Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Subjective Awareness is made up of: [4]
A
Thoughts
Perceptions
Experiences of the world
Self-awareness
2
Q
What are the two aspects of consciousness?
A
It is a general state of mind and the access to contents of the mind, it is also the things currently being worked on/thought about in your head
3
Q
Examples of conscious experiences are: [4]
A
Visual Perception
Memory
Body Awareness
Decision Making
4
Q
What is self-awareness?
A
the consideration of one’s own thought and their awareness of themselves as an independent agent that makes decision
5
Q
True or False: Decision making is a fully conscious process
A
False
6
Q
True or false: psychological study does not rely on what is thought to be true or not
A
True. It is what psychological methods are applicable to and can be studied
7
Q
What is the mark Test?
A
A (non-human) subject is sleeping or under anaesthetic while a red mark is placed on their forehead. There are then exposed to a mirror
8
Q
During the mark Test, if the subject points to their forehead they are believed to be:
A
self aware
9
Q
During the mark Test, if the subject points towards the mirror they are believed to be:
A
not self aware
10
Q
How is self awareness in rats tested?
A
A 4 lever operant chamber in which the lever will release a food pellet if it corresponds with what the rat was doing at the time a buzzer sounds off
11
Q
What are nonconscious processes?
A
autonomic functions
12
Q
What does discrimination mean in psychology?
A
Can you tell one thing from another
13
Q
What are pre-conscious memories
A
memories called upon when triggered
14
Q
What are the 4 categories that awareness can be broken into?
A
Non-conscious processes
Pre-conscious memories
Unattended Information
Unconscious
15
Q
What is unattended Information?
A
Stuff happening in the world around you that you are not focused on or paying attention to
16
Q
What is unconscious in terms of the category of self-awareness?
A
processes you are not aware of that impacts your behaviour (something like trauma that you are not actively thinking about, but that is also not currently happening in the world)
17
Q
What is cortical Blindness?
A
Extensive damage to the primary visual cortex that eliminates sight completely, but their retinas are still intact
Some completely blind individuals can guess things (such as location or shape of an object) at higher rates than chance
18
Q
True or false: With cortical Blindness, the participant is aware of what is happening
A
False. To the participant, they are truly just making a guess as consciously they have no experience of vision. The Phenomena that allows them to guess at rates higher than chance is unconscious and they do not know about it
19
Q
What causes cortical Blindness?
A
90% of neurons carry info from the eyes to the primary visual cortex via the thalamus, however 10% take a different pathway through the extrastriatal pathway and end up in the superia collictulus
20
Q
What did Damasio and Bechara examine?
A
decision making in patients with damage to prefrontal cortex vs those without
21
Q
What is probabilistic decision making?
A
The idea that you are going to make a decision about something and an outcome with there being a level of uncertainty
22
Q
What was the use of skin conductance by Damasia and Bechora?
A
Skin conductance responses were related to the participant “knowing” the outcome. It indicates stress or anxiety
23
Q
What is the Iowa Gambling task?
A
Two good decks and two bad decks used by Damasia and Bechora to study decision making
Flip over cards that have either a win or a loss
24
Q
What is the pre-punishment phase
(Iowa Gambling task)
A
Participant has not yet encountered a loss and thus do not have enough information yet
25
What is the pre-hunch phase
(Iowa Gambling task)
Participant has no Idea what is going on
26
What is the hunch phase
(Iowa Gambling task)
The participant knows that there is something up but does not yet know what
27
What is the conceptual phase
(Iowa Gambling task)
the participant understands what is going on
28
What did the Iowa Gambling task reveal?
Participants figure things out subconsciously before consciously thinking about it
29
What is think-aloud protocol?
When participants report their thoughts while undergoing the task
30
What is the experience sampling method?
signals from device to report that people are thinking and feeling in the moment
31
What does experience sampling prevent?
Selective memory
if something bad happens they may focus on the bad things and forget the positive or vice versa, experience sampling prevents this
32
How does consciousness impact survival? (4)
Consciousness helps to adapt to the environment.
It restricts stimuli to what is important
It selectively remembers information that is relevant and important
It helps with practical planning
33
What is the difference between a circadian rhythm and an ultradian rhythms?
circadian happens once every 24 hours, ultradian happens more than once per cycle
34
What is wakefulness?
How awake (or not) you are
35
What is awareness?
The monitoring of information from the environment (externally and in head) and how whether or not you know what is going on
36
Conscious Wakefulness is ___ awareness and ___ wakefulness
(low/high)
High, High
37
Lucid dreaming is ___ awareness and ___ wakefulness
(low/high)
high, low (ish)
38
Vegetative state is ___ awareness and ___ wakefulness
low, high
39
Loss of awareness and wakefulness is called ____
a coma
40
Why is it hard to get someone out of a coma
The lack of awareness. They will not feel something like a knife
41
When do you have high levels of control of dream contents?
Lucid dreams
42
A lucid dream is when:
you are asleep and dreaming, but are aware you are dreaming
43
A vegetative state is when:
brain looks awake but there is no indication that the person can understand
44
What is locked-in syndrome
A disorder in which a patient is awake and aware but is unable to move
45
What are the three categories on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
Eye opening response, Verbal response, Motor response
46
On the Glasgow Coma Scale, a score of 13-15 indicates a ___ brain injury
(minor, moderate, or severe)
Minor
47
On the Glasgow Coma Scale, a score of 9-12 indicates a ___ brain injury
(minor, moderate, or severe)
Moderate
48
On the Glasgow Coma Scale, a score of 3-8 indicates a ___ brain injury
(minor, moderate, or severe)
Severe
49
What is a circadian rhythm
daily cycle of 24 hours
50
What does the circadian rhythm effect?
physiological and behavioural processes
51
What is the superchiasmatic nucleus and where is it located
It is a collection of cells bodies in the hypothalamus
52
Melotonin is produced by what
Darkness
53
What is entrainment?
external cues like light, and temperate
54
What is the endogenous rhythm?
generated by the body independent of external cues
55
The circadian rhythm is controlled by what two factors?
Entrainment and endogenous rhythm
56
What two things work together to regulate the circadian rhythm?
The superchiasmatic nucleus in the hypothalamus and pineal gland
57
why does body temperature drops during sleep?
conserve energy
58
True or false: sleep deprivation does not effect memory retention
false
59
Sleep is a ___ and ___ ____ of consciousness
periodic, reversible loss
60
What does sleep mean in Latin?
little death
61
different forms of brain activity in stages that operate under ____
ultradian rhythms
62
REM sleep looks close to____in terms of brain waves
awake
63
what do sleep spindles do
memory locking in light sleep, storing them
64
true or false: sleep stages are fixed in length
false. You get more and more REM the farther into the cycle
64
remembering dreams means what
woken up during REM -> light sleeper
65
What was the original name for REM sleep
paradoxical sleep
66
What stage do you lose muscle tone in?
REM
67
What type of waves are present while awake?
Beta
68
What type of waves are present while awake but drowsy
Alpha
69
What type of waves are present during the three NREM stages (2)
Theta and delta
70
What is the restore and Repair hypothesis
Amends the wear and tear of the day (moving but also thinking), and clears out the toxins while asleep
71
Does what you did in a day impact how much sleep you need according to the restore and Repair hypothesis?
No. Amount of needed sleep has no relation to how much sleep you "should" need based on days activities
72
What is the preserve and protect hypothesis
Preserving energy and protecting from harm
73
True or false: pain is related to damage
True. the more something hurts, the more damage it is assumed to be doing
74
True or false: state of mind impacts pain
True. it impacts how the sensory experience is rated (but not the unpleasantness)
75
Which neurotransmitter is produced in multiple parts of the brain (but not everywhere)
Acetylcholine
76
True or false: Acetylcholine is involved in both movement and pain
False. Only muscle movement
77
Why does smoking make people age faster?
Acetylcholine in the nicotonic receptors contract muscles, including those in the face - causing wrinkles
78
What function does nicotine help to regulate?
Heartrate
79
What is the type of drops that optometrists put in your eyes and why?
Atropine drops because it inhibits acetylcholine (which constricts pupils)
80
A drug that serves as a precursor is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
agonist
81
A drug that prevents storage of neurotransmitters in the vesicles is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
antagonist
82
a drug that stimulates the release of neurotransmitters is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
agonist
83
a drug that inhibits the release of neurotransmitters is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
antagonist
84
a drug that stimulates the post-synaptic receptors is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
agonist
85
a drug that blocks the post-synaptic receptors is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
antagonist
86
a drug that inactivates the synthetic enzyme is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
antagonist
87
a drug that stimulates autoreceptors is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
antagonist
88
a drug that blocks autoreceptors is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
agonist
89
a drug that blocks reuptake is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
agonist
90
a drug that inactivates acetylcholinestrase is a:
(agonist or antagonist)
agonist
91
The S1 is the:
primary somatosensory cortex
92
The S2 is the:
association somatosensory
93
The AMY is the:
amygdala
94
the BG is the:
basal ganglia
95
what is the basal ganglia?
output from the substantia nagra
96
What is the PAG responsible for?
pain processing
97
____ manipulation effects pain processing
cognitive
98
ACC decreases ___ and ____, but increases ____
Decreases FA (fractional anistropy) and opioids
Increases inflammation
99
PFC decreases ____, ____, and ____, and increases ____
Decreases FA (fractional anistropy, NAA ( N-acetylaspartate) and opioids
Increases inflammation
100
IC decreases ___, ____, and ____
Decreases FA (fractional anistropy, NAA ( N-acetylaspartate) and opioids
101
What happens to car accident rates after spring daylight savings?
They immediately go up and slowly return to baseline
102
What happens to car accident rates after fall daylight savings?
They immediately decrease and then slowly go back up to baseline
103
Based on the trend seen with fall daylight savings time and car accidents, what assumption can be made about the general populace?
Most people are sleep deprived by default
104
What are the two main causes of sleep deprivation?
Sleep Displacement and jet lag
105
What is sleep Displacement?
a shifted sleep schedule to be later or earlier than the normal time
106
If you go to bed two hours later but set your alarm to go off two hours later, does that still cause sleep deprivation? why or why not
Yes, while it looks on paper like you are getting the same amount of sleep you actually are not as the quality of sleep suffers. The reason you are going to sleep later also has an effect as it dictates how long it will take you to fall asleep
107
What is jet lag?
mismatch between circadian rhythm and external cues
108
What is a common experience that may cause jet lag?
Night shift
109
Which theory of dreaming did Freud advocate for?
Psycho-analytic
110
What are the two main theories of Dreaming called?
The psycho-analytic perspective and the Activation-Synthesis perspective
111
What is the psycho-analytic perspective?
Dreams lift the lid to let off some steam so that the ID can be satisfied and doesn't overflow. They are a window into the subconscious
112
Under the psycho-analytic perspective what are the two things that make up dreams?
Manifest content and latent content
113
True or false: classical conditioning does not involves organisms doing stuff
False. Like operant conditioning, the organism still does stuff, however the role is different
114
What is the difference between exemplar categorisation and prototype categorisation
prototype is based on one thing, exemplar is not
115
What is manifest content?
the images and story lines we dream about. The stuff that is not hidden and that you remember
116
what is latent content?
the potential content. It is the symbolic and deeper meaning of your dreams, hidden within the manifest content. Believed to primarily be made up of sexual and aggressive urges
117
what is dream work?
the translation of manifest content to latent content conducted by "experts" who tell you what things mean and symbolise
118
What is the activation-synthesis theory?
the idea that dreams arise from brain activity in REM sleep when there is a burst of exciting images from the Pons (part of the brain stem)
119
according to activation-synthesis, why do dreams take the form that they do?
the brain likes to make things into a story that is semi-realistic
120
which cognitive functions does REM sleep impact?
planning and memory
121
What is the prevalence of insomnia?
13% in canada
122
What is insomnia?
chronic failure to get adequate sleep
123
What are the three forms of insomnia?
Onset insomnia
Maintenance insomnia
Terminal insomnia
124
What is onset insomnia?
difficulty falling asleep (30 minutes or more)
125
what is maintenance insomnia?
frequent wakeups during the night
126
what is terminal insomnia?
waking up too early and being unable to go back to sleep
127
Insomnia that is the result of other diagnosed problems is called:
secondary insomnia
128
What is narcolepsy?
the compulsion to fall asleep at inappropriate times. they go straight into REM sleep
129
True or false: narcolepsy is related to level of boredom
false. some peoples can be triggered by excitement
130
What is believed to be the cause of narcolepsy?
lack of the neurotransmitter (orexin - since renamed to hypocretin) that also stimulates eating
131
What is cataplexy?
the loss of muscle tone
132
What is the treatment for narcolpesy?
stimulants
133
What are night terrors?
Appears to be awake but are unresponsive to external stimuli (such as a parent trying to soothe the child)
134
True or false: night terrors negatively impact the person experiencing them
False. Children tend to not remember it and they do not wake up more tired than normal either
135
True or false: night terrors are when you are living out your dreams
false. they occur during NREM sleep, not REM where dreams take place
136
What is restless leg syndrome?
a persistent feeling of discomfort in legs and the consistent need to shift them and readjust. You do not feel pain, it is just uncomfortable
137
What is somnambulism?
Sleep walking. someone leaves their bed and wanders around while still asleep
138
What is sleep apnea?
A hormonal response that causes some one to wake up repeatedly throughout the night in order to catch breath as there is a lack of oxygen intake
139
What are the two types of sleep apnea?
obstructive and central
140
What is obstructive sleep apnea?
A blockage of the pathways
141
What is central sleep apnea?
no issue with the airway but the brain is convinced there is a problem
142
Sleeping on your back is worse than on your side when you have:
Sleep apnea
143
What is hypnotism?
loss of control over their own behaviour, thoughts, and/or feelings
144
What are the three things that impact hypnotic susceptibility?
openness to suggestion and experience, how much one can focus inwardly, and the ability to become absorbed by imagination (how much can you become absorbed by a book or movie for example)
145
What are ideomotor suggestions?
specific actions performed by the person being hypnotised
146
What are challenge suggestions?
actions that are not performed. cannot use a body part as there is a loss of ability to do so
147
What are cognitive-perceptive suggestions?
-remembering or forgetting specific information
-Altered perceptions (such as pain)
148
What is The Stanford Hypnotic Susceptibility Scale (developed by Hilgard)
a series of tasks performed under hypnosis from easiest to hardest
149
what is Posthypnotic Amnesia
the supposed inability to recall what was experienced while undergoing hypnosis
150
what is the Hypnotic Induction Profile
How much the whites of your eye is visible if you roll them back as far as you can in your head
151
True or false: you can find out how hypnotisable you are by the whites of your eyes
True. The more you see the more hypnotisable you are according to the hypnotic induction profile
152
Hypnosis is based on the interaction between unconscious thoughts and behaviour (automatic) and _____
the supervisory system
153
What is an example of the supervisory system?
language
154
Why is language a part of the supervisory system?
you do not think about each individual word, rather you think about what you want to convey and then the words come
155
What is disassociation theory?
The idea that consciousness is divided into two systems: a lower level system (perception and movement), and a higher level (executive) system (evaluates and monitors behaviour)
156
Why is it called disassociation theory?
the separation of control and behaviour
157
What is social-cognitive theory?
You have knowledge about how you are supposed to behave within the social context and so you do them
158
what is mind wandering?
the unintentional redirection of attention towards something else
159
what is the default mode network?
a collection of brain regions (medial prefrontal cortex, posterior cingulate gyrus, medial + lateral regions of parietal lobe)
- Most active when someone is awake but are not responding to external stimuli
160
If activity in region a and region b tend to go up and down together they are considered a ____ because:
network
their activity is correlated and have connection to one another
161
what is priming?
the idea that something external will effect your brain in such a way that your behaviour or perception is affected below the level of conscious awareness
162
What does priming impact?
memory recall and recognition
163
What does it mean to say that memory is mental state dependent?
feeling negative triggers the activation of other negatives and vice versa
164
What is psychopharmocology?
The study of drug effects on the central nervous system, as well as on human behaviour
165
How is psychopharmacology a tool in understanding neurotransmitters?
- Alters the rate of action potential (either increase or decrease) by manipulating ions
- Alteration in neuronal function
166
True or false: neurotransmitter functions can be unrelated. Why or why not
true
There are different types of receptors, but they may use the same neurotransmitter
167
Dopamine functions in the:
retina
168
_____ is the most abundant and important neurotransmitter in the brain
Glutamate
169
glutamate production is affected by what common product?
alcohol
170
____ is Used by hippocampus to convert memory from short term to long-term
glutamate
171
Which neurotransmitter turns on breaks when there is too much activity
GABA
172
____ targets mew receptor
Endorphins
173
_____ target Delta receptor
enkaphalins
174
_____ target Kappa receptors
dimorphins
175
Why can dopamine not be packaged in a pill?
it is highly unstable and degrades rapidly
176
What effect on neurotransmitter production can drugs have?
can be given a precursor to initiate production
177
how may drugs effect the storage and release of neurotransmitters?
they are packaged up so that they are not destroyed in the terminal should there be a breach
More release - amphetamine. gets transmitters out faster
178
what effect can drugs have on receptors?
can create something that looks similar enough to a transmitter, but is off enough to prevent it from working
179
Neurotransmitters are released and bind but they do not stay there forever because:
otherwise there would be a seizure
180
what is reuptake?
a neurotransmitter is reused
181
how does reuptake work?
keeps a neurotransmitter around longer, causing it to activate the receptor more
182
how does destruction work?
(drug effects)
prevents the enzyme from destroying the neurotransmitters immediately
183
if something ends in "-ase" is is what
an enzyme most likely
184
what is a stimulant?
increases action potentials
185
what is a depressant?
decreases action potentials
186
what is an antagonist?
drug that works against what a neurotransmitter is to do on the postsynaptic cell
187
what is an agonist?
drug that works towards and facilitates what the neurotransmitter does on the postsynaptic cell
188
True or false: Antagonism and Agonism impact rate of action potentials
false
189
Agonist (+) for excititory (+) =
(stimulant or depressant)
Stimulant (+)
190
- Agonist (+) for inhibitory (-) =
(stimulant or depressant)
depressant (-)
191
- Antagonist (-) for excititory (+) =
(stimulant or depressant)
depressant (-)
192
Antagonist (-) for inhibitory (-) =
(stimulant or depressant)
stimulant (+)
193
What is a natural ligand?
a neurotransmitter
194
what are the two forms of competitive binding?
Direct agonist and direct antagonist
195
what is a direct agonist?
Binds to receptor instead of neurotransmitter, but activates it and functions as a straight substitute
196
What is a direct antagonist?
- binds to receptor but does not activate it
- prevents natural Ligand from binding -> may change the receptor form to prevent binding
197
what are the two forms on non-competitive binding?
indirect agonist and indirect antagonist
198
what is an indirect agonist?
- binds to a site on the receptor that is not being completed for and does not interfere
- same receptor, different locations -> working together
199
what is an indirect antagonist?
Indirect agonist: binds to a binding site that isn't being completed for and changes the receptor in such a way that when the ligand binds it can no longer do anything
200
what is an autoreceptor?
receptor for the same thing the terminal is releasing. They monitor how much transmitter is in the synaptic gap and regulates release -> negative feedback loops
201
what do transporters do?
bring in the neurotransmitter
202
what is enzymatic breakdown?
destroys neurotransmitters
203
what is pharmacokinetics?
Process which drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolised, and excreted
* Drugs may interact and affect pharmacokinetics of other drugs
204
what is liquid solubility?
the ability to absorb in fat
205
what is Alcohol Dehydrogenase?
enzyme that breaks down alcohol
206
what does acetaldehyde do?
increases anxiety. it is an unpleasant experience. if it builds up it means you have an alcohol allergy
207
what is metabolic tolerance
when your enzyme production is impacted to increase efficiency in breaking things down
208
what is Disulfiram (Antabuse)
it prevents reward of drinking by making it a miserable experience if taken prior to drinking
209
what is Cytochrome P4503A4 present in?
grapefruit juice
210
changing the metabolism of a drug essentially does what?
alters the dose of the drug
211
what is theopholine?
stimulant in black tea
212
what is fractional anistrophy?
the ratio of fluid moving down the length of the axon vs out
213
what is N-acetylaspartate?
neuronal marker of cell activity
214
Habituation + sensitisation =
non-associative learning
215
what is habituation?
used to it
216
what is sensitisation?
more responsive
217
true or false: tolerance impacts withdrawl
false. you can become more tolerant (habituated) but have more withdrawal (sensitisation)
218
what is contiguity?
The mind connects events in a sequence
219
True or false: extra info is unimportant in classical conditioning
true
220
In _____ conditioning, behaviour is irrelevant to the outcome
classical
221
Neutral stimulus is paired with stimulus that evokes reflex, and eventually what happens:
the neutral stimulus will produce the response itself
222
what did pavlov ask about dogs ?
why dogs salivate before eating
223
why do dogs salivate before eating?
they were preparing to eat. it is a reflex response
224
what is an unconditioned stimulus?
a stimulus that triggers a response on biological reflex. It is unlearned.
225
what is an unconditioned response?
the auto response triggered by the unconditioned stimulus
226
what is a conditioned stimulus?
when a stimulus that was previously neutral becomes associated with a UCR
227
what is a conditioned response?
the response triggered by the previously neutral stimulus
228
Is the conditioned response more or less than the natural response?
it may be less
229
why are conditioned responses sometimes opposite?
because they are based on preparation and what is best to prepare for the situation
230
what is conditioned tolerance?
body adjusts to prepare for drug, creating a bump
231
why should you not alter location of drug injection?
Changing the location of a drug means your body cannot prepare like it is used to and can cause overdose
232
what is constancy?
the proportion to which the prediction is tru
233
Prediction is based on ______. the more constancy the less ______
surprise
234
what is spontaneous recovery?
an extinguished conditioned response reappears after a rest period
235
what causes spontaneous recovery?
checking in just in case takes a minimal amount of effort. it is the acknowledgement that the world is dynamic and things can change
236
true or false: memory is involved in producing spontaneous recovery
false
237
true or false: the efficiency of spontaneous recovery does not stager
false. it becomes less efficient the more you do it
238
what is generalisation?
stimuli similar to the conditioned stimuli will evoke a similar response
239
what is discrimination?
ability to tell the difference between a conditioned stimulus and other, unrelated stimuli
240
true or false: you can impact discrimination during the acquisition phase
true
241
true or false: you can have classical conditioning without knowing the variable/cue
true
242
what is operant conditioning?
learned based on response as opposed to being based on the stimulus
243
The organism must perform the response in order to achieve the outcome during which type of conditioning?
operant
244
The Law of Effect (Thorndike) is the idea that:
favourable consequences increase in likelihood and those with unfavourable consequences decrease in likelihood
245
thorndikes techniques were refined by who?
b.f. skinner
246
Learning which behaviour is strengthened (reinforced) and which is diminished (punished) is which type of conditioning?
operant
247
why do cognitive psychologists not like b.f. skinner?
he essentially banned cognitive psych for a while. There was a period of time in which psychologists were not allowed to think about thinking, and this is largely due to Skinner as he was very opposed to introspection
248
B.F. Skinner brought what to the scene
precision
249
what is operant behaviour?
complex "voluntary"* behaviours
*voluntarily means you are aware of consciously and make decisions about actively. You can use operant conditioning on things that you are not aware of however as there are many cues you are not conscious of
250
Operant behaviour involves operating on ____ which then changes as a consequence
the environment
251
true or false: both Classical Conditioning and Operant Conditioning involve an organism doing stuff
true, the role is different however
252
what is the role of behaviour in classical conditioning?
it prepares for what they expect to happen, but it does not effect the outcome
253
what is the role of behaviour in operant conditioning?
if the behaviour doesn't occur the outcome doesn't either
254
what is a reinforcer?
an event that strengthens the behaviour that it follows
255
what is a primary reinforcer?
Things that you do not need to learn about. stimuli are innately reinforced due to biological need
256
what is a conditioned reinforcer?
things that have been learned as being reinforcers as they are built upon primary reinforcers and have an association created
257
what is a discriminitive stimulus?
There are situations in which a behaviour will result in a reinforcer. A discriminative stimulus signals that this schedule is in effect
258
Over time ______ may occur where a stimulus and response become assocaiated independent of the original reinforcer
habit learning
259
A behaviour that may seem odd or bad is assumed to have been what?
reinforced at some point in time, and that effect remains even if it is no longer enforced
260
positive reinforcement is:
adding something good
261
negative reinforcement is:
taking something good
262
positive punishment is:
adding something bad
263
negative punishment is:
taking something good
264
what is acquisition?
the initial stage of learning
265
what is extinction?
diminishes the response because the organism gives up after repeated lack of reinforcemen
266
what is shaping?
conditioning procedure that guides behaviour in the direction of the goal gradually
267
what is continuous reinforement?
reinforced every time it occurs
268
what is partial reinforcement?
rewards only some responses
269
what is a fixed ratio schedule?
Reinforced only after a specified number of responses
270
why are responses high on a ratio schedule?
the more responses you make the more outcomes you receive thus you want to do it more
271
what is a variable ratio schedule?
Reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses
272
what is a variable ratio scale harder to have extinction than a fixed ratio?
the unpredictability means it is harder to stop because you never know if something is wrong since it isn't a fixed number
273
what is a fixed interval schedule?
Reinforced response only occurs after a fixed amount of time, no matter how many responses occur in between
Note: It does not mean you get the reinforcer every time without doing anything. the response is still required as it is operant conditioning
274
what happens to responses on a fixed interval schedule?
they increase in frequency when the anticipated time grows near
275
what is a variable interval schedule?
Reinforced after an unpredictable amount of time each time
276
what happens to responses on a variable interval schedule?
they are slow and steady
277
what is a post-reinforcement pause and why does it occur
after a reinforcer there is a brief pause where they will not respond on a fixed schedule. Pauses indicate how reliable the schedule is
278
what is the difference between escape and avoidance?
escape is when you have contact with something unpleasant and get away from it.
avoidance is when you do not have contact with something unpleasant at all. -> may be taking measures to prevent having to have contact with it
279
There is a transition from positive punishment to escape, to avoidance. this is how ___ develop
phobias
280
why does spontaneous recovery not work on phobias?
because your fear is a reinforcer and everytime you avoid the thing you reinforce that fear
281
exposure therapy is also called:
flooding
282
why does flooding not work
own fear is a punishment even if the stimulus is fine to others. it thus is not very effective as the exposure is punishment itself
283
what is systematic desensitisation?
- Creates a list of stimuli from least fearful to most fearful about the phobia
- Teach them to relax while gradually moving up from least to most
284
what is latent learning?
hidden learning. learning that is there but not shown without there being a reason to show it
285
what is retrospective revaluation?
organisms will modify their response based on association
286
what are concepts?
mental representation of the category you form
287
what is family resemblance?
similarity to other members of the category
288
true or false: categorisation is static
false, it changed based on new info
289
what are artificial neuronetworks
connections based on trials. There are no rules
290
what are the three levels to the hierachy of catergorisation
superordinate, basic, subordinate
291
what is a schema
the framework and structure (set of ideas, thoughts, etc) expected of the category
292
what is a prototype?
in the mind there is a particular image of what the category is
293
how does prototype categorisation work?
every time you see something your brain calculates how close it is to the prototype
294
how does exemplar categorisation work?
every memory of the category is activated and an average is created and compared. if it is close to the average then it is categorised
295
what is typicality?
how close to a prototypical item is within a category
296
Things that are associated and fit pre-existing knowledge are easier to remember. this is called:
rational cohesion
297
what is judgement?
form an opinion and make critical evaluations
298
what is decision making?
making a choice between alternatives. based on judgement but can be seperated (ie by flipping a coin)
299
what is deductive reasoning?
start off with a piece of information about a general premise and move down to a specific fact
ie: a new animal is a mammal -> deduce that it is warm blooded as mammals are usually warm blooded
300
what is inductive reasoning?
collect facts and make inductions about the general premise
- scientific methodology is inductive
301
what are heuristics?
shortcuts
302
what is bounded rationality?
there are limits to rationality depending on time and effort. humans take short cuts about limited info to make decisions thus they are not always rational
303
what is belief bias?
Pre-existing beliefs distort ones reasoning, whether the conclusion is reasonable or not. It makes invalid conclusions appear valid and vice versa
304
what is cognitive dissonance?
adjust beliefs in order to not feel bad about yourself
305
what is availability heuristics?
likelihood based on memory. if it comes to mind easily it is assumed that it is common which is not always true
306
what is reprisentitiveness heuristics?
judgement based on how close it is to the prototype. ignores other information such as the base rate (probability in the general population)
307
what is contemplative science?
research area concerned with understanding how contemplative practices such as
meditation can affect individuals
308
what is the basis of dualism?
mental and physical are, in essence, different substances
309
what is motion induced blindness?
bright discs completely vanish from your
awareness
310
what is perceptual priming?
a type of memory that does not entail the conscious experience of remembering. found in amnesia
311
damage to which brain region can cause distorted body awareness?
the temporoparietal junction
312
the primary function of consciousness is theorised to be to allow us to what
predict our own behaviour
313
what is first person perspective?
Observations made by individuals about their own conscious experiences
314
what is third person perspective?
Observations made by individuals in a way that can be independently confirmed by other individuals so as to lead to general, objective understanding.
315
what is mindfulness?
a state of higher consciousness that includes an awareness of the thoughts
passing through one’s head
316
what is the cost and the benefit of low awareness?
cost: influenced by subtle factors
benefit: saves mental effort
317
what is the cost and the benefit of high awareness?
cost: uses mental effort
benefit: can uncover biases
318
what did Mesmer attribute the cause of hypnosis to?
"animal magnetism,” a supposed universal force within the human body
319
hypnosis is a mental state characterized by
reduced _____ and increased _____
peripheral awareness
focus on a singular stimulus
320
what is disassocation?
separation of one’s awareness from everything besides what one is centrally focused on. a disconnect between one’s awareness of their environment and the
one object the person is focusing on
321
true or false: hypnosis can reduce pain
true. a study found those with the placebo experienced a 16% reduction in pain, however those with the actual reatment expereiced an only 50% reduction
322
why is a trance state different from a hypnotised state?
a trance state someone has less voluntary control over their behaviours and actions
323
what are hallucinogens?
substances that alter a person’s perceptions, often by creating visions or hallucinations that are not real
324
what are the three categories of drugs?
hallucinogens, stimulants, and depressants
325
what is the flexible correction model?
the ability for people to correct or change their beliefs and evaluations if they believe these judgments have been biased
326
drugs that change the way you think or feel are called:
psychoactive or psychotropic drugs
327
True or false: drugs work solely where they are wanted to in the brain
false
328
what does ADME stand for?
Absorption (how it gets into the blood)
Distribution (how to gets to the intended organ)
Metabolism (how it is broken down)
Excretion (how it leaves)
329
How does oral administation work?
enter the stomach and then get absorbed into the blood stream
330
true or false: mental illnesses contribute to more disability in western countries than all other illnesses
true
331
what is polypharmacy?
the usage of multiple drugs
332
what is it called when you consume too much of something and thus begin to strongly dislike the taste?
taste-aversion conditioning
333
true or false: overdose is not typically due to an increase in dosage
true. the associated cues are important and if those are missing the body is not able to properly prepare
334
what is blocking?
learns to associate stimulus A with an unconditioned stimulus. then a stimulus B is paired with stimulus A and then stimulus A is removed. Stimulus B alone does not elicit a response because stimulus A blocked the conditioning of stimulus B
335
True or false: extinction undoes all the initial learning
false
336
what is the renewal effect?
after extinction, the conditioned stimulus is tested in a new context (such as a new location). when this occurs, the conditioned response may also return
337
what is the stimulus that controls the operant behaviour called?
the discriminitive stimulus
338
what can make reinforcer devaluation ineffective
if habit learning has already occured
339
what are the four phases of observational laearning?
1. attention
2. retention
3. initiation
4. motivation
340
a conditioned response that opposes, rather than is the same as, the unconditioned response is called:
Conditioned compensatory response
341
what is social learing theory?
The theory that people can learn new responses and behaviours by observing the behaviour of others
342
what is vicarous reinforcement?
learning that occurs by observing the reinforcement or punishment of another person
343
when we exhibit changes in behavior without having intended to learn something, that is called:
implicit learning
344
what is working memory?
the form of memory we use to hold onto information temporarily
345
what is metacognition?
the knowledge and skills people have in monitoring and controlling their own
learning and memory
346
what is retrieval failure?
not being able to remember a piece of information that you know and know you know
347
a set of objects that can be treated as equivalent in some way is
a category
348
signs of essentialism include: (3)
1) objects are believed to be either in or out of the category, with no in-between
2) resistance to change of category membership or of properties
connected to the essence
3) for living things, the essence is passed on to progeny
349
The belief that members of a category have an unseen property that causes them to be in the category and to have the properties associated with it
psychological essentialism
350
what is anchoring?
When we are making decisions, any initial anchor (starting point) that we face is likely to influence our judgments, even if the anchor is arbitrary. That is, we insufficiently adjust our judgments away from the anchor
351
The systematic ways in which we fail to notice obvious and important information that is available to us
bounded awareness
352
bounded ethicality is
The systematic ways in which our ethics are limited in ways we are not even aware of ourselves
353
The systematic and predictable ways in which we care about the outcomes of others
bounded self interest
354
bounded willpower is
The tendency to place greater weight on present concerns rather than future concerns
355
The bias to be systematically affected by the way in which information is presented, while
holding the objective information constant
framing
356
Our intuitive decision-making system, which is typically fast, automatic, effortless, implicit, and emotional
system 1
357
more careful and time taken. rational thinking. this is called:
system 2
358
true or false: people don't actively make a lot of decisions
true
359
what is nativist theory?
the idea that language is discovered as opposed to being learned. you are born with a specialised structure to learn language when young which then degrades with age
360
structural ambiguity
the same sentence can have different meanings. there is no guarantee on which way the listener will interpret it
361
what are pragmatics?
the use of language in context and the tools used to convey a message (ie. sarcasm, tone of voice, interrupting, gestures used, etc) beyond the actual words used
362
what is linguistic determinism?
hypothesis that language determines what you think because if you do not have words it is very hard to think about something
