Beyonce Slides (post-quiz 1) Flashcards

1
Q

What CN isn’t functioning if a patient can’t smell?

A

CN1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When the visual field is partially disrupted or if acuity is poor, what nerve is affected?

A

CNII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a patient has anisocoria (deviation of .4mm or more), what CN is affected?

A

CN3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a patient’s pupillary reflex doesn’t work, which CN is affected?

A

CN3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a patient has ptosis, what CN is affected?

A

CN3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If a patient’s EOMs are non-functioning, except for the lateral deviation and inferior medial gaze muscles, what nerve is affected?

A

CN3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If a patient has nystagmus or abnormal eye movements, which CNs are affected?

A

3, 4, & 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Binocular diplopia occurs in neuropathy of what 3 nerves?

A

3, 4, and 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What should you suspect if there’s jaw deviation during opening?

A

Weakness of that side & LMNs of CN5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What nerve is affected if, when touched on both sides of the face, a patient experiences dulled sensation on one side?

A

CN5 (on affected side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a patient can’t differentiate temperature with heated object, or differentiate between sharp and dull sensation, what CN is affected?

A

CN5 (on affected side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Failure to blink both eyes indicates sensory deficit in _________ or motor deficit in ___________

A

Sensory deficit in CN5 or motor deficit in CN7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Absent blinking and sensorineural hearing loss occur in __________, which affects CN__

A

acoustic neuroma; CN8
*double check this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a patient has trouble raising both eyebrows or making a happy face or frown, what CN is affected?

A

CN7 (facial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a patient can’t close both eyes tightly, open them, show both upper and lower teeth, or puff out cheeks, what CN is affected?

A

CN7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Palsy of _______ called “Bells Palsy” will impair a patient’s ability to raise his/her eyebrows

A

CN7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What CN does Chvostek Sign (twitching upon face being touched) affect?

A

CN7 (hyperexcitability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What nerve is affected by hypocalcemia?

A

CN7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is tested with Trousseau’s?

A

Hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If a patient has facial droop, what nerve is affected?

A

CN7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If a patient has sensorineural hearing loss, what nerve is affected?

A

CN8 (vestibulocochlear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If a patient has paralysis of the palate, what nerves are affected?

A

CNs 9 and 10 (glossopharyngeal and vagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a patient has a nasally voice or dysphagia, what CNs may be affected?

A

CNs 9 and 10 (glossopharyngeal and vagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When you have a patient say “ah” when examining oral pharynx, and the palate only rises on one side, and the other side is pulled toward the normal side (along with the uvula) what CNs are affected and where?

A

Unilateral damage to CNs 9 and 10 (glossopharyngeal and vagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When you have a patient say “ah” when examining oral pharynx, and the palate doesn’t rise at all, what CNs are affected and where?

A

Bilateral damage to CNs 9 and 10 (glossopharyngeal and vagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If a patient has atrophy or fasciculations of the trapezius, what CN is affected?

A

CN11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If a patient can’t shrug against resistance or turn head to the side against resistance, what CN is affected?

A

CN11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If a patient’s shoulder droops and the scapula falls down and away (lateral), what CN is affected?

A

Full paralysis of CN11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If the tongue deviates to the left, what CN is affected and where?

A

LMN lesion of CN12 on the left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If a patient has disrupted speech or can’t press their tongue on their inner cheek against resistance, what CN is affected?

A

CN12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe whether tension headaches, migraines, and cluster headaches are bilateral, bifrontal, global, or unilateral.

A

1) Tension headaches usually bilateral.
2) Migraines 70% unilateral; 30% of the time bifrontal or global. Throbbing or aching, usually not less than moderate. accompanied by aura in up to 30%.
3) Cluster usually unilateral and behind eye or temple.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe the quality and severity of tension headaches, migraines, and cluster headaches

A

1) Tension: Usually a steady pain (not usually throbbing), mild to moderate.
2) Migraine: Throbbing or aching, usually not less than moderate. accompanied by aura in up to 30%.
3) Cluster: Sharp, continuous, intense, and severe intensity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe the associated symptoms of tension headaches, migraines, and cluster headaches

A

1) Tension: Sometimes photophobia, phonophobia; scalp tenderness; nausea absent
2) Migraines: Prodrome, nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia; aura in 30%; either visual (flickering, zig-zagging lines) or motor (paresthesia of hand, arm, or face, or language dysfunction).
3) Cluster: Unilateral autonomic symptoms: lacrimation, rhinorrhea, miosis, ptosis, eyelid edema, conjunctival infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Out of tension headaches, migraines, and cluster headaches, which involve photophobia?

A

Tension headaches and migraines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Out of tension headaches, migraines, and cluster headaches, which involve nausea? Which involve rhinorrhea and ptosis?

A

Migraines involve nausea; cluster headaches involve rhinorrhea and ptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

1) Out of tension headaches, migraines, and cluster headaches, which can last up to 3 days?
2) Which is/ are unilateral?
3) List them in order from slow to fast onset

A

1) Migraines
2) Migraines and cluster headaches
3) Tension, migraines, cluster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 7 concerning headache (HA) complaints?

A

1) Progressively frequent or severe over 3-month period
2) Sudden onset “thunderclap”
-SA hemorrhage
3) New recurrent headaches after 50 years old
4) Associated with fever, night sweats, or weight loss
-cancer or TB (sweats, weight loss)
-meningitis (fever)
5) Recent head trauma
-bleeding
6) Change in pattern from past headaches
7) Associated papilledema, neck stiffness, or focal neurologic signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

1) What can a sudden onset “thunderclap” headache be a sign of?
2) What can a headache and recent head trauma be a sign of?

A

1) SA hemorrhage
2) Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What can headaches (HA) with associated with night sweats or weight loss be due to? (2 things)

A

1) Cancer
2) TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What can headaches (HA) associated with fever be due to?

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What can headaches (HA) with associated with fever, night sweats, or weight loss be due to?

A

1) Cancer or TB (sweats, weight loss)
2) Meningitis (fever)

43
Q

1) What can trouble with close work indicate?
2) What can trouble with far distance indicate?

A

1) Hyperopia (farsightedness) or Presbyopia (aging vision)
2) Myopia (nearsightedness)

44
Q

Hyperopia (farsightedness) or presbyopia (aging vision) both cause what?

A

Trouble with close work

45
Q

If a pt has sudden, unilateral, and painless vision loss, what is often the cause? Give 4 examples

A

Often vascular:
1) Retinal vein occlusion
2) Central retinal artery occlusion
3) Vitreous hemorrhage (DM, trauma)
4) Retinal detachment

46
Q

If a pt has sudden, unilateral, painful vision loss, what should you be thinking of? Give 5 examples

A

Cornea and anterior chamber:
1) Acute angle closure glaucoma
2) Corneal ulcer
3) Uveitis
4) Traumatic hyphema
5) Optic neuritis (MS)

47
Q

If a pt has sudden, bilateral, painless vision loss, what should you be thinking of?

A

Vascular: Giant cell arteritis (although! usually unilateral and somewhat painful)

48
Q

If a pt has sudden, bilateral, painful vision loss, what should you be thinking of? (2 things)

A

1) Radiation
2) Chemical exposure

49
Q

What can Giant cell arteritis cause?

A

Vision loss that is sudden, either somewhat painful or painless, and unilateral or bilateral (usually uni),

50
Q

Traumatic hyphema, optic neuritis (MS), Acute angle closure glaucoma, corneal ulcer, and uveitis all cause vision loss of what nature?

A

Sudden, unilateral, and painful

51
Q

What are 3 causes of gradual vision loss?

A

Cataracts, macular degeneration, glaucoma

52
Q

What are 2 causes of slow and central vision loss?

A

Macular degeneration and nuclear cataract

53
Q

What is a cause of peripheral vision loss?

A

Advanced open-angle glaucoma

54
Q

What are two causes of painless redness of the eyes?

A

1) Subconjunctival hemorrhage
2) Viral conjunctivitis

55
Q

What are 4 causes of painful red eye?

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma, herpes keratitis, FB (foreign body), uveitis

56
Q

What does a patient complaining of “flashing lights” and new floaters in their vision suggest?

A

Vitreous detachment

57
Q

1) More than _____ over fifty and ______% of folks over 80 have hearing loss
2) ______________ is the most common age-related cause of HL

A

1) >1/3 over fifty and 80% of folks over 80
2) Presbycusis

58
Q

Define edentulous

A

Missing teeth

59
Q

1) _______% of folks over ____ are edentulous (missing teeth)
2) What is a warning sign for oral cancer?
3) What should you promote regarding oral health?

A

1) 25% of folks over 50
2) Leukoplakia
3) Daily hygiene

60
Q

1) What 3 things should you avoid for oral health?
2) Tobacco and ETOH account for what percent of oral cancers?

A

1) Excessive starches, excessive sugars, and tobacco use
2) 75%

61
Q

What is the primary screening for oral cancers?

A

Your exam

62
Q

1) What line is straight down the middle of the back?
2) What line is lateral to that?

A

1) Vertebral line
2) Scapular line

63
Q

1) What line runs through the middle of the armpit?
2) What line runs parallel and anterior to this?
3) What line runs parallel and posterior to this?

A

1) Midaxillary line
2) Anterior axillary line
3) Posterior axillary line

64
Q

What are the 7 respiratory red flags?

A

1) Chest pain
2) Shortness of breath
3) Wheezing
4) Cough
5) Blood-streaked sputum
6) Painful inspiration
7) Daytime sleepiness

65
Q

What are the 5 Ps of respiratory related chest pain?

A

1) Pneumonia (Pneu. . .)
2) Pneumothorax (Pneu. . .)
3) Pulmonary embolus (P  E)
4) Pleural effusion (P  E)
5) Bronchitis (The ugly P. . .)

66
Q

What are the 3 key questions you should ask about respiratory related chest pain? What would the answers indicate?

A

1) Does it hurt when I press on it?
2) Is it worse when you breathe in?
-PE
3) Is there one-sided swelling/redness/pain in your calves?
-DBT

67
Q

Define SOB / dyspnea / wheezing. Is this subjective or objective?

A

The feeling of being out of breath; a subjective sensation

68
Q

What are the 6 diagnoses you should consider when a pt complains of SOB/ dyspnea/ wheezing?

A

1) COPD: smoking
2) Asthma: childhood
3) PNA (pneumonia): Infxn
4) Anxiety: associated symptoms
5) Cancer: progressive symptoms
6) Heart failure: rapid weight gain and lower extremity edema
-anxiety is a diagnosis of exclusion

69
Q

What two key questions should you ask when a pt complains of SOB/ dyspnea/ wheezing?

A

1) Under what circumstances or particular activities does this occur?
2) How much of the activity can you perform?

70
Q

What are the 3 types of cough? Define the parameters for each

A

1) Acute: < 3 weeks
2) Subacute: 3-8 WEEKS
3) Chronic: > 8 WEEKS

71
Q

1) What is the most common cause of cough?
2) What are some other causes?

A

1) Acute respiratory infxn (virus)
2) Smoking, asthma, COPD, pneumonia, acid reflux, FB, postnasal drip, bronchiectasis, medicines (ACE inhibitor)

72
Q

1) What is the key question to ask about a cough?
2) What conditions cause foul smelling sputum?
3) What condition causes thick sputum?
4) What causes profuse sputum?

A

1) Is it productive?
2) Lung abscess
3) CF
4) Bronchiectasis

73
Q

True or false: sputum is not specific for bacterial infection

A

True

74
Q

What 4 diagnoses should you consider regarding hemoptysis?

A

1) Cancer
2) TB
3) PE
4) Out of the box dx: upper GI bleed or epistaxis

75
Q

What is the key question to ask when a pt displays/ reports hemoptysis?

A

Define the source and amount and note the color; is it truly bright red blood from the lungs?

76
Q

What 3 Dxs should you consider when a pt has painful inspiration?

A

1) PE
2) Pleurisy
3) MSK

77
Q

What Dx should you consider when a pt has daytime sleepiness?

A

OSA (obstructive sleep apnea)

78
Q

1) Quitting smoking cuts your risk of heart attack in half after __________.
2) Lung cancer risk is cut in half after __________.
3) Stroke risk cut in half after_____________.

A

1) 1 year
2) 10 years
3) ~3 years

79
Q

1) When should flu shots begin? What should you do before this?
2) When do pneumococcal vaccines begin?

A

1) Influenza begins at 6 months
-If they’re under 6 months, vaccinate the family
2) 65 yo

80
Q

1) Describe the volume of bronchial sounds
2) Are expiratory and inspiratory respiratory sounds the same or different?
3) Where is it heard?

A

1) Getting loud
2) Expiratory sounds last longer than inspiratory ones
3) Heard normally over manubrium and large, proximal airways

81
Q

1) What should you think when you hear bronchial signs when you’re listening anywhere besides the manubrium or large proximal airways?
2) Would other supportive PE findings match as well?

A

1) Follow the same thinking as you would in displaced broncho-vesicular sounds; air > consolidation
2) Would be likely to match as well; transmitted voice sounds, fremitus, etc.

82
Q

Define adventitious sounds. Are they important?

A

“Added” breath sounds; an important finding

83
Q

1) What are rales?
2) What do they sound like?
3) What two conditions are they heard in?

A

1) Crackles
2) Like little dots, like snap crackle pop
3) HF, fibrosis

84
Q

1) What are ronchi?
2) What are they also called?
3) What two conditions are they seen in?
4) What causes them?

A

1) Low-pitched, rough sounds
2) Jankey lung
3) Bronchitis, COPD
4) Congestion from secretions in airway, can sometimes be cleared from coughing

85
Q

1) Define wheezing
2) What does it sound like?
3) When is it heard? Give 2 examples

A

1) Wheezing (it’s in the name)
2) High-pitched, sometimes musical sounding noise, whistley
3) Heard in “tight” airways; seen in asthma, respiratory distress

86
Q

What should you think if a pt’s breathing/ chest is silent?

A

Ominous; you need air movement to make sound

87
Q

Give 4 examples of adventitious sounds

A

1) Rales
2) Ronchi
3) Wheezing
4) Silent chest

88
Q

1) What is stenosis?
2) What is regurgitation?

A

1) Stenosis: valve is disfigured, slightly closed even when supposed to be open, causing turbulent flow of blood through it, causing a murmur
2) Regurgitation: valve is open when supposed to be closed

89
Q

1) When will aortic/ pulmonic stenosis be heard? Why?
2) What does it relate to? What kind of sound?

A

1) During systole/ S1, because it’s closed when it should be open
2) Carotids; cresendo-decrescendo

90
Q

What is aortic stenosis characterized by?

A

Crescendo-decrescendo sound (rises in intensity, then falls)

91
Q

When does mitral/ tricuspid stenosis occur?

A

During diastole, S2

92
Q

When is mitral/ tricuspid regurgitation heard?

A

Heard throughout

93
Q

1) When would aortic/ pulmonary regurgitation occur?
2) Where would you hear it?

A

1) Diastole; blood leaks back into ventricle
2) Left upper sternal boarder

94
Q

1) What is a VSD?
2) Where does this occur?
3) Where is blood moving? What will happen?
4) What kind of murmur does this cause?

A

1) Ventricular septal defect
2) L 3-5th interspaces
3) To the right ventricle from the left; goes back to the lungs
4) Plateau murmur

95
Q

1) What is PDA?
2) What usually happens?
3) What kind of sound does this cause?

A

1) Patent ductus arteriosus; aorta and pulmonary artery are linked
2) Usually closes, if it doesn’t it will remain patent
3) Continuous machine-like murmur after both S1 and S2

96
Q

1) Where is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
2) When is it decreased?
3) What kind of murmur?
4) What can it cause?

A

1) L 3-5th interspaces
2) Decreased with squat
3) Systolic murmur (that goes away with squatting)
4) Spontaneous cardiac arrest

97
Q

1) What does an innocent/ physiologic murmur sound like?
2) Where is it?
3) When does it occur?

A

1) Soft: grade 1-2
2) Left sternal murmur
3) Always in systole

98
Q

1) Define cardiac output
2) What would it depend on?

A

1) How much your heart pumps in a minute
2) How much it pumps per beat, and how often it beats

99
Q

1) Define preload
2) When does it go up?

A

1) How much blood you’ve got in the RV before it loads
2) When your venous system dumps a bunch of blood into your heart

100
Q

1) Define afterload
2) When does it go up? (2)

A

1) The amount of resistance your heart’s LV has to overcome as it squeezes blood out
2) When you have a bunch of blood in your system or when your arterial system is all “clamping down”

101
Q

List the red flags for heart issues (5)

A

1) Chest pain
2) Palpitations
3) SOB: dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
4) Swelling
5) Fainting

102
Q

Give 3 examples of types of SOB

A

Dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

103
Q

List 3 key symptoms of dissection

A

1) Tearing pain
2) Rapid onset
3) Sharp pain

104
Q

Physical exam findings in dissection include what?

A

Marked difference in upper extremity blood pressure