and general symptoms of upper airway infection such as fever, cough, coryzal symptoms, sore throat, and generally feeling unwell. balance issues and vertigo discharge if tympanic membrane is perforated
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what will a tympanic membrane look like in otitis media
bulging red inflamed if perforated will see discharge in the ear canal and a hole in the tympanic membrane
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how is otitis media managed
most cases will resolve without antibiotics - most cases will resolve within 3 days but can last up to a week can give immediate antibiotics in patients with significant co-morbidities, are systemically unwell or immunocompromised give delayed prescription if symptoms havent improved or worsen after 3 days
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what is the treatment used for otitis media
amoxicillin for 5 days alternatives are erythromycin and clarithromycin
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what are complications of otitis media
Otitis medial with effusion Hearing loss (usually temporary) Perforated eardrum Recurrent infection Mastoiditis (rare) Abscess (rare)
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what is glue ear
otitis media with effusion, where the middle ear becomes full of fluid causing a loss of hearing in the ear
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what causes glue ear
when the eustachian tube becomes blocked, there is a build up of secretions in the middle ear which normally drains, causing loss of hearing
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what is the main symptom of glue ear
loss of hearing in the affected ear
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what is the main complication of glue ear
otitis media - infection
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what will otoscopy show in someone with glue ear
dull tympanic membrane with air bubbles or a visible fluid level can look normal
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what is the management of glue ear
refer to audiometry to help establish a diagnosis and the extend of the hearing loss treat conservatively and normally resolves within 3 months children with co morbidities affecting the ear structure may require hearing aids or grommets
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what are grommets
tiny tubes which are inserted into the tympanic membrane by an ENT surgeon this allows fluid from the middle ear to drain through the tympanic membrane to the ear canal
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how are grommets removed
they usually fall out within a year, and only 1 in 3 patients require further grommets to be inserted for persistent glue ear
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what are congenital causes of hearing loss
maternal rubella or CMV infection during pregnancy genetic deafness - recessive/dominant associated syndromes such as Downs
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what are perinatal causes of hearing loss
prematurity hypoxia during or after birth
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what are causes of hearing loss after birth
jaundice meningitis and encephalitis otitis media or glue ear chemotherapy
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how is hearing of newborns tested in the UK
the newborn hearing screening programme tests hearing in all neonates - can identify congenital hearing problems early
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what are signs in children that they may have issues with their hearing
Ignoring calls or sounds Frustration or bad behaviour Poor speech and language development Poor school performance
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what is audiometry
it is audio testing in children under 3, looking for a basic response to sound older children can be tested properly with headphones and specific tones and volumes
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what are the results of audiometry recorded on
on an audiogram which can help identify and differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss
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what are audiograms
these are charts that document the volume at which patients can hear different tones - frequency on the X axis - volume is plotted on the Y axis
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what are normal readings on audiograms
when someone has normal hearing all readings will between 0 and 20 dB at the top of the chart
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what is sensorineural hearing loss
Sensorineural hearing loss, or SNHL, happens after inner ear damage. Problems with the nerve pathways from your inner ear to your brain can also cause SNHL. Soft sounds may be hard to hear. Even louder sounds may be unclear or may sound muffled. This is the most common type of permanent hearing loss.
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what will sensorineural hearing loss look like on an audiogram
both air and bone conduction readings will be more than 20 dB, plotted below the 20 dB line on the chart. This may affect only one side, one side more than the other or both sides equally.
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what is conductive hearing loss
when sounds are unable to pass from your outer ear to your inner ear, often because of a blockage such as earwax, glue ear or a build-up of fluid from an ear infection, perforated ear drum or disorder of the hearing bones - sound can travel through bones but not through air.
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what will conductive hearing loss look like on an audiogram
bone conduction readings will be normal (between 0 and 20 dB), however air conduction readings will be greater than 20 dB, plotted below the 20 dB line on the chart.
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what will mixed hearing loss look like on an audiogram
both air and bone conduction readings will be more than 20 dB, however there will be a difference of more than 15 dB between the two (bone conduction > air conduction).
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how is hearing loss managed
MDT approach Speech and language therapy Educational psychology ENT specialist Hearing aids for children who retain some hearing Sign language specialist schools
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what is the most common cause of bacterial tonsillitis
group A streptococcus
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what are other bacterial causes of tonsillitis
Haemophilus influenzae Morazella catarrhalis Staphylococcus aureus
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what is Waldeyer's tonsillar ring
in the pharynx there is a ring of lymphoid tissue, there are six areas of lymphoid tissue making up the adenoid, tubal tonsils, palatine tonsils and lingual tonsil.
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which tonsils are typically affected in tonsillitis
the palatine tonsils, these are the tonsils either side at the back of the throat
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what are features of tonsillitis
fever sore throat painful swallowing poor oral intake headache vomiting
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what will examination of the throat reveal in tonsillitis
red inflamed and enlarged tonsils with or without exudates
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what is the centor criteria
it is used to eliminate the probability that tonsilitis is due to bacterial infection and will benefit from antibiotics
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what score would give a higher probability that tonsillitis is caused by bacteria
a score of 3 or more gives a 40-60% probability of bacterial tonsillitis
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what features are looked at in the centor criteria
Fever over 38ºC Tonsillar exudates Absence of cough Tender anterior cervical lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy) each one present is given one point
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what is the FeverPAIN score
it is an alternative score to the Centor criteria, and a score of 2 gives a 34-40% probability, and a score of 4-5 gives a 62-65% chance its caused by bacterial tonsillitis
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what factors are looked at in the FeverPAIN score
Fever during previous 24 hours P – Purulence (pus on tonsils) A – Attended within 3 days of the onset of symptoms I – Inflamed tonsils (severely inflamed) N – No cough or coryza
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what is the management of tonsilitis
need to calculate centor or feverPAIN score safety net advice simple analgesia - paracetamol or ibuprofen antibiotics if indicated (can be immediate or delayed) - Penicillin V for a 10 day course. clarithromycin if there is a penicillin allergy
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what are complications of tonsillitis
Chronic tonsillitis Peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy Otitis media if the infection spreads to the inner ear Scarlet fever Rheumatic fever Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis Post-streptococcal reactive arthritis
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what is Quinsy
it is the common name for a peritonsillar abscess
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what causes quinsy
when there is a bacterial infection with trapped pus, forming an abscess in the region of the tonsils
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how does quinsy present
sore throat painful swallowing fever neck pain referred ear pain swollen tender lymph nodes trismus - unable to open mouth change in voice due to pharyngeal swelling swelling and erythema in the tonsillar area
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what are the common bacteria that causes quinsy
streptococcus pyogenes (group A) staphylococcus aureus haemophilus influenzae
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what is the management of quincy
patients should be referred into hospital for incision and drainage of the abscess antibiotics are required = co-amoxiclav steroids (dexamethasone) to settle inflammation and aid recovery (not always)
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what is a tonsillectomy
it is the name for the surgical removal of the tonsils
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what are indications for a tonsillectomy
7 or more episodes of tonsillitis in 1 year 5 episodes per year for two years 3 episodes per year for three years recurrent tonsillar abscesses (2 episodes) enlarged tonsils causing issues with breathing, swallowing or snoring
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what are complications of a tonsillectomy
pain - sore throat can last 2 weeks damage to teeth infection post-tonsillectomy bleeding risks of general anaesthetic
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what is post tonsillectomy bleeding
it is the main significant complication significant bleeding can occur in up to 5% of patients and it requires urgent management bleeding can be severe and in rare cases life threatening due to aspiration of blood
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how long after a tonsillectomy can post tonsillectomy bleeding occur
can happen up to two weeks after the operation
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what is the management for post tonsillectomy bleeding
call ENT registrar get IV access and send bloods: FBC, clotting screen, group and save, crossmatch give adequate analgesia encourage to spit blood rather than swallowing nil by mouth IV fluids for maintenance and resuscitation as required
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prior to going back into theater what two options are there for stopping less severe bleeds in post tonsillectomy bleeding
hydrogen peroxide gargle adrenaline soaked swab applied topically
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where do nosebleeds originate form
the Kiesselbachs plexus which is also known as little area. this is an area of nasal mucosa of the front of the nasal cavity which contains a lot of blood vessels
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what causes a nosebleed
then the mucosa in the Kiesselbachs plexus gets disrupted and the blood vessels are exposed, then the nose becomes prone to bleeding
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what can initiate a nosebleed
nose picking colds vigorous nose blowing trauma changes in weather
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what does bleeding from both nostrils indicate
may indicate bleeding posteriorly in the nose
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what is the management of nosebleeds
will usually resolve without medical assistance recurrent and significant nosebleeds might require investigations to look for underlying disease such as thrombocytopenia or clotting disorders
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what advice would you give parents on how to manage nosebleeds
Sit up and tilt the head forwards. Tilting the head backwards is not advised as blood will flow towards the airway. Squeeze the soft part of the nostrils together for 10 – 15 minutes Spit any blood in the mouth out rather than swallowing
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when may patients require hospital admission for a nosebleed
when the bleeding doesnt stop after 10-15 minutes if the bleeding is severe if the bleeding is from both nostrils if the patient becomes unstable
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what are the treatment options for a nosebleed in hospital
nasal packing using nasal tampons or inflatable packs nasal cautery using a silver nitrate stick
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after treating a nosebleed what can be prescribed to help with recovery
consider prescribing naseptin (chlorhexidine and neomycin) four times a day for ten days, helps reduce crusting, inflammation and infection
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when is Naseptin contraindicated
in peanut or soya allergy
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what is tongue tie
also known as ankyloglossia, it is when the baby is born with a short and tight lingual frenulum, the attachment of the tongue to the floor of the mouth
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how does tongue tie present
it normally presents with difficulty feeding (particularly breastfeeding) also can be picked up on newborn baby check
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what is the management of tongue tie
can be monitored in mild cases when it affects feeding babies may benefit from frenotomy which is when a trained person cuts the tongue tie this is normally done without anaesthetic
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what are the complications of frenotomy
very rare - excessive bleeding, scar formation, infection
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what is a cystic hygroma
it is a malformation of the lymphatic system that results in a cyst filled with lymphatic fluid
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what is the most common location for a cystic hygroma
typically in the posterior triangle of the neck, on the left hand side can also present in the armpit
318
what are the features of a cystic hygroma
they can be very large are soft are non tender transilluminate
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what are complications of a cystic hygroma
depending on the location and size they can interfere with swallowing, feeding or breathing they can become infected there can be haemorrhage into the cyst
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what is the management of a cystic hygroma
depends on size, location and complications watch and wait aspiration surgical removal sclerotherapy
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what is thyroglossal cyst
this is when part of the thyroglossal duct persists giving rise to a fluid filled cyst
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what is the pathophysiology of a thyroglossal cyst
during fetal development the thyroid gland starts at the base of the tongue. from there is gradually travels down the neck to its final position, in front of the trachea it leaves a track behind called the thyroglossal duct which then disappears. when part of this duct persists it can give rise to a thyroglossal cyst
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what is the key differential diagnosis of a thyroglossal cyst
ectopic thyroid tisue
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what is the main complication of a thyroglossal cyst
infection of the cyst
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what are the key features of a thyroglossal cyst
Thyroglossal cysts usually occur in the midline of the neck. They are: Mobile Non-tender Soft Fluctuant they move up and down with movement of the tongue
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how are thyroglossal cysts diagnosed
clinical diagnosis ultrasound and CT scan can confirm the diagnosis
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how are thyroglossal cysts managed
usually surgically removed to provide diagnosis and prevent infections can reoccur after surgery unless the full thyroglossal duct is removed
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what is a branchial cysts
it is a congenital abnormality arising when the second brachial cleft ails to properly form during fetal development this leaves a space surrounded by epithelial tissue in the lateral aspect of the neck which can fill up with fluid
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what do brachial cysts present as
round, soft, cystic swelling between the angle of the jaw and the sternocleidomastoid muscle in the anterior triangle of the neck
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when do brachial cysts most commonly present
tend to present after the age of 10 years, most commonly in young adulthood when the cyst becomes noticeable or infected.
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what is the difference between sinuses and fistulas
sinuses are blind ending pouches fistulas are an abnormal connection between two epithelial surfaces
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what is a brachial cleft sines
this is when a brachial cysts is connected via a tract to the outer skin surface. There will be a small hole visible in the skin beside the cyst and there may be some noticeable discharge from the sinus
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what is a brachial pouch sinus
this is when the brachial cyst is connected via a tract to the oropharynx
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what is a brachial fistula
this is when there is a tract connecting the oropharynx to the outer skin surface via the brachial cyst
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what is the management of a brachial cyst
where it is not causing any functional or cosmetic issues conservative management may be appropriate where recurrent infections are occurring, there is diagnostic doubt, or it is causing other functional or cosmetic issues then surgical excision may be appropriate
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