Women's health starred slides Flashcards

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1) Define gravidity
2) Define parity

A

1) # of pregnancies, current and past, regardless of outcome (multiple gestation only counts once)
2) # of times a woman has given birth to an infant ≥20 weeks of gestation regardless of outcome
multiple gestation only counts once (except for living children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you document OB history?

A

GTPAL (ex, G2P1001): gravidity, term, preterm, abortion/(miscarriage), living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1) Define term
2) Define preterm
3) Define abortion
4) Define living

A

1) Number of times a woman has given birth to an infant ≥37 weeks gestation
2) Number of times a woman has given birth to an infant between 20-36 6/7 weeks gestation
3) Number of losses before 20 weeks
4) Number of living children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1) Define gravida
2) Define primigravida and multigravida
3) Define nulligravida

A

1) Is or has been pregnant
2) Is in or has had one pregnancy; has been pregnant more than once
3) Has never been pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1) Define primipara
2) Define multipara
3) Define nullipara

A

1) Has only birthed one child or is pregnant for the 1st time
2) Has given birth 2+ times
3) Has never given birth or had pregnancy go past gestational abortion age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does GTPAL stand for?

A

G = total pregnancies
T = # born ≥37 weeks (= term)
P = preterm
A = miscarriages/abortions
L = living children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1) Define “breast self-examination”
2) Is it generally currently recommended for average-risk women? Why or why not?

A

1) Self-inspection in a systematic way on a regular, repetitive basis (e.g., monthly) for detection of breast cancer.
2) No longer recommended for average-risk women, lack of evidence for benefits (beyond mammography) and potential harm from false-positives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pt education on “Breast Self-Awareness” is recommended; what does this include?

A

1) Being aware of normal appearance and feel of one’s breasts
2) Be educated on signs/symptoms of breast cancer and notify health care provider if any changes (pain, mass, new nipple discharge, redness).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1) True or false: Breast cancers are not frequently self-detected
2) True or false: Breast cancer is the most common female malignancy

A

1) False; they are frequently self-detected
2) True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should clinical breast exams (CBE) be recommended to each of the two age groups?

A

1) 25-39 yo: may be offered every 1-3 yrs based on shared decision-making*
2) ≥40 yo: may be offered annually based on shared decision-making*
*Uncertainty if CBE offers additional benefits beyond screening mammography, and there is possibility of false positives/harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should mammography be recommended to each of the two age groups?

A

1) 40-75 years old: screen every 1-2 yrs
2) Older than 75 years: shared decision-making process about whether to continue screening (dependent on health/life expectancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1) What should you do first in a breast exam?
2) Is asymmetry of breasts common?
3) What should you further evaluate for?
4) What should you describe about any masses?
5) What is normal for large breasts?

A

1) Visual inspection first; have pt lean forward for large and/or pendulous breasts
2) Yes, some asymmetry is common
3) Marked differences or recent changes
4) Size, shape, consistency, position, & mobility
5) Normal firm transverse inframammary ridge with large breasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1) When should you palpate the breast?
2) In what 2 positions should you inspect?
3) In what positions should you palpate? How should you palpate?

A

1) After visual inspection
2) With pt seated with arms at sides, then with pt supine and ipsilateral arm above head*
Palpation with pt supine, ipsilateral arm above head; use pads of fingers for palpation (not tips/no nails)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1) What should you thoroughly palpate during a breast exam?
2) What technique is best validated?
3) What should you squeeze?

A

1) Rectangular area extending from clavicle to inframammary fold and from midsternal line to posterior axillary line and well into axilla (tail of breast)
2) Vertical strip
3) Not nipple, but rather tissue surrounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are 8 symptoms concerning for malignancy?

A

1) Rapid change in the appearance of one breast
2) Thickness, heaviness or visible enlargement of one breast
3) Discoloration, giving the breast a red, purple, pink or bruised appearance
4) Unusual warmth of the affected breast
5) Dimpling or ridges on the skin of the affected breast, similar to an orange peel
6) Itching
7) Enlarged lymph nodes under the arm, above the collarbone or below the collarbone
8) Flattening or nipple inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1) What does redness of the breast suggest?
2) What is it often due to?
3) In women who have not recently nursed a baby it is worrisome for what?

A

1) Infection or inflammation
2) Mastitis in postpartum patient.
3) Inflammatory breast cancer (IBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

1) What is dimpling often a sign of?
2) In what positions should you assess it?

A

1) A tumor beneath.
2) With pt supine, sitting, and standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1) Is it suspicious if there’s asymmetry of the breast?
2) What is nipple retraction a sign of if new?

A

1) Yes
2) A tumor beneath. Carefully palpate around and under the nipple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List 5 abnormal nipple findings

A

1) Discoloration or ulceration
2) Clear or milky discharge (galactorrhea)
3) Nipple discharge may be sent for culture & sensitivity and cytopathology
4) Bloody discharge (usually unilateral)
5) Pus/purulent discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1) What is galactorrhea and what may it be due to? Bilateral or unilateral usually?
2) Is bloody discharge of the nipple usually bilateral or unilateral? What is it associated with?
3) What does pus usually indicate?

A

1) Clear or milky discharge may be due to stimulation (normal) or elevated prolactin levels (abnormal).
-Bilateral (usually)
2) Usually unilateral, associated w. inflammation (usually intraductal papilloma).
-Evaluation to rule out malignancy is required.
3) Infection but may be due to underlying tumor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

1) Is nipple discharge usually cancer? Explain.
2) What can be a sign of ductal ectasia or fibrocystic changes?

A

1) Usually benign but may be an early sign of endocrine dysfunction or cancer
2) Non-bloody, bilateral discharge with nipple stimulation (“nonspontaneous”)
*spontaneous = occurring without nipple stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1) When is milky discharge of the nipple common? What else is it associated with?
2) What is bloody unilateral nipple discharge concerning for?
What does it usually require?

A

1) During childbearing; hyperprolactinemia or hypothyroidism, OCPs, tricyclic antidepressants
2) Invasive ductal carcinoma, intraductal papilloma, or intraductal carcinoma (e.g., be concerned for cancer)
-Ductography and ductal excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

1) If you clearly identify a discrete mass, consider it to be _________ until proven otherwise.
2) In general, determination of final diagnosis requires a what?

A

1) malignant
2) Biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

1) Should a dominant breast mass that does not have a corresponding abnormality on Mammogram still be considered malignant until proven otherwise?
2) Mammograms miss up to ____% of cancers

A

1) Yes
2) 30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True or false: While uncommon, breast cancer can occur in men

A

True
(Thus, discrete masses should be appropriately evaluated).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

1) Breast cancer can occur in young women (20s and 30s) so what should be appropriately evaluated?
2) What is more difficult about evaluating young patients for breast cancer?

A

1) Thus worrisome masses in this population should be appropriately evaluated.
2) Mammograms more likely to be false-negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

1) True or false: you should pay very careful attention to any mass that the patient brings to your attention.
2) True or false: Women who are very self-aware can often detect subtle/early changes concerning for malignancy that an examiner may have difficulty identifying.

A

1) True
2) True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

1) Define mastalgia
2) What percent of women does it affect during lifetime?

A

1) Breast pain
2) 70% of women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

1) What is the most common type of mastalgia? What is it associated with? Bilateral or unilateral?
2) What is noncyclical mastalgia not associated with? What is it associated with?
3) What is extramammary (non-breast, pain referred from other locations) mastalgia associated with?

A

1) Bilateral and benign, begins during luteal phase, resolves with menses
2) Menstrual cycle; assoc with duct ectasia, mastitis, large breast size, meds, pregnancy, etc.
3) Chest wall trauma, rib fxs, shingles (varicella-zoster virus), heart, gallbladder, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

1) What is required to determine the cause of mastalgia?
2) What should be done if there’s concerning findings? Why? Give examples

A

1) Careful physical exam to determine cause.
2) Imaging to rule out malignancy/serious pathology (unilateral, noncyclical, localized pain, breast mass, skin changes, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

1) Define fibrocystic breast changes
2) How common is it?
3) What are the symptoms?

A

1) Benign changes in breast epithelium producing a nodular, sensitive breast
2) Common; ½ of all women experience
3) Lumpiness, swelling, pain/tenderness; nodular, rope-like densities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the essentials of fibrocystic breast change diagnosis? What is the most common age?

A

1) Painful, often multiple, usually bilateral mobile masses in the breast.
2) Rapid fluctuation in size of masses is common. *Frequently worsens just before menses (increase in pain and size of cysts).
3) Affected by hormone levels
-Most common age is 30–50 years (premenopausal); occurrence is rare in postmenopausal women.

34
Q

1) How are fibrocystic breast changes diagnosed
2) How are they treated?

A

1) Diagnosed with CBE and sx history; mammogram, ultrasound may be used. Aspirate palpable cysts
2) Observation (Decrease caffeine intake), vitamin E supplementation

35
Q

1) Define mastitis
2) What are the symptoms?

A

1) Inflammation of breast tissue that may be accompanied by infection (e.g., bacteria):
2) Erythema, warmth, swelling, tenderness/pain; fatigue, malaise, fever

36
Q

1) When does mastitis generally occur? What is it particularly associated with?
2) How is lactational mastitis treated?

A

1) I lactating or recently lactating women; incomplete emptying of the breast (engorgement) or plugged duct(s)
2) NSAIDs, cold compresses, ongoing breastfeeding and/or hand expression to help empty breast, antibiotics if associated infection

37
Q

3 most common breast masses are what?

A

Fibroadenoma (benign tumor), cysts, and breast cancer

38
Q

1) With fibroadenoma (benign tumor) what is the typical age?
2) How many are there usually?
3) Shape and size?
4) Consistency?
5) Delineation?
6) Mobility?
7) Tenderness?
8) Retraction signs?

A

1) 15-25 years, usually puberty and young adulthood, but up to 55
2) Usually single, may be multiple
3) Round, disc like, or lobular; typically small (1-2cm)
4) Usually firm (but may be soft)
5) Well delineated
6) Very mobile
7) Usually nontender
8) Absent

39
Q

1) In cysts of the breast, what is the typical age?
2) How many are there usually?
3) Shape?
4) Consistency?
5) Delineation?
6) Mobility?
7) Tenderness?
8) Retraction signs?

A

1) 30-50 yrs, regress after menopause
2) Single or multiple
3) Round
4) Soft to firm, usually elastic
5) Well delineated
6) Mobile
7) Often tender
8) Absent

40
Q

1) In breast cancer, what is the typical age?
2) How many are there usually?
3) Shape?
4) Consistency?
5) Delineation?
6) Mobility?
7) Tenderness?
8) Retraction signs?

A

1) 30-90, most common >50
2) Usually single, although may coexist w other nodules
3) Irregular or stellate
4) Firm or hard
5) Not clearly delineated
6) May be fixed to skin or underlying tissues
7) Usually nontender
8) May be present

41
Q

1) What age is a pelvic exam recommended in?
2) Describe how to perform a pelvic exam

A

1) ACOG recommends annual pelvic exam in women 21 yrs & older
2) -Empty bladder to ensure comfort & assist your exam
-“Clean catch” urine specimen from mid-stream if needed
(A full bladder will push the uterus and cervix higher in the pelvis and make the exam more difficult and uncomfortable.)
-Muscle relaxation needed
-Explain every part of exam before performing (“Talk before you touch”)
-Avoid being abrupt or stern
-Rehearse what you will say and how you will say it.

42
Q

What should you evaluate about the cervix?

A

1) Nulliparous vs multiparous
2) Normal vaginal discharge?
3) Ectropion (when inside of cervical canal everts), retention (Nabothian) cysts, small polyps (benign)
4) Inflammation, masses, dysplasia (further eval)

43
Q

List the 5 early Sx of Adnexal Neoplasm. Specify which is most common

A

1) Abdominal bloating or distention- most common
2) Abdominal or pelvic pain
3) Decreased energy or lethargy
4) Early satiety
5) Urinary urgency

44
Q

What should you physically examine for Adnexal Neoplasm?

A

1) Assess for any signs of infection or cancer
2) The breast examination is especially important because the ovary is a common site of metastatic breast carcinoma (abdomen, too)
3) Bimanual exam assessing each side and comparing sides
-keep in mind age-parameters for ovarian size

45
Q

Give the vague symptomatology of ovarian cancer

A

Abdominal bloating or distention
Abdominal or pelvic pain
Decreased energy
Early satiety
Urinary urgency
Abnormal menstrual cycles
Unexplained back pain that worsens over time
Non-specific gastrointestinal symptoms

46
Q

1) What are functional ovarian cysts?
2) What type of cyst occurs when an ovarian follicle fails to rupture during follicular maturation and ovulation does not occur?

A

1) Not neoplasms, but anatomic variations that arise due to normal ovarian function
2) Follicular cyst

47
Q

1) When does a follicular cyst become medically significant?
2) How are they diagnosed?

A

1) If large enough to cause pain or persists beyond one menstrual interval
2) Pelvic ultrasound (adjunct to PEx)

48
Q

1) How do most follicular cysts resolve?
2) What if the presumed functional cyst persists?

A

1) Most spontaneously resolve within 6 weeks
2) Another type of cyst or neoplasm should be suspected and further evaluated

49
Q

1) Placental growth is a cardiovascular change during pregnancy that involves what?
2) What two things does the body increase to compensate for these changes?
3) When does the placenta stop growing?

A

1) New vessels are added, increased blood flow to placenta
2) HR and cardiac output
3) At ~week 26

50
Q

What does more fluid being present during pregnancy lead to? (2 things)

A

1) Daytime pedal edema
2) Nocturia/frequent nighttime urination (bc of daytime edema)

51
Q

Why does nocturia/frequent nighttime urination occur in pregnancy?

A

Excess blood volume that was in her legs all day finally returns to more central circulation and acts like a fluid bolus

52
Q

1) Define physiologic hypotension
2) IVC compression can happen in pregnancy; what are the symptoms and what process in the body causes each?
3) How can IVC compression be relieved?

A

1) Normal dip in the BP during pregnancy
2) Less venous return > cardiac output is decreased > blood pressure falls > dizziness, presyncope > syncope
3) If she’s on her back or right side, move to left lateral decubitus

53
Q

1) What urinary change is common in pregnancy besides nocturia?
2) What are pregnant people at higher risk of?

A

1) Mild glucosuria
2) UTI

54
Q

Why are pregnant ppl at a higher risk of UTI?

A

Dilation of urinary tract (secondary to increased blood volume) = greater risk of ascending infection

55
Q

1) Define gestational diabetes
2) What factors put people at risk for this?

A

1) Elevated blood glucose that starts after 20 weeks gestation
2) Obesity, being Hispanic or Southeast Asian

56
Q

How is gestational diabetes diagnosed?

A

All women are screened weeks 24-28 with oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

57
Q

List 3 potential GI pregnancy side effects

A

1) Constipation
2) GERD
3) Gallbladder disease

58
Q

What 2 things should you counsel a pregnant pt with constipation on?

A

1) Dietary fiber
2) Stool softener vs. motility agent

59
Q

1) What causes GERD in pregnant people?
2) How is it treated? (2 things)

A

1) LES relaxation plus compression of stomach by gravid uterus = reflux
2) -Lifestyle changes: Avoid caffeine, spicy food, nicotine, mint, large meals, fatty meals
-TUMS (calcium carbonate) acceptable in pregnancy

60
Q

What can accompany gallbladder disease in pregnancy? (3 things)

A

1) Formation of new stones
2) Worsening of stones
3) Cholecystitis

61
Q

What causes breast enlargement in pregnancy?
What are the 3 steps?

A

-Mammary glands
1) Proliferate in 1st trimester
2) Glands differentiate in 2nd trimester
3) Glands produce milk in 3rd trimester

62
Q

When is 1st trimester?
2nd?
3rd?

A

1st trimester: conception to 12 weeks
2nd trimester: 13-27 weeks
3rd trimester: 28-40 weeks

63
Q

What are 5 potential skin changes that can occur w pregnancy? Describe each

A

1) Hyperpigmentation: “mask of pregnancy” also called “melasma”
-Etiology unknown
2) Linea nigra: Darkening of skin over linea alba
3) Palmar erythema
4) Spider angiomata: telangiectasia

64
Q

1) What should be the causes of weight gain in pregnancy?
2) How much weight gain is normal in each pt of pregnancy?

A

1) Amniotic fluid, placenta, fetus, maternal adipose stores
2)
1 lb/month first trimester
1lb/week thereafter

65
Q

1) How does being underweight affect pregnancy weight gain recommendations?
2) What abt being overweight?

A

1) Gain more; build up adipose stores
2) Gain less: adipose stores are adequate, and weight gain should be due to fluid, placenta, fetus

66
Q

1) What assesses (grossly) the growth of the fetus?
2) What is this measurement equal to?

A

1) Fundal height measurement
2) Fundal height (in cm) ≈ gestation age (in weeks) between 16-36 weeks gestation

67
Q

A larger than expected fundal height measurement is concerning for what 4 things?

A

1) Molar pregnancy
2) Large for gestational age baby/Gestational diabetes
3) Polyhydramnios
4) Multiples

68
Q

A smaller than expected fundal height measurement is concerning for what 3 things?

A

1) Small for gestational age baby or IUGR
2) Fetal Death
3) Oligohydramnios

69
Q

1) What is the goal for kick counts/ # of movements?
2) Fetal movement decreases in response to fetal _______________.
3) If mom perceives decreased fetal movement, what should be instituted?

A

1) > 10 movements/2 hrs
2) hypoxemia
3) Further testing

70
Q

1) Auscultation of heart tones can usually be done by fetoscope by the _____th week and with doppler by the _____th week (though typically not done until ______th week).
2) After how many can weeks fetal heart rate be assessed with external fetal monitor?
3) What 2 fetal HR questions should you ask yourself?

A

1) 12th; 8th; 10th
2) Sixteen (16)
3) -Is the heart rate within normal range? (110-160 bpm)
-Do you hear/see any abnormalities?

71
Q

When should a pregnant woman go to the hospital? (4 reasons)
important

A

1) Contractions occur approximately every 5 minutes for at least 1 hour
2) A sudden gush of fluid or a constant leakage of vaginal fluid (suggesting rupture of membranes [ROM])
3) Any significant vaginal bleeding
4) Significant decrease in fetal movement

72
Q

At 20 weeks, fundus should be where?

A

At the umbilicus (20 cm fundal height)
important

73
Q

1) What is the most common cause of perinatal morbidity and mortality?
2) What is this defined as?

A

1) Preterm birth
2) Birth before 37 completed weeks of gestation

74
Q

What are the two types of preterm birth?

A

Spontaneous vs medically indicated (induced)

75
Q

List 4 maternal complications (medical or obstetric)
that may cause PTL

A

1) Activation of maternal/fetal HPA axis due to stress
2) Inflammation/infection (see next slide)
3) Hemorrhage (e.g., placental abruption)
4) Pathologic uterine distention (polyhydramnios, etc.)
-Preterm labor may be secondary to these pathogenic processes

76
Q

What are 7 S/Sx of preterm labor?

A

1) Menstrual-like cramps
2) Low, dull backache
3) Abdominal pressure
4) Pelvic pressure
5) Abdominal cramping (with or without diarrhea)
6) Increase or change in vaginal discharge (mucous, watery, light bloody discharge)
7) Uterine contractions, often painless

77
Q

1) Define post-term pregnancy
2) What two groups is it most common in?
3) What is the most common cause of it?

A

1) Pregnancy that has gone beyond 42 completed weeks
2) Primiparous (first birth/pregnancy), and hx of post-term delivery
3) Incorrect estimation of gestational age

78
Q

1) Who is a post-term pregnancy an increased risk to? What type of assessments must start if post-term?
2) Due to increased morbidity, most practices will not let pregnancy go beyond ___ wks

A

1) Incr. risk to baby; fetal assessment (kick counts, non-stress tests, ultrasound evaluation of amniotic fluid)
2) 42 wks

79
Q

List 5 conditions assoc. with post-term pregnancy

A

1) Macrosomia
2) Shoulder dystocia
3) Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
4) Dysmaturity syndrome
5) Oligohydramnios

80
Q

1) Define macrosomia
2) Define shoulder dystocia
3) What can MAS cause?

A

1) Weigh of >4,500 g (~9.9 lbs)
2) Impaction of the anterior fetal shoulder behind the symphysis pubis during vaginal delivery causing a brachial plexus injury (emergency)
3) Severe respiratory distress/death

81
Q

1) Define dysmaturity syndrome
2) Define oligohydramnios. When is this an indication for delivery?

A

1) Infants with characteristics resembling chronic growth restriction
2) Decreased amniotic fluid; if >36 weeks