Older adult starred slides Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

List 6 barriers to good geriatric care

A

1) Communication
2) Underreporting symptoms.
3) Multiple complaints that may interact; “somatization” of emotions
4) Lack of time- be patient; probe relatives or other caregivers, screening tools
5) Measure function, be alert to change, esp. rapid change
6) Track data, treat diagnoses instead of sxs, have pt. familiarity, multiple visits instead of few marathons

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3
Q

[barriers to good geriatric care]:
1) What type of change should you be particularly alert for?
2) What tools are important?
3) What may pts do to emotions?

A

1) Rapid change
2) Screening tools
3) somatization

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4
Q

1) How often is breast cancer screening with Mammography recommended for 40-75 y/o?
2) What abt over 75?

A

1) Screen yearly or biennially
2) Shared decision-making process about whether to continue screening (dependent on health/life expectancy)

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5
Q

1) What age range should be screened for cervical cancer?
2) What age range should be screened every 3 years with cervical cytology alone?
3) What age range should you screen every 3 years with cervical cytology alone, every 5 years with high-risk HPV testing alone, or every 5 years with both tests together (cotesting)?

A

1) Women aged 21-65 years
2) 21-29 yo
3) 30-65 yo

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6
Q

How often should cervical cancer screening be done >65y/o?

A

If adequate recent screening with normal Pap smears, and not otherwise at high risk for cervical cancer, routine screening is not recommended

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7
Q

1) What age should screening for colorectal cancer and premalignant polyps/lesions (USPSTF) for all adults of average risk? (both males and females).
2) When should this screening occur selectively?
3) What is the preferred test option and how often?

A

1) 45 y/o
2) In pts 76-85 years
3) Colonoscopy every 10 years (other testing options exist if pt is not amenable to colonoscopy)

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8
Q

What condition relevant to older adults has screening recommendations that vary depending on source (American Urological Association, American Cancer Society, USPSTF, etc.) and are controversial?

A

Prostate cancer

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9
Q

1) Screening for what condition may offer a small potential benefit, but have risks of harm (false positives, etc.)? What should you engage in bc of this?
2) When should discussion of screening for this condition begin for avg risk men? What abt higher risk?

A

1) Prostate cancer; shared decision making
2) 50 years; as early as age 40

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10
Q

1) What is the prostate cancer screening method?
2) How often and up to what age? What do these vary depending on?

A

1) Prostate-specific Antigen (PSA) testing
2) Every 1-2 years up to age 69-75 depending on the source (UpToDate recommendations are given above)
-USPSTF: men aged 55-69, individual decision of whether to screen with PSA

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11
Q

Who should be screened for lung cancer (USPSTF)?

A

Adults age 50-80 yo with:
1) 20 pack-year smoking history AND
2) Currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years

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12
Q

1) What is the lung cancer screening (USPSTF) recommendation for those who need them?
2) When should screening be discontinued?

A

1) Annual screening with low dose computed tomography (LDCT) of the chest.
2) Once a person has not smoked for 15 years or develops a health problem that substantially limits life expectancy or the ability or willingness to have curative lung surgery

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13
Q

What is the recommendation for skin cancer screening (USPSTF) for asymptom. adolescents and adults (do not have signs/ symptoms of skin cancer)?

A

“The current evidence is insufficient to assess the balance of benefits and harms of visual skin examination [whole-body screening skin exam] by a clinician to screen for skin cancer.”

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14
Q

1) Osteoporosis screening to prevent osteoporotic fractures (USPSTF) is recommended in women >______.
2) How should you screen them? What does frequency of screening depend on?
3) Screening may begin earlier if woman is _______________ and at increased risk of osteoporosis

A

1) 65
2) Screen with bone measurement testing (e.g., DEXA scan to measure bone mineral density [BMD]); a number of factors
3) postmenopausal

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15
Q

What is the current recommendation for osteoporosis screening to prevent osteoporotic fractures (USPSTF) in men?

A

“Insufficient evidence to assess the balance of benefits and harms of screening for osteoporosis to prevent osteoporotic fractures in men.”

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16
Q

Define dementia

A

An acquired condition that is characterized by a decline in at least two cognitive domains:
1) Loss of memory
2) Attention
3) Language
4) Visuospatial
5) Executive functioning

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17
Q

1) List types of dementia diagnoses
2) Which is most common?

A

1) Alzheimer disease (AD), vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and Parkinson disease with dementia, and dementia of mixed etiology.
2) AD

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18
Q

Define delirium

A

Serious disturbance in mental abilities that results in confused thinking and reduced awareness of surroundings

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19
Q

What are 4 non-underlying disease related causes for delirium?

A

1) Intoxication
2) Sleep deprivation
3) Medications
4) Illegal drugs

20
Q

Elder abuse:
1) What should screening include looking for?
2) What is the prevalence of elder abuse? What group is it higher in?
3) Why may abuse not be detected?

A

1) Screening should include looking for abuse, neglect, exploitation, and abandonment.
2) Prevalence ranges from 5-10%
Higher in elders with dementia and depression
3) Elders less likely to report, therefore abuse may not be detected

21
Q

Why are elders less likely to report, therefore abuse may not be detected? (4 reasons)

A

1) Fear of retaliation
2) Physical or cognitive inability to report.
3) Unwillingness to expose the abuser
4) 90% are family members

22
Q

1) The great heterogeneity in older pts health contributes to the difficulty in distinguishing between __________ aging verses ____________ conditions.
2) This makes it harder to answer what question?

A

1) intrinsic; pathologic
2) “When to treat?”

23
Q

1) If undecided on whether to treat, then evaluate what abt a pt’s function?
2) What should determine your decision after that?

A

1) Whether function is sufficiently impaired
2) If so, then treat; if not very impaired, then watch, wait, reevaluate

24
Q

List 6 ADLs (activities of daily living)

A

Bathing
Dressing
Toileting
Transferring
Continence
Feeding

25
Q

1) What main thing should you ask abt ADLs?
2) In general, what are ADLs?
3) What 3 questions should you ask to help answer the main question?

A

1) Ask how well the patient performs the ADLs
2) Basic self-care abilities
3) -Can the patient perform these activities independently?
-Does the patient need help?
-Is the patient completely dependent on others for ADLs?

26
Q

1) What main thing should you ask abt Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs)?
2) In general, what are IADLs?
3) What 3 questions should you ask to help answer the main question?

A

1) Ask how well the patient performs the IADLs
2) Activities which are higher level functions
3) -Can the patient perform these activities independently?
-Does the patient need help?
-Is the patient completely dependent on others for IADLs?

27
Q

Blood pressure:
1) With aging, ______ and __________________ increase, whereas __________ decreases (widening pulse pressure)
2) Isolated systolic hypertension (SBP ≥140 mmHg with DBP <90 mmHg) after age 50 and widened pulse pressure >60 increases risk for what 3 things?

A

1) SBP and peripheral vascular resistance; DBP
2) Stroke, renal failure, and heart disease

28
Q

1) Define orthostatic hypotension
2) What % of older adults does it occur in?
3) List 4 symptoms

A

1) Drop in SBP of >20 mmHg or DBP of >10 mm Hg, increase of HR of 20 BPM, or dizziness within 3 minutes of standing
2) 20%
3) Lightheadedness, weakness, unsteadiness, and visual blurring

29
Q

Heart rate and rhythm:
1) Resting HR is unchanged, but ___________________ declines, affecting response to exercise and physiologic stress.
2) Why?
3) What abt heart rhythm can change w age?

A

1) maximal heart rate
-Due to slowing of pacemaker cells in SA node and blunted β-adrenergic response (Beta blockers may also do this)
3) More likely to have abnormal heart rhythms

30
Q

1) Does RR change w age?
2) What do age-related changes in temp. regulation lead to?

A

1) No; respiratory rate unchanged
2) Susceptibility to hypothermia

31
Q

What is the “5th vital sign” in older adults?

A

Functional Status

32
Q

1) Assessment of older adults places special emphasis on maintaining what 2 things?
2) Maintaining what is the primary focus?

A

1) Independence and optimal level of function
2) Functional status

33
Q

1) A number of performance-based assessment instruments for functional status are available, such as what? What does this screening assess?
2) Patients should also undergo risk factor assessment for _______

A

1) 10-Minute Geriatric Screen; physical, cognitive, and psychosocial factors
2) falls

34
Q

List the 2 types of macular degeneration.
Which is more common and less severe? Which is neovascular?

A

Two types:
1) Dry atrophic: more common, less severe
2) Wet exudative: neovascular

35
Q

List 2 symptoms of macular degeneration

A

1) Poor central vision
2) Blindness

36
Q

What is the leading cause of visual impairment?

A

Cataracts

37
Q

List some of the multiple risk factors for cataracts

A

1) Cigarette smoking
2) High alcohol intake
3) Diabetes mellitus (DM)
4) Medications (e.g., steroids)
5) Trauma

38
Q

1) Define glaucoma
2) What does it lead to?

A

1) Increased intraocular pressure
2) Optic nerve damage

39
Q

In older adults:
1) Systolic bruits heard in middle or upper portions of carotid arteries suggest what? From what?
2) What does having an S3 strongly suggest after age 40?

A

1) Partial arterial obstruction; atherosclerosis
2) Heart failure and dilatation of the left ventricle from CHF

40
Q

1) S4 can be heard in healthy older people, but often suggests decreased ____________ and impaired _______________.
2) What may occur as a result?

A

1) ventricular compliance and impaired ventricular filling
2) LVH (left ventricular hypertrophy)

41
Q

1) Menstrual periods typically cease between what ages? What is the median?
2) Women often experience hot flashes for up to how many years? What are 3 other symptoms they may have?
3) Within how long are the ovaries usually no longer palpable?

A

1) 48-55; median 51 years
2) Five year; vaginal dryness, urge incontinence, or dyspareunia
3) 10 years

42
Q

1) Proliferation of prostate epithelial and stromal tissue (aka benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)) begins in what decade?
2) What decade does it continue to and what happens then?
3) How many men w BPH have symptoms?

A

1) Third decade
2) Until the seventh, then plateaus
3) Only half

43
Q

True or false: Signs and symptoms of alcohol abuse/ use disorder may be subtler in older adults

A

True

44
Q

True or false: Signs and symptoms of alcohol abuse/ use disorder may be more obvious in older adults

A

False; may be more subtle

45
Q

List the 4 CAGE questions

A

1) Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking?
2) Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking?
3) Have you ever felt bad or guiltyabout your drinking?
4) Have you ever taken a drink first thing in the morning (eye-opener) to steady your nerves or get rid of a hangover?

46
Q

1) What test is preferred over CAGE?
2) What does this test identify?
3) How many questions and what’s the scoring?

A

1) Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test-Concise (AUDIT-C)
2) Not just harmful drinkers detected by CAGE, but also hazardous drinkers who have not yet reached that level of harm (early intervention to reduce consumption)
3) 3 Questions, scored from 0-12

47
Q

What are the 3 questions for the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test-Concise (AUDIT-C)?

A

1) How often did you have a drink containing alcohol in the past year?
2) How many drinks did you have on a typical day when you were drinking in the past year?
3) How often did you have 6 or more drinks on one occasion in the past year?