Wk 10 pt 1: Children (10% of final)

Question 1

List the 5 stages of development and the age ranges of each

Answer 1

1) Newborn/Neonate (first 28 days after birth)
2) Infancy (0-12 months)
3) Early childhood (1-4 years)
4) Middle childhood (5-10 years)
5) Adolescence (11-20 years)
-Early, middle, late

Question 2

Child development proceeds along a predictable pathway, but the ___________ of normal development is wide.

Answer 2

range

Question 3

What can affect child development and health?

Answer 3

Various physical, social, and environmental factors (plus diseases)

Question 4

Expectation of milestones is adjusted for ______________.

Answer 4

prematurity

Question 5

1) At what age should a baby respond to sounds?
2) At what age should a baby coo and gain head control?

Answer 5

1) Newborn
2) 2 months

Question 6

1) At what age should a baby roll over?
2) At what age should they babble?
3) At what age should they sit?

Answer 6

1) 3 months
2) 6 months
3) 5 months

Question 7

1) At what age begins “mama and dada specific”?
2) What age should a baby pull to stand, crawl, and actively manipulate reachable objects?
3) At what age may an infant recognize strangers?

Answer 7

1) 8 months
2) 9 months
3) 9 months

Question 8

At what age should an infant be able to walk and use a spoon?

Answer 8

11 months

Question 9

Physical/ motor development:
1) At what age should a child be able to pedal a tricycle, jump in place, and feed themselves with utensils?
2) At what age should a child be able to cut with scissors, hop, and balance on 1 foot?

Answer 9

1) 3 years
2) 4 years

Question 10

Cognitive/ language:
1) At what age should a child be able to say 1-3 single words?
2) What abt 2-3 word phrases?
3) What abt having 100% understandable speech and talking in paragraphs?

Answer 10

1) 1 years
2) 2 years
3) 4 years

Question 11

Cognitive/ language development:
1) What age should a child be able to know sentences, colors, and ask “why?”?
2) What age should a child be able to say ABCs, copy figures, and define words?
Social emotional development:
1) What age should a child know themself in a mirror?
2) What age should a child display imagination?

Answer 11

1) 3 years
2) 5 years
Social emotional:
1) 3 years
2) 4 years

Question 12

1) Language development proceeds from cooing ~_____ months to babbling ~______ months.
2) What language development occurs at 8 months?
3) Vocabulary includes 1-3 words at what age?

Answer 12

1) 2; 6
2) “Dada” and “Mama” (specific)
3) 12 months

Question 13

Describe Cognitive, Social, Physical Development milestones of: newborns, 2 mo, 3 mo, 5 mo, 9 mo, 10 mo, and 11mo

Answer 13

Newborn: Responds to sounds
2 mo: Lifts head with good control
3 mo: Rolls over
5 mo: Sits
9 mo: Pulls to stand, may recognize strangers, actively manipulate reachable objects
10 mo: Crawls
11 mo: Walks

Question 14

Social development:
1) “Has an emerging drive for independence” describes what age?
2) At what age should a child recognize the self in the mirror?
3) At what age should imaginative play begin?

Answer 14

1) 2 years
2) 3 years
3) 4 years

Question 15

1) What age group is impulsive and has poor self-regulation? What does this mean?
2) True or false: Some can have difficulty adapting and respond negatively to new stimuli.

Answer 15

1) Toddlers; temper tantrums are common.
2) True

Question 16

1) Rate of physical growth slows by approximately _______.
2) After two years old, toddlers gain about _________kg/year and grow _______cm/year.
3) Toddlers become leaner and __________ muscular with _________ body fat.

Answer 16

1) half
2) 2-3 kg/ year; ~5cm/ year
3) more; less

Question 17

1) What age should you begin to assess and follow child for obesity?
2) True or false: Obese children are more likely to be obese adults.
3) How do you assess BMI?

Answer 17

1) 3-4 years old
2) True
3) An age and sex specific chart

Question 18

Fine motor skills:
1) At what age should kids be able to jump in place, pedal a tricycle, and feed themselves?
2) At what age should they be able to balance on one foot, hop, and cut w scissors?

Answer 18

1) 3 years
2) 4 years

Question 19

Language development:
1) At what age should a child be able to form complex sentences and paragraphs w 100% understandable speech?
2) At what age should a child be able to form 3 word phrases?
3) At what age should a child be able to converse well and form sentences?

Answer 19

1) 4 y/o
2) 2 y/o
3) 3 y/o

Question 20

Cognitive development:
1) What age group involves becoming a symbolic thinker and gaining the ability to solve simple problems?
2) What age should a child know colors and ask why?
3) What age should they define words and copy figures?

Answer 20

1) Toddlers
2) 3 y/o
3) 5 y/o

Question 21

1) When does the height spurt peak in males? What is the age range?
2) What about the age range of growth spurts of the penis?
3) What abt testicular growth spurts?
4) What abt pubic hair development?

Answer 21

1) 14; 10.5-16 and 13.5-17.5
2) 10.5-14.4 or 12.5-16.5
3) 9-13.5 or 13.5-17
4) 10.7-14.5 for PH3

Question 22

1) When does the height spurt peak in females? What is the age range?
2) What is the age range of menarche?
3) What abt of breast development?
4) What abt of pubic hair?

Answer 22

1) 11.5; 9.5-14.5
2) 11-14.1
3) 8.2-21.1 for B2
4) 9.3-13.9 for PH3

Question 23

List 6 pediatric PE red flags

Answer 23

1) Tachypnea
2) Tachycardia
3) Temp. instability
4) Hepatomegaly
5) Splenomegaly
6) Acute or chronic limp

Question 24

1) Define tachypnea in infants
2) What is normal RR in infants?

Answer 24

1) Increased breath rate; >60/min from birth to 2 months, and >50/min from 2-12 months.
2) Normal: 30-60 breaths per minute

Question 25

Define tachycardia in infants

Answer 25

Increased heart rate, HR >180 BPM

Question 26

List the averages and ranges of HR in infants

Answer 26

1) Birth-1 month: 90-190, avg 140
2) 1-6 months: 80-180, avg 130
3) 6-12 months: 75-155, avg 115

Question 27

1) What is a fever (temp instability)?
2) Is temp instability common in newborns? Explain the normal temp range.
3) What is the most accurate temp for infants?

Answer 27

1) >100.4o F (>38o C)
2) Temperature instability is common in newborns; normal is 99o F (37.2oC) to as high as 101o F (38.3oC) after activity (crying, anxiety)
3) Rectal temperature

Question 28

What temp is most accurate for infants?

Answer 28

Rectal

Question 29

Any fever lasting more than _______ days needs complete workup

Answer 29

5

Question 30

1) Define hepatomegaly
2) How far does a normal liver edge extend?
3) Liver disease can lead to what?

Answer 30

1) liver extends >3 cm below the right costal margin
2) Normal liver edge extends 1-3 cm.
3) Decreased protein production and other complications

Question 31

List 4 potential causes of hepatomegaly

Answer 31

1) Heart failure
2) Hepatitis
3) Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) infection
4) Biliary congestion

Question 32

1) Define splenomegaly
2) Describe a normal spleen

Answer 32

1) Spleen extends >2 cm below the left costal margin
2) Moveable; rarely extends >1-2 cm.

Question 33

List 5 potential causes of splenomegaly

Answer 33

1) Mononucleosis (e.g., EBV)
2) Hemolytic anemia
3) Leukemia
4) Autoimmune or inflammatory diseases
5) Portal hypertension

Question 34

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) is most common in what group of children? What does this cause?

Answer 34

Obese; growth plate damage and femoral head slips

Question 35

List 3 potential causes of acute limp in kids

Answer 35

1) Trauma
2) Injury
3) Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

Question 36

List and define 5 potential causes of chronic limp

Answer 36

1) Blount disease: Growth disease of the tibia
2) Avascular necrosis of the hip: Blood flow to the bone is interrupted
3) Leg length discrepancy
4) Spinal disorder: Scoliosis
5) Leukemia: Build up of cells in the bone and joints of the legs and hip.

Question 37

1) Define inspiratory stridor
2) What can it be caused by?
3) Give examples

Answer 37

1) Audible breath sound; high-pitched, inspiratory noise
2) Serious conditions
3) Laryngotracheobronchitis (croup), Epiglottitis, Foreign body
-Not as important to know: Bacterial tracheitis, hemangioma (subglottic), vascular ring, tracheomalacia

Question 38

1) Define coarctation of the aorta
2) What can happen if it’s untreated?

Answer 38

1) Congenital narrowing of a section of the aorta.
2) Can stunt growth and can cause organ damage (since heart may not be able to pump enough blood to organs)

Question 39

What are 2 physical exam findings that require follow up for suspected coarctation of the aorta?

Answer 39

1) Absent or decreased femoral pulses
2) Blood pressure (BP) differences between extremities

Question 40

1) How do you measure blood pressure (BP) differences between extremities? Is there normally a difference?
2) What types of BP can coarctation cause?

Answer 40

1) Measure BP in both arms and one leg; normally, BP in lower extremities is slightly higher than upper.
2) Equal BP in LEs and UEs, or lower BP in lower extremities (compared to UEs).

Question 41

1) Define hip dysplasia. Does it need to be Dxd early?
2) What is the Ortolani Test for?

Answer 41

1) Instability or dislocation of the hip in a newborn or infant; needs to be detected early to intervene
2) Presence of a posteriorly dislocated hip that is reducible

Question 42

1) How is an ortolani test done?
2) What should you avoid?

Answer 42

1) From an adducted position and hip flexed to 90°, the hip is gently abducted with supination of the examiner’s hand while lifting the greater trochanter anteriorly
2) Extreme abduction

Question 43

Describe the positive Ortolani Sign for DDH (2 things)

Answer 43

1) “Clunk” felt as the femoral head, which lies posterior to the acetabulum, enters the acetabulum (reduced to normal position).
2) Palpable movement of the femoral head back into place

Question 44

1) What does Barlow test test for?
2) How is this test performed?

Answer 44

1) Ability to sublux or dislocate an intact but unstable hip
2) Hip is gently adducted with pronation of examiner’s hand (downward pressure no longer recommended)

Question 45

1) What happens w a Barlow test when the hip is dislocatable? What abt if its subluxatable?
2) What does a positive Barlow test indicate?

Answer 45

1) If hip is dislocatable, posterior movement and palpable clunk may be detected as femoral head exits acetabulum (“jerk of exit”)
-If the hip is subluxatable, there is subtle sliding movement or feeling of looseness (“tennis ball moving in a soup bowl”)
2) A reduced hip that is subluxatable or dislocatable

Question 46

Combination of what two maneuvers has high specificity for DDH in infant < 3 months?

Answer 46

Barlow and Ortolani

Question 47

1) Define pyloric stenosis
2) What causes it?
3) When does it usually present?

Answer 47

1) Narrowing due to thickening at the opening (pylorus muscle) from the stomach into the small intestine
2) Cause unknown
3) ~3-5 weeks of age.

Question 48

What are two PE findings that require follow up for suspected pyloric stenosis?

Answer 48

1) Firm 2 cm “olive-like” mass of the RUQ or midline of the abdomen
2) Parent may report visible peristaltic waves across the abdomen and projectile vomiting (usually nonbilious) immediately after feeding, while infant remains hungry.

Question 49

1) A Firm 2 cm “olive-like” mass of the RUQ or midline of the abdomen is suspicious for what?
2) What condition is described?: “Parent may report visible peristaltic waves across the abdomen and projectile vomiting (usually nonbilious) immediately after feeding, while infant remains hungry”

Answer 49

1) Pyloric stenosis
2) Pyloric stenosis

Question 50

Define otitis media and include 4 of its characteristics

Answer 50

Middle ear infection:
1) Red, bulging tympanic membrane (TM)
2) Dull or absent light reflex
3) Decreased movement of TM
4) May see purulent material behind TM.

Question 51

1) Define mastoiditis
2) What may be a physical symptom of this condition?
3) What is a common characteristic of this condition?

Answer 51

1) Infection of mastoid bone
2) Auricle of ear may protrude forward and outward
3) Area over mastoid bone is red, swollen, and tender.

Question 52

List 3 potential pediatric PE findings of the throat

Answer 52

1) Streptococcal pharyngitis
2) Peritonsillar abscess
3) Retropharyngeal abscess

Question 53

1) Define Streptococcal pharyngitis
2) What does it cause do to the tongue?
3) How doe it affect the tonsils/ post pharynx?
4) How doe it affect the uvula and palate?

Answer 53

1) Bacterial infection of the pharynx (aka “strep”)
2) “Strawberry” tongue
3) White or yellow exudates on the tonsils or posterior pharynx.
4) Beefy red uvula
5) Palatal petechiae

Question 54

What are 3 symptoms of peritonsillar abscess?

Answer 54

1) Erythema of one tonsil
2) Asymmetric enlargement of one tonsil
3) Lateral displacement of uvula

Question 55

1) What are the symptoms of retropharyngeal abscesses?
2) What swelling may occur?

Answer 55

1) Fever, stiff neck, pain with neck extension, dysphagia, etc.
2) Midline or unilateral of posterior pharyngeal wall (visualization may not be possible and should not be attempted if significant airway compromise)

Question 56

Koplik spots are pathognomonic for what? Describe these spots

Answer 56

Measles; bluish white dots about 1 mm in diameter surrounded by a rose-red areola

Question 57

1) What severity does asthma present with?
2) What does it do to the inspiratory: expiratory ratio? Define this ratio as well

Answer 57

1) Varying severity
2) Prolonged expiratory phase; proportion of time spent on inspiration versus expiration

Question 58

What are 3 childhood resp diseases?

Answer 58

1) Asthma
2) Pneumonia
3) Respiratory foreign body

Question 59

What are 3 symptoms of pneumonia?

Answer 59

1) Fever
2) Tachypnea
3) Dyspnea

Question 60

List 2 symptoms of respiratory foreign body

Answer 60

1) Inspiratory stridor
2) Prolonged inspiratory phase

Question 61

1) Do benign heart murmurs come w associated findings? (breathing difficulties, color changes, growth/activity restriction, feeding difficulty, CP/SOB/palpitations, etc.)
2) True or false: Most, if not all children, will have one or more functional or benign murmurs before reaching adulthood.

Answer 61

1) As a rule of thumb, usually no
2) True

Question 62

Should you identify murmurs by their quality or intensity? Give examples

Answer 62

By their quality, not intensity
-Ex: Systolic vs. diastolic, crescendo vs. decrescendo, high or low pitch, etc.

Question 63

Give 4 examples of benign heart murmurs seen in pre-school aged children

Answer 63

1) Still’s murmurs
2) Pulmonary flow murmur
3) Systemic flow murmurs / Supraclavicular systemic bruits
4) Venous hum

Question 64

1) What is the most common heart murmur?
2) Where is it? What is it related to and can it move?
3) What are the common ages?

Answer 64

1) Still’s murmur
2) Left lower sternal border; related to flow, can change with position/Valsalva
3) 3 years to adolescence

Question 65

1) What murmur is prominent in high-flow situations? (anemia, fever)
2) Where is this murmur?
3) What demographic is it seen in?

Answer 65

1) Pulmonary flow murmur
2) Upper left sternal border
3) Older children, adolescence and older.

Question 66

1) Are systemic flow murmurs / Supraclavicular systemic bruits true “carotid bruits”?
2) What causes them?

Answer 66

1) Heard over carotids, but no, they’re not.
2) Normal blood flow into aorta and head/neck vessels

Question 67

1) What causes venous hum?
2) What is it sensitive to?

Answer 67

1) Blood returning from great veins to heart
2) Posture and head/neck position

Question 68

What 8 vital signs should you get during development? At what ages should you measure each?

Answer 68

1) Height: every visit
2) Weight: every visit
3) BMI (body mass index): at every visit
4) Head circumference: birth to 36 months
5) BP: start measuring at age 2
6) Pulse: higher in infancy; slows down with aging
7) RR: higher in infancy; slows down with aging
8) Temp: <2 months of age: rectal temp
≥2 months of age: tympanic temp

Question 69

What vital signs should be measured at every visit throughout development?

Answer 69

Height, weight, BMI, BP (at age 2+)

Question 70

What vital signs are higher in infancy and slow down with aging?

Answer 70

Pulse and RR

Question 71

What does an APGAR score consist of?

Answer 71

Appearance (skin color)
Pulse
Grimace (reflex irritability)
Activity (muscle tone)
Respiration

Question 72

1) Define acrocyanosis (a 1 on the color pt of APGAR)
2) Describe the scale APGAR is measured on

Answer 72

1) Pink trunk, blue extremities
2) 7 to 10 is reassuring
-4 to 6 is moderately abnormal
-0 to 3 is low

Question 73

1) Is HR >100 a good thing on APGAR?
2) Is “grimace” or “cry or active withdrawal” a more positive expression of reflex irritability on APGAR?

Answer 73

1) Yes
3) Cry or active withdrawal is more positive

Question 74

List the sequence of newborn assessment (8 steps)

Answer 74

1) Careful observation of activity
2) Head, neck, heart, lungs, abdomen, genitourinary system
3) Lower extremities, back
4) Ears, mouth
5) Eyes whenever they open spontaneously
6) Skin (throughout the exam)
-Vernix caseosa: present at birth
-Lanugo: shed within the first few weeks of life
7) Nervous system
8) Hips

Question 75

1) What should you inspect about the head in an infancy PE?
2) Should you observe or palpate the two fontanelles? What are these and when does each close?

Answer 75

1) Inspect for symmetry
2) Palpate:
Anterior fontanelle: closes between 4 - 26 months of age
Posterior fontanelle: closes by 2 months of age

Question 76

Infancy PE:
1) What should you inspect abt eyes?
2) What abt ears?
3) What reflex should you test w the ears?
4) What should you inspect abt the neck

Answer 76

1) Sclerae, pupils, irises, extraocular movements, and presence of red reflex
2) Position, shape, landmarks, patency of ear canal
3) Acoustic blink reflex
4) For masses

Question 77

1) Do infants breathe through the nose or mouth?
2) What sinuses are present at birth?
3) What should you inspect abt the nose in an infancy PE?

Answer 77

1) Obligate nasal breathers for first the 2 months of life
2) Only ethmoid sinuses
3) Position of nasal septum

Question 78

Infancy oral PE:
1) What should you inspect abt the mouth?
2) What should you palpate?
3) How do you know how many teeth a child should have?
4) Which teeth erupt first?

Answer 78

1) Mucosa, tongue, gums, palate, tonsils, and posterior pharynx
2) Gums and teeth
3) 6-26 months of age, 1 tooth per month
4) Central + lat. incisors first, molars last

Question 79

Infancy neck PE:
1) What should you inspect for on the neck?
2) What should you palpate for?
3) What should you assess for?

Answer 79

1) Masses
2) Presence of adenopathy: unusual in infancy
3) Mobility of neck

Question 80

Absence of red reflex in young children should lead to a high level of suspicion for __________________

Answer 80

retinoblastoma

Question 81

Infancy thorax PE:
1) What should you inspect and listen to?
2) What should you palpate? When?
3) Is percussion helpful in infants? Why or why not?

Answer 81

1) RR, color, nasal component of breathing, & listen for audible breath sounds
2) Palpate tactile fremitus if infant is crying or making noise
3) Not helpful; thorax is more rounded in infants than in older children and adults

Question 82

1) When you’re listening to an infants lungs how may the sounds differ from an adult’s?
2) What should you inspect abt the heart?

Answer 82

1) Louder and harsher sounds
2) For cyanosis

Question 83

What two types of sounds should you distinguish between in infants? Describe each

Answer 83

1) Upper airway: loud, symmetric transmission throughout the chest - loudest as stethoscope is moved upward; coarse during inspiratory phase
2) Lower airway: loudest over site of pathology; asymmetric; often has an expiratory phase

Question 84

Infancy heart PE:
1) What should you palpate?
2) What should you auscultate?

Answer 84

1) Palpate:
Peripheral pulses, especially brachial
PMI is not always palpable; 1 interspace higher than in adults
Thrills
2) S1, S2 (split is normal but fuse together as single sound during deep expiration)
S3 is frequently heard and is normal
Murmurs – functional murmurs vs. pathologic

Question 85

1) Why should you inspect an infant’s breasts?
2) What should you palpate for?

Answer 85

1) Enlarged in newborns secondary to maternal estrogen
2) Masses

Question 86

Infancy male genital PE: what should you inspect and palpate for?

Answer 86

Inspect and palpate for descent of testes into scrotal sac

Question 87

Infancy female genital PE; what should you do?

Answer 87

Inspect genitals

Question 88

Infant abd. PE:
1) What should you inspect abt the abdomen/ what should be gone by 2 weeks old?
2) What should you auscultate?

Answer 88

1) Umbilical cord remnant is gone by 2 weeks of age
2) Bowel sounds

Question 89

Infancy abd PE:
1) What should you palpate?
2) Are infant rectal exams generally done

Answer 89

1) Liver edge 1-2 cm below costal margin is normal; palpable spleen tip is normal
2) Generally not done

Question 90

Infant MSK exam:
1) What should you inspect and palpate?
2) When is bowlegged growth normal?

Answer 90

1) Inspect spine; palpate clavicle, hips, legs, and feet.
2) Until age 18 months.

Question 91

Infant nervous system PE:
1) What should you do regarding motor tone?
2) What abt reflexes?

Answer 91

1) Inspect tone, and palpate motor tone through passive ROM of major joints
2) Normal reflexes

Question 92

What should a nervous system PE look like in a newborn? (what reflexes/ tests should be included?)

Answer 92

Palmar grasp, plantar grasp, moro reflex, asymmetric tonic neck reflex (aka fencing reflex), positive support reflex, anal reflex, positive Babinski
Fencing reflex

Question 93

Nervous system PE:
Triceps, brachioradialis, and abdominal reflexes are present starting at age _____ months

Answer 93

6

Question 94

List 7 tips for examining a young child

Answer 94

1) Use a reassuring voice throughout the examination.
2) Let the child see and touch the examination tools you will be using.
3) Avoid asking permission to examine a body part because you will do the examination anyway; instead, ask the child which body part he or she would like to have examined first.
4) Examine the child in the parent’s lap; allow the parent to undress the child.
5) If unable to console the child, allow a short break.
6) Examine Mom or Dad!
7) Make a game out of the examination.

Question 95

Describe the following unique features of early childhood:
1) Vital signs
2) Neck PE (explain why)
3) Eyes

Answer 95

1) Measure blood pressure starting at age 2
2) Palpate for lymph nodes; adenopathy is common
3) Cover and uncover test for position and alignment of eyes

Question 96

List the unique early childhood features of:
1) Ears
2) Nose/ sinuses

Answer 96

1) Visualization of tympanic membrane is the greatest challenge
2) Maxillary sinuses present by age 4

Question 97

Early childhood PE:
1) What pulses are easier to feel?
2) What type of abdomen is normal?
3) What liver and spleen sizes are normal?
4) What may you use to ID liver edge/ size?

Answer 97

1) Brachial pulses still easier to feel than radial
2) Protuberant abdomen still normal
3) Liver span 1-2 cm below costal margin is still normal
4) Spleen edge 1-2 cm below costal margin is normal
5) Scratch test

Question 98

1) Testes undescended in scrotal sac by age _____ is abnormal and need to refer
2) From 18 months to 4 years of age what is seen in the knees?
3) Inspect spine for scoliosis in what children?

Answer 98

1) 1 year old
2) Knock-knees
3) Any child who can stand

Question 99

Middle Childhood (5 to 10 years): give a general description of the PE for this age group

Answer 99

Physical examination is more straightforward;
the same sequence that is used in adults can be used starting in this age group

Question 100

1) Frontal sinuses present between what ages?
2) Sphenoid sinuses present by what age?
3) Peak tonsil growth is between what ages?

Answer 100

1) 6-7
2) 8 y/o
3) 8-16

Question 101

Early childhood PE:
1) Development of what in girls is the first sign of puberty? How early can it start?
2) What should you inspect for

Answer 101

1) Breast; may start as early as age 6
2) Inspect legs and feet; inspect spine for scoliosis

Question 102

1) What are Tanner stages?
2) While the age of puberty is highly variable, generally starts around age _________.
3) What age does puberty typically start in females? And in males?

Answer 102

1) Sexual maturity rating, to determine stage of puberty based on primary and secondary sex characteristics
2) 10-11
3) Females ~age 11; males ~age 12

Question 103

1) What determine stage of puberty in both males and females?
2) What are stage 1 and stage 5 in both males and females?

Answer 103

1) Tanner stages
2) Stage 1: “Pre-puberty”; Stage 5: Full development

Question 104

What is the first sign of puberty in females?

Answer 104

Breast budding

Question 105

1) Height: every visit
2) Weight: every visit
3) BMI (body mass index): at every visit
4) Head circumference: birth to 36 months
5) BP: start measuring at age 2
6) Pulse: higher in infancy; slows down with aging
7) RR: higher in infancy; slows down with aging
8) Temp: <2 months of age: rectal temp
≥2 months of age: tympanic temp

Answer 105

What 8 vital signs should you get during development? At what ages should you measure each?

Question 106

Height, weight, BMI, BP (at age 2+)

Answer 106

What vital signs should be measured at every visit throughout development?

Question 107

Pulse and RR

Answer 107

What vital signs are higher in infancy and slow down with aging?