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Psychology-1000 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Subjective Awareness is made up of: [4]

A

Thoughts
Perceptions
Experiences of the world
Self-awareness

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2
Q

What are the two aspects of consciousness?

A

It is a general state of mind and the access to contents of the mind, it is also the things currently being worked on/thought about in your head

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3
Q

Examples of conscious experiences are: [4]

A

Visual Perception
Memory
Body Awareness
Decision Making

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4
Q

What is self-awareness?

A

the consideration of one’s own thought and their awareness of themselves as an independent agent that makes decision

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5
Q

True or False: Decision making is a fully conscious process

A

False

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6
Q

True or false: psychological study does not rely on what is thought to be true or not

A

True. It is what psychological methods are applicable to and can be studied

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7
Q

What is the mark Test?

A

A (non-human) subject is sleeping or under anaesthetic while a red mark is placed on their forehead. There are then exposed to a mirror

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8
Q

During the mark Test, if the subject points to their forehead they are believed to be:

A

self aware

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9
Q

During the mark Test, if the subject points towards the mirror they are believed to be:

A

not self aware

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10
Q

How is self awareness in rats tested?

A

A 4 lever operant chamber in which the lever will release a food pellet if it corresponds with what the rat was doing at the time a buzzer sounds off

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11
Q

What are nonconscious processes?

A

autonomic functions

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12
Q

What does discrimination mean in psychology?

A

Can you tell one thing from another

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13
Q

What are pre-conscious memories

A

memories called upon when triggered

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14
Q

What are the 4 categories that awareness can be broken into?

A

Non-conscious processes
Pre-conscious memories
Unattended Information
Unconscious

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15
Q

What is unattended Information?

A

Stuff happening in the world around you that you are not focused on or paying attention to

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16
Q

What is unconscious in terms of the category of self-awareness?

A

processes you are not aware of that impacts your behaviour (something like trauma that you are not actively thinking about, but that is also not currently happening in the world)

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17
Q

What is cortical Blindness?

A

Extensive damage to the primary visual cortex that eliminates sight completely, but their retinas are still intact

Some completely blind individuals can guess things (such as location or shape of an object) at higher rates than chance

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18
Q

True or false: With cortical Blindness, the participant is aware of what is happening

A

False. To the participant, they are truly just making a guess as consciously they have no experience of vision. The Phenomena that allows them to guess at rates higher than chance is unconscious and they do not know about it

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19
Q

What causes cortical Blindness?

A

90% of neurons carry info from the eyes to the primary visual cortex via the thalamus, however 10% take a different pathway through the extrastriatal pathway and end up in the superia collictulus

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20
Q

What did Damasio and Bechara examine?

A

decision making in patients with damage to prefrontal cortex vs those without

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21
Q

What is probabilistic decision making?

A

The idea that you are going to make a decision about something and an outcome with there being a level of uncertainty

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22
Q

What was the use of skin conductance by Damasia and Bechora?

A

Skin conductance responses were related to the participant “knowing” the outcome. It indicates stress or anxiety

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23
Q

What is the Iowa Gambling task?

A

Two good decks and two bad decks used by Damasia and Bechora to study decision making

Flip over cards that have either a win or a loss

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24
Q

What is the pre-punishment phase
(Iowa Gambling task)

A

Participant has not yet encountered a loss and thus do not have enough information yet

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25
Q

What is the pre-hunch phase
(Iowa Gambling task)

A

Participant has no Idea what is going on

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26
Q

What is the hunch phase
(Iowa Gambling task)

A

The participant knows that there is something up but does not yet know what

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27
Q

What is the conceptual phase
(Iowa Gambling task)

A

the participant understands what is going on

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28
Q

What did the Iowa Gambling task reveal?

A

Participants figure things out subconsciously before consciously thinking about it

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29
Q

What is think-aloud protocol?

A

When participants report their thoughts while undergoing the task

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30
Q

What is the experience sampling method?

A

signals from device to report that people are thinking and feeling in the moment

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31
Q

What does experience sampling prevent?

A

Selective memory

if something bad happens they may focus on the bad things and forget the positive or vice versa, experience sampling prevents this

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32
Q

How does consciousness impact survival? (4)

A

Consciousness helps to adapt to the environment.

It restricts stimuli to what is important

It selectively remembers information that is relevant and important

It helps with practical planning

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33
Q

What is the difference between a circadian rhythm and an ultradian rhythms?

A

circadian happens once every 24 hours, ultradian happens more than once per cycle

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34
Q

What is wakefulness?

A

How awake (or not) you are

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35
Q

What is awareness?

A

The monitoring of information from the environment (externally and in head) and how whether or not you know what is going on

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36
Q

Conscious Wakefulness is ___ awareness and ___ wakefulness

(low/high)

A

High, High

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37
Q

Lucid dreaming is ___ awareness and ___ wakefulness

(low/high)

A

high, low (ish)

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38
Q

Vegetative state is ___ awareness and ___ wakefulness

A

low, high

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39
Q

Loss of awareness and wakefulness is called ____

A

a coma

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40
Q

Why is it hard to get someone out of a coma

A

The lack of awareness. They will not feel something like a knife

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41
Q

When do you have high levels of control of dream contents?

A

Lucid dreams

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42
Q

A lucid dream is when:

A

you are asleep and dreaming, but are aware you are dreaming

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43
Q

A vegetative state is when:

A

brain looks awake but there is no indication that the person can understand

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44
Q

What is locked-in syndrome

A

A disorder in which a patient is awake and aware but is unable to move

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45
Q

What are the three categories on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A

Eye opening response, Verbal response, Motor response

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46
Q

On the Glasgow Coma Scale, a score of 13-15 indicates a ___ brain injury

(minor, moderate, or severe)

A

Minor

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47
Q

On the Glasgow Coma Scale, a score of 9-12 indicates a ___ brain injury

(minor, moderate, or severe)

A

Moderate

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48
Q

On the Glasgow Coma Scale, a score of 3-8 indicates a ___ brain injury

(minor, moderate, or severe)

A

Severe

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49
Q

What is a circadian rhythm

A

daily cycle of 24 hours

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50
Q

What does the circadian rhythm effect?

A

physiological and behavioural processes

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51
Q

What is the superchiasmatic nucleus and where is it located

A

It is a collection of cells bodies in the hypothalamus

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52
Q

Melotonin is produced by what

A

Darkness

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53
Q

What is entrainment?

A

external cues like light, and temperate

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54
Q

What is the endogenous rhythm?

A

generated by the body independent of external cues

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55
Q

The circadian rhythm is controlled by what two factors?

A

Entrainment and endogenous rhythm

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56
Q

What two things work together to regulate the circadian rhythm?

A

The superchiasmatic nucleus in the hypothalamus and pineal gland

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57
Q

why does body temperature drops during sleep?

A

conserve energy

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58
Q

True or false: sleep deprivation does not effect memory retention

A

false

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59
Q

Sleep is a ___ and ___ ____ of consciousness

A

periodic, reversible loss

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60
Q

What does sleep mean in Latin?

A

little death

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61
Q

different forms of brain activity in stages that operate under ____

A

ultradian rhythms

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62
Q

REM sleep looks close to____in terms of brain waves

A

awake

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63
Q

what do sleep spindles do

A

memory locking in light sleep, storing them

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64
Q

true or false: sleep stages are fixed in length

A

false. You get more and more REM the farther into the cycle

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64
Q

remembering dreams means what

A

woken up during REM -> light sleeper

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65
Q

What was the original name for REM sleep

A

paradoxical sleep

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66
Q

What stage do you lose muscle tone in?

A

REM

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67
Q

What type of waves are present while awake?

A

Beta

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68
Q

What type of waves are present while awake but drowsy

A

Alpha

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69
Q

What type of waves are present during the three NREM stages (2)

A

Theta and delta

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70
Q

What is the restore and Repair hypothesis

A

Amends the wear and tear of the day (moving but also thinking), and clears out the toxins while asleep

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71
Q

Does what you did in a day impact how much sleep you need according to the restore and Repair hypothesis?

A

No. Amount of needed sleep has no relation to how much sleep you “should” need based on days activities

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72
Q

What is the preserve and protect hypothesis

A

Preserving energy and protecting from harm

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73
Q

True or false: pain is related to damage

A

True. the more something hurts, the more damage it is assumed to be doing

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74
Q

True or false: state of mind impacts pain

A

True. it impacts how the sensory experience is rated (but not the unpleasantness)

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75
Q

Which neurotransmitter is produced in multiple parts of the brain (but not everywhere)

A

Acetylcholine

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76
Q

True or false: Acetylcholine is involved in both movement and pain

A

False. Only muscle movement

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77
Q

Why does smoking make people age faster?

A

Acetylcholine in the nicotonic receptors contract muscles, including those in the face - causing wrinkles

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78
Q

What function does nicotine help to regulate?

A

Heartrate

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79
Q

What is the type of drops that optometrists put in your eyes and why?

A

Atropine drops because it inhibits acetylcholine (which constricts pupils)

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80
Q

A drug that serves as a precursor is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

agonist

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81
Q

A drug that prevents storage of neurotransmitters in the vesicles is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

antagonist

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82
Q

a drug that stimulates the release of neurotransmitters is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

agonist

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83
Q

a drug that inhibits the release of neurotransmitters is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

antagonist

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84
Q

a drug that stimulates the post-synaptic receptors is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

agonist

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85
Q

a drug that blocks the post-synaptic receptors is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

antagonist

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86
Q

a drug that inactivates the synthetic enzyme is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

antagonist

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87
Q

a drug that stimulates autoreceptors is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

antagonist

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88
Q

a drug that blocks autoreceptors is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

agonist

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89
Q

a drug that blocks reuptake is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

agonist

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90
Q

a drug that inactivates acetylcholinestrase is a:

(agonist or antagonist)

A

agonist

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91
Q

The S1 is the:

A

primary somatosensory cortex

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92
Q

The S2 is the:

A

association somatosensory

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93
Q

The AMY is the:

A

amygdala

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94
Q

the BG is the:

A

basal ganglia

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95
Q

what is the basal ganglia?

A

output from the substantia nagra

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96
Q

What is the PAG responsible for?

A

pain processing

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97
Q

____ manipulation effects pain processing

A

cognitive

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98
Q

ACC decreases ___ and ____, but increases ____

A

Decreases FA (fractional anistropy) and opioids
Increases inflammation

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99
Q

PFC decreases ____, ____, and ____, and increases ____

A

Decreases FA (fractional anistropy, NAA ( N-acetylaspartate) and opioids
Increases inflammation

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100
Q

IC decreases ___, ____, and ____

A

Decreases FA (fractional anistropy, NAA ( N-acetylaspartate) and opioids

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101
Q

What happens to car accident rates after spring daylight savings?

A

They immediately go up and slowly return to baseline

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102
Q

What happens to car accident rates after fall daylight savings?

A

They immediately decrease and then slowly go back up to baseline

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103
Q

Based on the trend seen with fall daylight savings time and car accidents, what assumption can be made about the general populace?

A

Most people are sleep deprived by default

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104
Q

What are the two main causes of sleep deprivation?

A

Sleep Displacement and jet lag

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105
Q

What is sleep Displacement?

A

a shifted sleep schedule to be later or earlier than the normal time

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106
Q

If you go to bed two hours later but set your alarm to go off two hours later, does that still cause sleep deprivation? why or why not

A

Yes, while it looks on paper like you are getting the same amount of sleep you actually are not as the quality of sleep suffers. The reason you are going to sleep later also has an effect as it dictates how long it will take you to fall asleep

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107
Q

What is jet lag?

A

mismatch between circadian rhythm and external cues

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108
Q

What is a common experience that may cause jet lag?

A

Night shift

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109
Q

Which theory of dreaming did Freud advocate for?

A

Psycho-analytic

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110
Q

What are the two main theories of Dreaming called?

A

The psycho-analytic perspective and the Activation-Synthesis perspective

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111
Q

What is the psycho-analytic perspective?

A

Dreams lift the lid to let off some steam so that the ID can be satisfied and doesn’t overflow. They are a window into the subconscious

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112
Q

Under the psycho-analytic perspective what are the two things that make up dreams?

A

Manifest content and latent content

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113
Q

True or false: classical conditioning does not involves organisms doing stuff

A

False. Like operant conditioning, the organism still does stuff, however the role is different

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114
Q

What is the difference between exemplar categorisation and prototype categorisation

A

prototype is based on one thing, exemplar is not

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115
Q

What is manifest content?

A

the images and story lines we dream about. The stuff that is not hidden and that you remember

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116
Q

what is latent content?

A

the potential content. It is the symbolic and deeper meaning of your dreams, hidden within the manifest content. Believed to primarily be made up of sexual and aggressive urges

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117
Q

what is dream work?

A

the translation of manifest content to latent content conducted by “experts” who tell you what things mean and symbolise

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118
Q

What is the activation-synthesis theory?

A

the idea that dreams arise from brain activity in REM sleep when there is a burst of exciting images from the Pons (part of the brain stem)

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119
Q

according to activation-synthesis, why do dreams take the form that they do?

A

the brain likes to make things into a story that is semi-realistic

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120
Q

which cognitive functions does REM sleep impact?

A

planning and memory

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121
Q

What is the prevalence of insomnia?

A

13% in canada

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122
Q

What is insomnia?

A

chronic failure to get adequate sleep

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123
Q

What are the three forms of insomnia?

A

Onset insomnia
Maintenance insomnia
Terminal insomnia

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124
Q

What is onset insomnia?

A

difficulty falling asleep (30 minutes or more)

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125
Q

what is maintenance insomnia?

A

frequent wakeups during the night

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126
Q

what is terminal insomnia?

A

waking up too early and being unable to go back to sleep

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127
Q

Insomnia that is the result of other diagnosed problems is called:

A

secondary insomnia

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128
Q

What is narcolepsy?

A

the compulsion to fall asleep at inappropriate times. they go straight into REM sleep

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129
Q

True or false: narcolepsy is related to level of boredom

A

false. some peoples can be triggered by excitement

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130
Q

What is believed to be the cause of narcolepsy?

A

lack of the neurotransmitter (orexin - since renamed to hypocretin) that also stimulates eating

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131
Q

What is cataplexy?

A

the loss of muscle tone

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132
Q

What is the treatment for narcolpesy?

A

stimulants

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133
Q

What are night terrors?

A

Appears to be awake but are unresponsive to external stimuli (such as a parent trying to soothe the child)

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134
Q

True or false: night terrors negatively impact the person experiencing them

A

False. Children tend to not remember it and they do not wake up more tired than normal either

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135
Q

True or false: night terrors are when you are living out your dreams

A

false. they occur during NREM sleep, not REM where dreams take place

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136
Q

What is restless leg syndrome?

A

a persistent feeling of discomfort in legs and the consistent need to shift them and readjust. You do not feel pain, it is just uncomfortable

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137
Q

What is somnambulism?

A

Sleep walking. someone leaves their bed and wanders around while still asleep

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138
Q

What is sleep apnea?

A

A hormonal response that causes some one to wake up repeatedly throughout the night in order to catch breath as there is a lack of oxygen intake

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139
Q

What are the two types of sleep apnea?

A

obstructive and central

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140
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnea?

A

A blockage of the pathways

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141
Q

What is central sleep apnea?

A

no issue with the airway but the brain is convinced there is a problem

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142
Q

Sleeping on your back is worse than on your side when you have:

A

Sleep apnea

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143
Q

What is hypnotism?

A

loss of control over their own behaviour, thoughts, and/or feelings

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144
Q

What are the three things that impact hypnotic susceptibility?

A

openness to suggestion and experience, how much one can focus inwardly, and the ability to become absorbed by imagination (how much can you become absorbed by a book or movie for example)

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145
Q

What are ideomotor suggestions?

A

specific actions performed by the person being hypnotised

146
Q

What are challenge suggestions?

A

actions that are not performed. cannot use a body part as there is a loss of ability to do so

147
Q

What are cognitive-perceptive suggestions?

A

-remembering or forgetting specific information
-Altered perceptions (such as pain)

148
Q

What is The Stanford Hypnotic Susceptibility Scale (developed by Hilgard)

A

a series of tasks performed under hypnosis from easiest to hardest

149
Q

what is Posthypnotic Amnesia

A

the supposed inability to recall what was experienced while undergoing hypnosis

150
Q

what is the Hypnotic Induction Profile

A

How much the whites of your eye is visible if you roll them back as far as you can in your head

151
Q

True or false: you can find out how hypnotisable you are by the whites of your eyes

A

True. The more you see the more hypnotisable you are according to the hypnotic induction profile

152
Q

Hypnosis is based on the interaction between unconscious thoughts and behaviour (automatic) and _____

A

the supervisory system

153
Q

What is an example of the supervisory system?

A

language

154
Q

Why is language a part of the supervisory system?

A

you do not think about each individual word, rather you think about what you want to convey and then the words come

155
Q

What is disassociation theory?

A

The idea that consciousness is divided into two systems: a lower level system (perception and movement), and a higher level (executive) system (evaluates and monitors behaviour)

156
Q

Why is it called disassociation theory?

A

the separation of control and behaviour

157
Q

What is social-cognitive theory?

A

You have knowledge about how you are supposed to behave within the social context and so you do them

158
Q

what is mind wandering?

A

the unintentional redirection of attention towards something else

159
Q

what is the default mode network?

A

a collection of brain regions (medial prefrontal cortex, posterior cingulate gyrus, medial + lateral regions of parietal lobe)
- Most active when someone is awake but are not responding to external stimuli

160
Q

If activity in region a and region b tend to go up and down together they are considered a ____ because:

A

network

their activity is correlated and have connection to one another

161
Q

what is priming?

A

the idea that something external will effect your brain in such a way that your behaviour or perception is affected below the level of conscious awareness

162
Q

What does priming impact?

A

memory recall and recognition

163
Q

What does it mean to say that memory is mental state dependent?

A

feeling negative triggers the activation of other negatives and vice versa

164
Q

What is psychopharmocology?

A

The study of drug effects on the central nervous system, as well as on human behaviour

165
Q

How is psychopharmacology a tool in understanding neurotransmitters?

A
  • Alters the rate of action potential (either increase or decrease) by manipulating ions
  • Alteration in neuronal function
166
Q

True or false: neurotransmitter functions can be unrelated. Why or why not

A

true

There are different types of receptors, but they may use the same neurotransmitter

167
Q

Dopamine functions in the:

A

retina

168
Q

_____ is the most abundant and important neurotransmitter in the brain

A

Glutamate

169
Q

glutamate production is affected by what common product?

A

alcohol

170
Q

____ is Used by hippocampus to convert memory from short term to long-term

A

glutamate

171
Q

Which neurotransmitter turns on breaks when there is too much activity

A

GABA

172
Q

____ targets mew receptor

A

Endorphins

173
Q

_____ target Delta receptor

A

enkaphalins

174
Q

_____ target Kappa receptors

A

dimorphins

175
Q

Why can dopamine not be packaged in a pill?

A

it is highly unstable and degrades rapidly

176
Q

What effect on neurotransmitter production can drugs have?

A

can be given a precursor to initiate production

177
Q

how may drugs effect the storage and release of neurotransmitters?

A

they are packaged up so that they are not destroyed in the terminal should there be a breach

More release - amphetamine. gets transmitters out faster

178
Q

what effect can drugs have on receptors?

A

can create something that looks similar enough to a transmitter, but is off enough to prevent it from working

179
Q

Neurotransmitters are released and bind but they do not stay there forever because:

A

otherwise there would be a seizure

180
Q

what is reuptake?

A

a neurotransmitter is reused

181
Q

how does reuptake work?

A

keeps a neurotransmitter around longer, causing it to activate the receptor more

182
Q

how does destruction work?

(drug effects)

A

prevents the enzyme from destroying the neurotransmitters immediately

183
Q

if something ends in “-ase” is is what

A

an enzyme most likely

184
Q

what is a stimulant?

A

increases action potentials

185
Q

what is a depressant?

A

decreases action potentials

186
Q

what is an antagonist?

A

drug that works against what a neurotransmitter is to do on the postsynaptic cell

187
Q

what is an agonist?

A

drug that works towards and facilitates what the neurotransmitter does on the postsynaptic cell

188
Q

True or false: Antagonism and Agonism impact rate of action potentials

A

false

189
Q

Agonist (+) for excititory (+) =

(stimulant or depressant)

A

Stimulant (+)

190
Q
  • Agonist (+) for inhibitory (-) =

(stimulant or depressant)

A

depressant (-)

191
Q
  • Antagonist (-) for excititory (+) =

(stimulant or depressant)

A

depressant (-)

192
Q

Antagonist (-) for inhibitory (-) =

(stimulant or depressant)

A

stimulant (+)

193
Q

What is a natural ligand?

A

a neurotransmitter

194
Q

what are the two forms of competitive binding?

A

Direct agonist and direct antagonist

195
Q

what is a direct agonist?

A

Binds to receptor instead of neurotransmitter, but activates it and functions as a straight substitute

196
Q

What is a direct antagonist?

A
  • binds to receptor but does not activate it
  • prevents natural Ligand from binding -> may change the receptor form to prevent binding
197
Q

what are the two forms on non-competitive binding?

A

indirect agonist and indirect antagonist

198
Q

what is an indirect agonist?

A
  • binds to a site on the receptor that is not being completed for and does not interfere
  • same receptor, different locations -> working together
199
Q

what is an indirect antagonist?

A

Indirect agonist: binds to a binding site that isn’t being completed for and changes the receptor in such a way that when the ligand binds it can no longer do anything

200
Q

what is an autoreceptor?

A

receptor for the same thing the terminal is releasing. They monitor how much transmitter is in the synaptic gap and regulates release -> negative feedback loops

201
Q

what do transporters do?

A

bring in the neurotransmitter

202
Q

what is enzymatic breakdown?

A

destroys neurotransmitters

203
Q

what is pharmacokinetics?

A

Process which drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolised, and excreted
* Drugs may interact and affect pharmacokinetics of other drugs

204
Q

what is liquid solubility?

A

the ability to absorb in fat

205
Q

what is Alcohol Dehydrogenase?

A

enzyme that breaks down alcohol

206
Q

what does acetaldehyde do?

A

increases anxiety. it is an unpleasant experience. if it builds up it means you have an alcohol allergy

207
Q

what is metabolic tolerance

A

when your enzyme production is impacted to increase efficiency in breaking things down

208
Q

what is Disulfiram (Antabuse)

A

it prevents reward of drinking by making it a miserable experience if taken prior to drinking

209
Q

what is Cytochrome P4503A4 present in?

A

grapefruit juice

210
Q

changing the metabolism of a drug essentially does what?

A

alters the dose of the drug

211
Q

what is theopholine?

A

stimulant in black tea

212
Q

what is fractional anistrophy?

A

the ratio of fluid moving down the length of the axon vs out

213
Q

what is N-acetylaspartate?

A

neuronal marker of cell activity

214
Q

Habituation + sensitisation =

A

non-associative learning

215
Q

what is habituation?

A

used to it

216
Q

what is sensitisation?

A

more responsive

217
Q

true or false: tolerance impacts withdrawl

A

false. you can become more tolerant (habituated) but have more withdrawal (sensitisation)

218
Q

what is contiguity?

A

The mind connects events in a sequence

219
Q

True or false: extra info is unimportant in classical conditioning

A

true

220
Q

In _____ conditioning, behaviour is irrelevant to the outcome

A

classical

221
Q

Neutral stimulus is paired with stimulus that evokes reflex, and eventually what happens:

A

the neutral stimulus will produce the response itself

222
Q

what did pavlov ask about dogs ?

A

why dogs salivate before eating

223
Q

why do dogs salivate before eating?

A

they were preparing to eat. it is a reflex response

224
Q

what is an unconditioned stimulus?

A

a stimulus that triggers a response on biological reflex. It is unlearned.

225
Q

what is an unconditioned response?

A

the auto response triggered by the unconditioned stimulus

226
Q

what is a conditioned stimulus?

A

when a stimulus that was previously neutral becomes associated with a UCR

227
Q

what is a conditioned response?

A

the response triggered by the previously neutral stimulus

228
Q

Is the conditioned response more or less than the natural response?

A

it may be less

229
Q

why are conditioned responses sometimes opposite?

A

because they are based on preparation and what is best to prepare for the situation

230
Q

what is conditioned tolerance?

A

body adjusts to prepare for drug, creating a bump

231
Q

why should you not alter location of drug injection?

A

Changing the location of a drug means your body cannot prepare like it is used to and can cause overdose

232
Q

what is constancy?

A

the proportion to which the prediction is tru

233
Q

Prediction is based on ______. the more constancy the less ______

A

surprise

234
Q

what is spontaneous recovery?

A

an extinguished conditioned response reappears after a rest period

235
Q

what causes spontaneous recovery?

A

checking in just in case takes a minimal amount of effort. it is the acknowledgement that the world is dynamic and things can change

236
Q

true or false: memory is involved in producing spontaneous recovery

A

false

237
Q

true or false: the efficiency of spontaneous recovery does not stager

A

false. it becomes less efficient the more you do it

238
Q

what is generalisation?

A

stimuli similar to the conditioned stimuli will evoke a similar response

239
Q

what is discrimination?

A

ability to tell the difference between a conditioned stimulus and other, unrelated stimuli

240
Q

true or false: you can impact discrimination during the acquisition phase

A

true

241
Q

true or false: you can have classical conditioning without knowing the variable/cue

A

true

242
Q

what is operant conditioning?

A

learned based on response as opposed to being based on the stimulus

243
Q

The organism must perform the response in order to achieve the outcome during which type of conditioning?

A

operant

244
Q

The Law of Effect (Thorndike) is the idea that:

A

favourable consequences increase in likelihood and those with unfavourable consequences decrease in likelihood

245
Q

thorndikes techniques were refined by who?

A

b.f. skinner

246
Q

Learning which behaviour is strengthened (reinforced) and which is diminished (punished) is which type of conditioning?

A

operant

247
Q

why do cognitive psychologists not like b.f. skinner?

A

he essentially banned cognitive psych for a while. There was a period of time in which psychologists were not allowed to think about thinking, and this is largely due to Skinner as he was very opposed to introspection

248
Q

B.F. Skinner brought what to the scene

A

precision

249
Q

what is operant behaviour?

A

complex “voluntary”* behaviours

*voluntarily means you are aware of consciously and make decisions about actively. You can use operant conditioning on things that you are not aware of however as there are many cues you are not conscious of

250
Q

Operant behaviour involves operating on ____ which then changes as a consequence

A

the environment

251
Q

true or false: both Classical Conditioning and Operant Conditioning involve an organism doing stuff

A

true, the role is different however

252
Q

what is the role of behaviour in classical conditioning?

A

it prepares for what they expect to happen, but it does not effect the outcome

253
Q

what is the role of behaviour in operant conditioning?

A

if the behaviour doesn’t occur the outcome doesn’t either

254
Q

what is a reinforcer?

A

an event that strengthens the behaviour that it follows

255
Q

what is a primary reinforcer?

A

Things that you do not need to learn about. stimuli are innately reinforced due to biological need

256
Q

what is a conditioned reinforcer?

A

things that have been learned as being reinforcers as they are built upon primary reinforcers and have an association created

257
Q

what is a discriminitive stimulus?

A

There are situations in which a behaviour will result in a reinforcer. A discriminative stimulus signals that this schedule is in effect

258
Q

Over time ______ may occur where a stimulus and response become assocaiated independent of the original reinforcer

A

habit learning

259
Q

A behaviour that may seem odd or bad is assumed to have been what?

A

reinforced at some point in time, and that effect remains even if it is no longer enforced

260
Q

positive reinforcement is:

A

adding something good

261
Q

negative reinforcement is:

A

taking something good

262
Q

positive punishment is:

A

adding something bad

263
Q

negative punishment is:

A

taking something good

264
Q

what is acquisition?

A

the initial stage of learning

265
Q

what is extinction?

A

diminishes the response because the organism gives up after repeated lack of reinforcemen

266
Q

what is shaping?

A

conditioning procedure that guides behaviour in the direction of the goal gradually

267
Q

what is continuous reinforement?

A

reinforced every time it occurs

268
Q

what is partial reinforcement?

A

rewards only some responses

269
Q

what is a fixed ratio schedule?

A

Reinforced only after a specified number of responses

270
Q

why are responses high on a ratio schedule?

A

the more responses you make the more outcomes you receive thus you want to do it more

271
Q

what is a variable ratio schedule?

A

Reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses

272
Q

what is a variable ratio scale harder to have extinction than a fixed ratio?

A

the unpredictability means it is harder to stop because you never know if something is wrong since it isn’t a fixed number

273
Q

what is a fixed interval schedule?

A

Reinforced response only occurs after a fixed amount of time, no matter how many responses occur in between

Note: It does not mean you get the reinforcer every time without doing anything. the response is still required as it is operant conditioning

274
Q

what happens to responses on a fixed interval schedule?

A

they increase in frequency when the anticipated time grows near

275
Q

what is a variable interval schedule?

A

Reinforced after an unpredictable amount of time each time

276
Q

what happens to responses on a variable interval schedule?

A

they are slow and steady

277
Q

what is a post-reinforcement pause and why does it occur

A

after a reinforcer there is a brief pause where they will not respond on a fixed schedule. Pauses indicate how reliable the schedule is

278
Q

what is the difference between escape and avoidance?

A

escape is when you have contact with something unpleasant and get away from it.

avoidance is when you do not have contact with something unpleasant at all. -> may be taking measures to prevent having to have contact with it

279
Q

There is a transition from positive punishment to escape, to avoidance. this is how ___ develop

A

phobias

280
Q

why does spontaneous recovery not work on phobias?

A

because your fear is a reinforcer and everytime you avoid the thing you reinforce that fear

281
Q

exposure therapy is also called:

A

flooding

282
Q

why does flooding not work

A

own fear is a punishment even if the stimulus is fine to others. it thus is not very effective as the exposure is punishment itself

283
Q

what is systematic desensitisation?

A
  • Creates a list of stimuli from least fearful to most fearful about the phobia
    • Teach them to relax while gradually moving up from least to most
284
Q

what is latent learning?

A

hidden learning. learning that is there but not shown without there being a reason to show it

285
Q

what is retrospective revaluation?

A

organisms will modify their response based on association

286
Q

what are concepts?

A

mental representation of the category you form

287
Q

what is family resemblance?

A

similarity to other members of the category

288
Q

true or false: categorisation is static

A

false, it changed based on new info

289
Q

what are artificial neuronetworks

A

connections based on trials. There are no rules

290
Q

what are the three levels to the hierachy of catergorisation

A

superordinate, basic, subordinate

291
Q

what is a schema

A

the framework and structure (set of ideas, thoughts, etc) expected of the category

292
Q

what is a prototype?

A

in the mind there is a particular image of what the category is

293
Q

how does prototype categorisation work?

A

every time you see something your brain calculates how close it is to the prototype

294
Q

how does exemplar categorisation work?

A

every memory of the category is activated and an average is created and compared. if it is close to the average then it is categorised

295
Q

what is typicality?

A

how close to a prototypical item is within a category

296
Q

Things that are associated and fit pre-existing knowledge are easier to remember. this is called:

A

rational cohesion

297
Q

what is judgement?

A

form an opinion and make critical evaluations

298
Q

what is decision making?

A

making a choice between alternatives. based on judgement but can be seperated (ie by flipping a coin)

299
Q

what is deductive reasoning?

A

start off with a piece of information about a general premise and move down to a specific fact

ie: a new animal is a mammal -> deduce that it is warm blooded as mammals are usually warm blooded

300
Q

what is inductive reasoning?

A

collect facts and make inductions about the general premise

  • scientific methodology is inductive
301
Q

what are heuristics?

A

shortcuts

302
Q

what is bounded rationality?

A

there are limits to rationality depending on time and effort. humans take short cuts about limited info to make decisions thus they are not always rational

303
Q

what is belief bias?

A

Pre-existing beliefs distort ones reasoning, whether the conclusion is reasonable or not. It makes invalid conclusions appear valid and vice versa

304
Q

what is cognitive dissonance?

A

adjust beliefs in order to not feel bad about yourself

305
Q

what is availability heuristics?

A

likelihood based on memory. if it comes to mind easily it is assumed that it is common which is not always true

306
Q

what is reprisentitiveness heuristics?

A

judgement based on how close it is to the prototype. ignores other information such as the base rate (probability in the general population)

307
Q

what is contemplative science?

A

research area concerned with understanding how contemplative practices such as
meditation can affect individuals

308
Q

what is the basis of dualism?

A

mental and physical are, in essence, different substances

309
Q

what is motion induced blindness?

A

bright discs completely vanish from your
awareness

310
Q

what is perceptual priming?

A

a type of memory that does not entail the conscious experience of remembering. found in amnesia

311
Q

damage to which brain region can cause distorted body awareness?

A

the temporoparietal junction

312
Q

the primary function of consciousness is theorised to be to allow us to what

A

predict our own behaviour

313
Q

what is first person perspective?

A

Observations made by individuals about their own conscious experiences

314
Q

what is third person perspective?

A

Observations made by individuals in a way that can be independently confirmed by other individuals so as to lead to general, objective understanding.

315
Q

what is mindfulness?

A

a state of higher consciousness that includes an awareness of the thoughts
passing through one’s head

316
Q

what is the cost and the benefit of low awareness?

A

cost: influenced by subtle factors
benefit: saves mental effort

317
Q

what is the cost and the benefit of high awareness?

A

cost: uses mental effort
benefit: can uncover biases

318
Q

what did Mesmer attribute the cause of hypnosis to?

A

“animal magnetism,” a supposed universal force within the human body

319
Q

hypnosis is a mental state characterized by
reduced _____ and increased _____

A

peripheral awareness

focus on a singular stimulus

320
Q

what is disassocation?

A

separation of one’s awareness from everything besides what one is centrally focused on. a disconnect between one’s awareness of their environment and the
one object the person is focusing on

321
Q

true or false: hypnosis can reduce pain

A

true. a study found those with the placebo experienced a 16% reduction in pain, however those with the actual reatment expereiced an only 50% reduction

322
Q

why is a trance state different from a hypnotised state?

A

a trance state someone has less voluntary control over their behaviours and actions

323
Q

what are hallucinogens?

A

substances that alter a person’s perceptions, often by creating visions or hallucinations that are not real

324
Q

what are the three categories of drugs?

A

hallucinogens, stimulants, and depressants

325
Q

what is the flexible correction model?

A

the ability for people to correct or change their beliefs and evaluations if they believe these judgments have been biased

326
Q

drugs that change the way you think or feel are called:

A

psychoactive or psychotropic drugs

327
Q

True or false: drugs work solely where they are wanted to in the brain

A

false

328
Q

what does ADME stand for?

A

Absorption (how it gets into the blood)

Distribution (how to gets to the intended organ)

Metabolism (how it is broken down)

Excretion (how it leaves)

329
Q

How does oral administation work?

A

enter the stomach and then get absorbed into the blood stream

330
Q

true or false: mental illnesses contribute to more disability in western countries than all other illnesses

A

true

331
Q

what is polypharmacy?

A

the usage of multiple drugs

332
Q

what is it called when you consume too much of something and thus begin to strongly dislike the taste?

A

taste-aversion conditioning

333
Q

true or false: overdose is not typically due to an increase in dosage

A

true. the associated cues are important and if those are missing the body is not able to properly prepare

334
Q

what is blocking?

A

learns to associate stimulus A with an unconditioned stimulus. then a stimulus B is paired with stimulus A and then stimulus A is removed. Stimulus B alone does not elicit a response because stimulus A blocked the conditioning of stimulus B

335
Q

True or false: extinction undoes all the initial learning

A

false

336
Q

what is the renewal effect?

A

after extinction, the conditioned stimulus is tested in a new context (such as a new location). when this occurs, the conditioned response may also return

337
Q

what is the stimulus that controls the operant behaviour called?

A

the discriminitive stimulus

338
Q

what can make reinforcer devaluation ineffective

A

if habit learning has already occured

339
Q

what are the four phases of observational laearning?

A
  1. attention
  2. retention
  3. initiation
  4. motivation
340
Q

a conditioned response that opposes, rather than is the same as, the unconditioned response is called:

A

Conditioned compensatory response

341
Q

what is social learing theory?

A

The theory that people can learn new responses and behaviours by observing the behaviour of others

342
Q

what is vicarous reinforcement?

A

learning that occurs by observing the reinforcement or punishment of another person

343
Q

when we exhibit changes in behavior without having intended to learn something, that is called:

A

implicit learning

344
Q

what is working memory?

A

the form of memory we use to hold onto information temporarily

345
Q

what is metacognition?

A

the knowledge and skills people have in monitoring and controlling their own
learning and memory

346
Q

what is retrieval failure?

A

not being able to remember a piece of information that you know and know you know

347
Q

a set of objects that can be treated as equivalent in some way is

A

a category

348
Q

signs of essentialism include: (3)

A

1) objects are believed to be either in or out of the category, with no in-between

2) resistance to change of category membership or of properties
connected to the essence

3) for living things, the essence is passed on to progeny

349
Q

The belief that members of a category have an unseen property that causes them to be in the category and to have the properties associated with it

A

psychological essentialism

350
Q

what is anchoring?

A

When we are making decisions, any initial anchor (starting point) that we face is likely to influence our judgments, even if the anchor is arbitrary. That is, we insufficiently adjust our judgments away from the anchor

351
Q

The systematic ways in which we fail to notice obvious and important information that is available to us

A

bounded awareness

352
Q

bounded ethicality is

A

The systematic ways in which our ethics are limited in ways we are not even aware of ourselves

353
Q

The systematic and predictable ways in which we care about the outcomes of others

A

bounded self interest

354
Q

bounded willpower is

A

The tendency to place greater weight on present concerns rather than future concerns

355
Q

The bias to be systematically affected by the way in which information is presented, while
holding the objective information constant

A

framing

356
Q

Our intuitive decision-making system, which is typically fast, automatic, effortless, implicit, and emotional

A

system 1

357
Q

more careful and time taken. rational thinking. this is called:

A

system 2

358
Q

true or false: people don’t actively make a lot of decisions

A

true

359
Q

what is nativist theory?

A

the idea that language is discovered as opposed to being learned. you are born with a specialised structure to learn language when young which then degrades with age

360
Q

structural ambiguity

A

the same sentence can have different meanings. there is no guarantee on which way the listener will interpret it

361
Q

what are pragmatics?

A

the use of language in context and the tools used to convey a message (ie. sarcasm, tone of voice, interrupting, gestures used, etc) beyond the actual words used

362
Q

what is linguistic determinism?

A

hypothesis that language determines what you think because if you do not have words it is very hard to think about something

Psychology-1000 (7 decks)

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