Winter Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Behaviour is a function of _____ and _____

A

the Person and the Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the formula for behaviour

A

B=f(P, E)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

true or false: behaviour depends more on where you are than who you are

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is social psychology

A

The study of how people influence others’ behavior, beliefs, and attitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Humans have a biologically based need
for interpersonal connections

A

need to belong theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is social comparison theory

A

We seek to evaluate our abilities and beliefs by comparing them with those of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is social facilitation

A

The presence of others can enhance our
performance in certain situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

refers to taking on for ourselves the behaviours, emotional displays, and
facial expressions of others

A

mimicry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Unwritten guidelines for how to behave in social contexts

A

social norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is ostracism

A

Powerful form of social pressure. exclusion from a society or group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

guidelines that apply to specific positions
within the group

A

social roles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what did guards in the stanford prison experiment do

A

they were very aggressive and harsh in punishment and treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is social loafing

A

When individuals put less effort into tasks when working with others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what occurs when an individual puts less effort into working on a task with others

A

social loafing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When one’s performance is affected by the presence of others

A

social facilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_____ – or the threat of _____ – has been associated with increased risk for anxiety, abnormal eating behaviour, reduced intelligence, reduced test performance and other effects

A

isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

obedience and conformity are examples of ___ ____

A

social influences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

true or false: social influences are adaptive not maladaptive

A

false. they are adaptive under most circumstances but they can become maladaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

people are more or less likely to conform when there is only one other person in the vicinity

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

people are more or less likely to conform when there are only strangers in the room

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

people are more or less likely to conform when the tasks are clear and simple

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

people are more or less likely to conform when one other person does not conform

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

people are more or less likely to conform when responses are anonymous

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

people are more or less likely to conform when they are in a large group

A

more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
people are more or less likely to conform when there are people they know in the vicinity
more
26
people are more or less likely to conform when tasks are ambiguous
more
27
people are more or less likely to conform when others conform first
more
28
people are more or less likely to conform when responses are public
more
29
When group members tend toward the same ideas to minimize conflict
groupthink
30
a decision-making problem in which group members avoid arguments and strive for agreement
groupthink
31
what is conformity
The tendency to alter our behaviour as a result of group pressure
32
the asch experiments were a demonstration of what?
conformity
33
true or false: your self esteem impacts how likely you are to conform
true. lower self esteem = more likely to conform
34
what phenomenon "doesn’t always lead to bad decisions, but does routinely lead to overconfidence"
groupthink
35
what is the problem with groupthink
An emphasis on group unanimity at the expense of critical thinking
36
what are the 7 symptoms of groupthink
1. illusion of groups invulnerability 2. illusion of group unanimity 3. unquestioned belief about groups correctness 4. conformity pressure 5. stereotyping the outgroup 6. self-censorship 7. mindguards
37
what is conformity pressure
pressure on group members to go along with everyone else
38
what is self-censorship
the tendency of group members to keep their mouths shut even when they have doubts
39
what are mindguards
self-appointed individuals whose job it is to stifle disagreement
40
what is group polarisation
tendency of group discussion to strengthen the dominant positions of individual group members
41
true or false: group polarization can cause views to become more extreme
true
42
Adherence to instructions from those of higher authority
obedience
43
what did the milgram experiment study
obedience to authority
44
true or false: obedience can be problematic
true, if people stop asking why they're behaving how others want them to
45
Subjects were taken to a lab and introduced to a fellow “volunteer” and the researcher
the milgram experiment
46
in the milgram experiment the greater the distance between teacher and experimenter, the ____ obedience (more/less)
less
47
in the milgram experiment the greater the distance between teacher and learner, the _____ the obedience (more/less)
more
48
what is the bystander effect
If one person witnesses an emergency, it is as if 100% of the responsibility for helping falls on that person. If 10 people witness an emergency, that responsibility is diffused, so it is as if each person feels only 10% of the responsibility—which may not be enough to motivate a person to act.
49
Tendency to overestimate the impact of dispositional influences on other people’s behaviour
fundamental attribution error
50
what is attribution
the process of assigning cause to behaviour
51
what is the fundamental attribution error
When we look at others’ behaviour we overestimate impact of dispositional influences (e.g. traits like intelligence or personality) and underestimate impact of situational influences (e.g. financial status, external pressures) * When it comes to evaluating our own behaviour, we do the opposite
52
which fundamental attribution error does “He’s such a careless driver. He never watches out for other cars” describe
dispositional
53
which fundamental attribution error does “He probably got caught in some bad traffic, and then he was late for a meeting.”
situational
54
what is diffusion of responsibility
reduction in feelings of personal responsibility in the presence of others
55
what is pluralistic ignorance
error of assuming that no one in a group perceives things as we do
56
what is prosocial behaviour
behaviour intended to help others
57
when are people more likely to help (4)
1. unable to escape from a situation 2. have adequate time to intervene 3. Are in a good mood 4. Have been exposed to research on bystander intervention
58
what is altruism
helping others in need without receiving or expecting reward for doing so
59
what are the seven influences on aggression
1. Interpersonal provocation 2. Frustration 3. Media influences 4. Aggressive cues 5. Arousal 6. Alcohol and other drugs 7. Temperature
60
what are explicit processes
“conscious” thought. deliberative, effortful, relatively slow, and generally under our intentional control
61
what are implicit processes
“unconscious” thought; they are intuitive, automatic, effortless, very fast, and operate largely outside of our intentional control
62
what are dual process-models
models of behaviour that account for both implicit and explicit processes
63
refers to the processes by which individuals categorize and form judgments about other people
person perception
64
what personality traits influence aggression (3)
lack of closeness to others, impulsivity, negative emotions
65
what is rational aggression
form of indirect aggression involving spreading rumours, gossiping, and nonverbal putdowns for the purpose of social manipulation
66
very small samples of a person’s behaviour is called
thin slices of behaviour
67
occurs when a first impression (or an expectation) affects one’s behaviour, and then that affects other people’s behaviour, leading one to “confirm” the initial impression or expectation
self fulfilling prophecy
68
these arise out of a need to feel good about ourselves
self-serving bias
69
Projecting the self onto others:
False consensus and naïve realism
70
what are ingroups
groups we feel positively toward and identify with
71
what are outgroups
“other” groups that we don’t identify with
72
what is ingroup bias
occurs when positive biases toward the self get extended to include one’s ingroups and people become motivated to see their ingroups as superior to their outgroups
73
Tendency to favour individuals within our group over those from outside our group
in-group bias
74
Tendency to view all individuals outside our group as highly similar
out-group homogeneity
75
A belief, positive or negative, about the characteristics of members of a group that is applied generally to most members of the group
stereotype
76
Drawing negative conclusions about a person, group of people, or situation prior to evaluating the evidence
prejudice
77
Negative behaviour toward members of outgroups
discrimination
78
explains how people can be persuaded to change their attitudes
Elaborative Likelihood Model
79
a dual-process model of persuasion that predicts whether factual information or other types of information will be most influential
elaborative likelihood model
80
In the central route people are persuaded by ______
the content of a message
81
in the peripheral route people are influenced by ______
the way the content is presented -> the style over the substance
82
what re the five ways the peripheral route can be used effectively
1. authority 2. liking (we believe those we like) 3. social validation 4. reciprocity (door in the face technique) 5. consistency (foot in the door technique)
83
what is the door in the face technique
asking for something relatively big, then following with a request for something relatively small
84
how does the door in the face technique work
logic is that once someone has scaled back their request, you are obligated to meet them part way
85
what is the foot in the door technique
making a simple request followed by a more substantial request
86
how does the foot in the door technique work
makes use of a very strong motivation held by many people -- the need for psychological consistency
87
true or false: attitudes are good predictors of behaviour
false
88
A discrepancy between two beliefs leads to an unpleasant state of tension that we’re motivated to reduce
cognitive dissonance theory
89
what is cognitive dissonance theory
when we hold inconsistent beliefs, this creates a kind of aversive inner tension, or “dissonance”; we are then motivated to reduce this tension in whatever way we can
90
according to cognitive dissonance theory how can someone resolve the tension (3)
1. changing the first cognition/belief 2. changing the second cognition/belief 3. introducing a third cognition that solves the issue
91
what do health psychologists study?
positive and negative impacts that humans’ behaviour and decisions have on their health, survival, and well-being
92
Tobacco use causes an estimated _____ deaths worldwide each year
7 million
93
what is the positive reinforcement of smoking
nicotine stimulated reward circuitry in the nervous system
94
what is the negative reinforcement of smoking
nicotine reduces uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms
95
true or false: visual processing impacts motivation to smoke
true. visual cues illicit neural responses
96
true or false: discrimination impacts weight loss/gain
true
97
ability to keep positive relationships and to endure and recover from social isolation and life stressors
social resillience
98
the often subtle, unintentional spreading of a behaviour as a result of social interactions
social contagion
99
what is the highest item on the life events scale for stress?
death or major illness of a loved one
100
what is the lowest order on the life events scale fr stress
Minor violations of the law (e.g., traffic ticket)
101
true or false: pregnancy and sexual dysfunction are tied on the life events scale for stress
false. pregnancy is rated 40 points and sexual dysfunction is rated 39 points
102
what is stress
psychological and physiological reaction
103
when does stress pccur
when perceived demands exceed existing resources to meet those demands
104
____ refers to the cognitive act of assessing and evaluating the potential threat and demands of an event
apprasial
105
what are the two steps in appraisal
primary appraisal and secondary appraisal
106
what is primary appraisal
the evaluation of how (potentially) harmful a particular situation is
107
what is secondary appraisal
the evaluation of whether the individual possesses the resources to successfully face the demands of the situation
108
a range of emotional intensity in which [they are] most likely to perform at their best
Individual zone of optimal functioning (I Z O F)
109
performance is related to what two factors
the difficulty of the task and the level of arousal/stress while it is being performed
110
For easy tasks, moderately ____levels of arousal helps
high
111
for difficult task ___ levels of arousal is ideal
low
112
a set of physiological changes that occur in response to psychological or physical threats
fight or flight response
113
what is general adaptation syndrome
a theory of stress responses and physiological changes when exposed to stress
114
what are the three stages in general adaptation syndrome. explain them
1. alert (fight or flight) 2. resistance (body tries to repair itself after the initial shock of stress) 3. exhaustion (occurs from prolonged or chronic stress where you body is no longer able to cope with stress)
115
The stress pathways of the body include the ______ and the ____
1. autonomic nervous system 2. HPA axis
116
The autonomic response involves stimulation of the _____ by the sympathetic nervous system
adrenal medulla
117
chemicals that stimulate the fight-or-flight response are ____ (2)
epinephrine and norepinephrine
118
Activity of the HPA axis results in stimulation of the ______, which releases cortisol into the bloodstream
adrenal cortex
119
a hormone involved in reproduction, childbirth, and social bonding
oxytocin
120
what is the tend and befriend response
They nurture (tend) or seek social support (befriend) when faced with a potentially dangerous situation
121
Higher oxytocin and _____ levels are associated with positive social interactions between married couples
vasopressin
122
what is Psychoneuroimmunology
the study of the relationship between immune system and nervous system functioning
123
true or false: caring for someone with altzheimers is related to slower healing
true
124
The complete or partial blockage of the arteries that provide oxygen to the heart
coronary heart disease
125
most ulcers are cause by a bacteria called _____
Helicobacter pylori
126
what is coping
the processes used to manage demands, stress, and conflict
127
what are the two coping approaches
problem focused and emotion focused
128
_____ uses scientific methods to study human strengths and potential
Positive psychology
129
what is optimism
tendency to have a favourable, constructive view on situations and to expect positive outcomes
130
tendency to have a negative perception of life and expect negative outcomes
pessimism
131
the tendency to interpret and explain negative events as internally based (i.e., as being due to that person rather than to an external situation) and as a constant, stable quality
Pessimistic explanatory style
132
what is negative affectivity
tendency to respond to problems with pattern of anxiety, hostility, anger, guilt, or nervousness
133
what is resilience
the ability to effectively recover from illness or adversity
134
what is a type a personality
personality type that describes people who are competitive, driven, hostile, and ambitious
135
true or false: excercise has long term impacts on cognition
false. SHORT TERM impacts on cognition
136
The acquired failure to avoid or escape unpleasant circumstances that are perceived as uncontrollable is referred to as _____
learned helplessness
137
true or false: randomness causes anxiety
true
138
true or false: those who feel out of control are more likely to see patterns where there are none
true
139
mechanism that is put in place to satisfy the requirement for a security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time
compensatory control
140
variety of practices that train attention and awareness
meditation
141
Receptors convert the stimulus into a neural impulse. this process is called _____
transduction
142
what is the cycle of a self-fulfilling prophecy
you have a belief which leads to actions that reflect that. people reflect, see the actions and this confirms the belief
143
psychological phenomenon in which high expectations lead to improved performance in a given area and low expectations lead to worse
Pygmalion effect
144
what did the robbers cave study study
how easy groups could both turn on each other and come together
145
what is the friction reduction phase
challenges where participants in robbers cave study were forced to work together to solve problems
146
whenever there are two or more groups that are seeking the same limited resources, this will lead to conflict, negative stereotypes and beliefs, and discrimination between the groups. this is called __________
realistic conflict threory
147
the perception of stimulus occurs in specialized brain regions. there are: (3)
1. visual 2. auditory 3. olfactory
148
what is the absolute threshhold
the level at which a stimulus can be detected 50% of the time
149
____ theory recognizes that a stimulus is either present or absent based on the sensory process
signal detection theory
150
what is the decision process in signal detection theory
when the individual either reports detecting the stimulus or does not
151
perception below the threshold of conscious awareness is called ____
subliminal perception
152
previous exposure to a stimulus can influence that individual’s later responses
priming
153
what is the difference between sensation and perception
sensation is the detection of sensory info and perception is the brains interpretation of that data
154
what is gestalt psychology
an approach to perception that emphasizes the ”the whole is greater than the sum of its parts"
155
what are the five principals of gestalt psychology
1. figure and ground 2. proximity (helps us group items together) 3. similarity 4. continuity (tendency to view items as whole figures even if the image is broken) 5. Closure (tendency to fill in gaps so as to see a whole object)
156
why do people think they hear things in backwards music
the brain tries to make sense from nonsense
157
______ processing can be used to perceive specific phrases
Top-down
158
top down processing is based on
prior knowledge
159
bottom up processing is based on
construction
160
When participants are given no direction from the experimenters and simply listen to backward music, they are engaging in ____ processing
bottom-up
161
____ is a filter that influences what aspects we perceive or pay attention to
perceptual set
162
True or false: bottom-up processing occurs when our perceptions are influenced by our expectations or by our prior knowledge
false. that is top-down processing
163
true or false: bottom-up processing occurs when we perceive individual bits of sensory information (e.g. sounds) and use them to construct a more complex perception (e.g. a message)
true
164
____ attention involves focusing on one particular event or task
selective
165
Process of selecting one sensory channel and ignoring/minimizing others
selective attention
166
true or false: expectation have little effect on perception
false
167
what is divided attention
paying attention to more than one stimulus or task at the same time
168
failure to notice clearly visible events or objects because attention is directed elsewhere
inattentional blindness
169
Wavelength is measured by _____
distance between the peaks (or the troughs) of the waves
170
When _____ travels through ____, the bending of the light reveals the visible light spectrum
white light, a prism
171
Colours vary by what three things
hue (colour), saturation (colourfulness), intensity (brightness)
172
Related to the amount of light reflected back to the eye
intensity (brightness)
173
the white portion of the eye
Sclera
174
what is the iris and what does it do
the coloured portion that controls how much light enters the eye
175
the hole where light enters the eye
pupil
176
transparent cells that focus light on the back of the eye
cornea
177
what part of the eye changes curvature (accomodation) to reflect light onto back of eye and is important as we adjust for distance of objects (close to us or far away
the lens
178
____ and _____ cells collect messages from the light-sensitive photoreceptors and converge on the ____ ____, which then carries the messages to the brain
1. Bipolar 2. ganglion 3. optic nerve
179
Cones are concentrated at the _____
fovea
180
what is the centre of the retina called
the fovea
181
where are rods in the retina located
the periphery
182
There are approximately _____ rods and approximately _____ cones in the adult retina
1. 120 million 2. 6 to 8 million
183
According to this theory, humans have three types of cones that respond maximally to different regions of the colour spectrum
The Trichromatic Theory of Colour Vision
184
Reds wavelengths are ___ short, medium or long
long
185
greens wavelengths are ___ short, medium or long
medium
186
blues wavelengths are ___ short, medium or long
short
187
The _____ exits the back of the eye and is composed of the axons of ganglion cells
optic nerve
188
Trichromatic theory says colour vision is based on what
our sensitivity to three primary colours: blue, green, red
189
which theory explains colour blindness
trichromatic theory
190
what is opponent process theory
theory that states that the human visual system interprets information about color by processing signals from photoreceptor cells in an antagonistic manner suggests that the way humans perceive colors is controlled by three opposing systems
191
what are the three opposing channels in our vision according toopponent process theory
1. blue versus yellow 2. red versus green 3. black versus white
192
____ theory sees colour vision as a function of complementary, opposing colours
opponent process
193
Nearsightedness and farsightedness result from ____
misshapen eyes
194
true or false: eye shape impacts where an image hits the retina
true. If the eye is elongated or too short, images are not centred on the retina
195
The ____ is the membrane at the back of the eye
retina
196
what is the fovea responsible for
acuity (sharpness of vision)
197
At the ____, some of the cells remain on the same side and some cross to the opposite side of the brain
optic chiasm
198
how can scientists can measure the activity of individual feature detector cells
inserting a microscopic electrode into the visual cortex of an animal activity level will peak when the animal is shown the specific feature corresponding to that specific cell
199
Neural impulses leave the visual centres in the occipital lobe along two pathways. These are:
1. The ventral (bottom) stream extends to the temporal lobe 2. the dorsal (top) stream extends to the parietal lobe
200
what are the three perceptual constancies
1. shape constancy 2. colour constancy 3. size constancy
201
what is shape constancy
we perceive objects as staying the same shape, even when they're rotated or viewed from different angles
202
what is size constancy
the ability to see an object as staying the same size, even when it is moved to a different location
203
what is colour constancy
when we are able to see colours in different objects, even if the light reflecting off these objects is different our brain understands that the colour of an object is not dependent on the type of light that is shining on it
204
the images taken in by both eyes to give depth perception
binocular depth cues
205
There are two types of binocular depth cues. what are they
convergence and retinal disparity
206
what is retinal disparity
the difference between the visual images that each eye perceives because of the different angles in which each eye views the world
207
what is convergence (depth cues)
when both eyes rotate inward at different angles to focus on an object. The degree to which the eyes turn is sent to the brain to determine how far away an object may be
208
what's the difference between binocular depth cues and monocular depth cues
binocular = two eyes, monocular = one eye
209
what are the 5 monocular depth cues that are mentioned in the slides
1. relative size 2. linear perspective 3. motion parallax 4. accomodation 5. texture gradient
210
what happens in monocular accomodation
the lens changes shape to accommodate the light when the same object is moved close
211
what is monocular motion parallax
when you move your head and objects that are farther away appear to move at a different speed than those closer to you
212
when the angles of two adjacent objects and the distance between them look smaller and smaller. This causes your eye to interpret those objects as increasingly farther away from you
linear perspective
213
what is relative size (monocular depth cues)
judging how big or small the object is and what that means in relation to other objects you’ve interacted with in the past.
214
The _____ of a sound wave (cycles per second) is associated with pitch, while ___ (the height of the sound wave) is associated with loudness
1. frequency 2. amplitude
215
true or false: hearing relies on sound waves
true. The perception of hearing is based on the physical properties of sound waves
216
Sound waves travel from ____ to _____and ____, and then through the ____
1. the outer ear 2. the eardrum 3. middle ear 4. inner ear
217
where is the cochlea
the inner ear
218
where does transduction occur
the cochlea
219
___ occurs through the movement of the tiny hair cells lining the basilar membrane
transduction
220
how does the brain localise sound
brain computes the small difference in time at which the sound reaches each of the ear + the loudness
221
what is frequency theory
sound pitch is based on the rate at which the basilier membrane vibrates
222
what is place theory
specific location along the basilar membrane matches a specific tone and pitch
223
true or false: high frequency sounds stimulate hair cells at the base of the cochlea
true
224
low frequency sounds stimulate hair cells where in the cochlea
near the end
225
low pitch is fast or slow waves
slow
226
true or false: high pitch sounds have fast waves
true
227
what is the volley principal
another name for frequency theory explains how the inner ear detects the frequency of a sound and states that our perception of a sound's frequency depends on how often the auditory nerve fires
228
perception of beats in music is correlated with activation where
the basal ganglia
229
true or false: there is a link between behaviour and beat perception and movement
true
230
what are the two groups of structures in the vestibular system
the vestibular sacs and the semicircle canals
231
detects our head’s position, particularly when it is no longer upright
vestibular sacs
232
what do the semicircle canals do
detect when our head is in motion
233
true or false: the vestibular system is connected to the amygdala and the basal ganglia
false. the amygdala and the insula
234
what is kinesthesis
Receptors in muscles and joints send sensory messages to the brain, helping us maintain awareness and control of our movements
235
_____ and ____ are sensory receptors that provide information about changes in muscle length and tension
1. Muscle spindles 2. Golgi tendon organs
236
true or false: the nerve endings for pain are very sensitive and are located deep under the skin
false. they are very sensitive, but are located near the surface of the skin
237
what is gate control theory
asserts that non-painful input closes the nerve "gates" to painful input, which prevents pain sensation from traveling to the central nervous system
238
describes how non-painful sensations can override and reduce painful sensations
gate control theory
239
nerves in the spinal cord conduct pain messages. according to gate control theory, the stimulation of ___ fibres inhibit pain, and the stimulation of ____ fibres detect pain
1. large fibres inhibit 2. small fibres = pain
240
what is a mirror box used for
therapy for amputees experiencing phantom pain
241
true or false: physical sensations of pain can not be triggered by emotions of pain when seeing someone else in pain
false. emotions of pain can influence physical sensations
242
what part of the brain is possibly involved in empathy pain
the insula
243
what is the gustatory system
the system of taste
244
what is the system of smell called
the olfactory system
245
what are the bumpy surfaces on the tongue called
papillae
246
The tongue is lined with _____
papillae
247
where are the taste buds located
inside papillae on your tongue
248
the tiny receptors to which chemicals bind in your mouth
taste buds
249
true or false: number of taste buds varies from person to person
true
250
taste sensitivity is caused by what
the amount of taste buds on the tongue
251
We are sensitive to five basic tastes. these are:
1. Sweet 2. salty 3. sour 4. bitter 5. umami
252
Lining the olfactory _____ are tiny ____ that collect airborne chemicals
1. epithelium 2. cilia
253
what sends messages to the nerve fibres that make up the olfactory bulb
cilia
254
airborne chemicals that interact with lining in our nasal passages
odours
255
somatosensory
touch and pain
256
the kinesthetic sense
Proprioception
257
the vestibular sense
equilibrium and balance
258
______ argues that neural mechanisms in the spinal cord regulate conscious awareness of pain
gate control theory
259
____s occur when our expectations influence our perceptions
perceptual sets
260
_____ allows us to perceive stimuli consistently across conditions
Perceptual constancy
261
Rules that govern how we perceive objects as wholes within their overall context
gesalt principals
262
the ___ demonstrates that depth perception is partly innate and a result of experience
visual cliff
263
the neural integration or combination of information from different sensory modalities
multimodal integration theory
264
what is multimodal integration theory
Combining sensations from different modalities into single integrated perception
265
what is the mcgurk effect
perceptual phenomenon that demonstrates an interaction between hearing and vision in speech perception for example, when we hear the sound 'da' while seeing the face of a person articulate 'ga', many adults perceive the sound 'ba', a third sound which is a blend of the two
266
a condition in which stimulation of one sense generates a simultaneous sensation in another
synesthesia auditory-tactile synesthesia ftw woooo