Exam 3 Flashcards
1
Q
True or false: stress reactions are not purely emotional
A
True. There are also physiological and behavioural aspects
2
Q
True or false: your stress reaction will impact how you behave
A
True. If you think someone is being malicious you will react very differently than if you think they just made a mistake
3
Q
What is abnormality?
A
Something that causes distress or disability, maladaptivity, irrationality, or unpredictability
4
Q
____ are a subset of anxiety
A
phobias
5
Q
” individuals behaviours hinder the attainment of goals of both their own, as well as interfere with the needs of society” this is called ____
A
maladaptiveness
6
Q
“individual speaks or behaves in ways that do not make sense to other people, whether they are bothered by it or not” this is called____
A
irrationality
7
Q
distress or disability is when ____
A
individual experiences debilitating functioning which causes the risk of psychological or physical deterioration
8
Q
what is unpredictability?
A
behaves in ways that do not make sense for the environment, as though there is a loss of control in behaviour
9
Q
what is unconventiality and statistical rarity?
A
violates norms in a manner that is rare
10
Q
“behaves in ways that make other people feel uncomfortable” is called:
A
observer discomfort
11
Q
what is an example of “Violation of Moral and Ideal Standards”
A
homosexuality
12
Q
True or false: you may feel distress or disability due to other people feeling uncomfortable with things that are not a disorder
A
True
13
Q
Historically, psychological disorders focused a lot on ______ causes
A
supernatural
14
Q
what is Trepidation
A
drilling holes in people’s heads
15
Q
what is the purpose of trepidation
A
- Drains fluid and releases pressure
- Lowering the pressure on that part of the brain allows blood flow to return, reducing hypoxia
16
Q
Ancient Greek physicians shifted focus towards ______ causes
A
somatogenic
17
Q
why were asylums created?
A
to keep people out of the public eye
18
Q
what is taxonomy or Classification
A
grouping things together. similar symptoms, etc.
19
Q
what is the medical model
A
idea that there are physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated, and cured
20
Q
what are mood disorders
A
emotional extremes
21
Q
what is major depressive disorder?
A
for no apparent reason individual experiences two or more weeks of depressed moods, negative thoughts, and diminished pleasure and/or motivation
22
Q
true or false: things can manifest differently in kids vs adults
A
true
23
Q
true or false: the weight criteria in depression is due to motivation
A
true. either eats less because it’s not rewarding or eats more because it’s less rewarding
24
Q
what is different about the weight criteria in depression for children?
A
since they are expected to gain weight due to growing, if they do not or only gain a little it is considered a loss
25
true or false: movement criteria involves how restless you feel
false
26
why does problem solving become harder when depressed?
decreased brain activity
27
true or false: depression shrinks the hippocampus
true, when untreated
28
what is bipolar disorder
Alternates between states of depression and mania
29
what is bipolar 1?
manic episodes with periods of depression
30
what is bipolar 2?
manic 'lite' with periods of depression
31
what is cyclothymic?
alternates between depression and mania rapidly
32
what have linkage studies revealed about mood disorders?
cluster of relevant genes, rather than one perfect cause
33
true or false: classification schemes may be wrong
true. while diagnostically things may be lumped together, it is possible that genetically this is not the case and that the lack of a perfect genetic cause is because of this
34
during a depressed state, ___ and ____ are low
norepinephrine and serotonin
35
norepinephrine is ____ during a manic state
(low or high)
high
36
what is hippocampal atrophy?
Neurodegeneration/loss of volume in the hippocampus in depression
37
what is the main treatment for bipolar disorder?
lithium
38
Rank in order of heritability:
a) generalised anxiety disorder
b) Anorexia
c) schizophrenia
d) Major depressive disorder
e) Bipolar disorder
1. Bipolar disorder
2. schizophrenia
3. Anorexia
4. Major depressive disorder
5. generalised anxiety disorder
39
true or false: depression decreases activity in the brain
true
40
what part of the brain experiences and increase in activity during depression?
the amygdala
41
true or false: stressful events often proceed depression
true
42
what is stress?
any challenge to steady state of functioning. Something that forces you to change and adapt, whether good or bad
43
what is distress?
negative things
44
what is eustress?
positive things
45
true or false: activity in stress systems can trigger depression -the changes in the brain
true, if there is an excess in activity
46
the HPA axis is ____
the fight or flight system
47
the ____ releases CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone) during the HPA axis
hypothalamus
48
in the HPA axis, the _____ releases ACTH (adrenal corticotropin releasing hormone) which then finds its way to the ______
pituitary gland
adrenal cortex
49
what does the adrenal cortex release?
cortisol
50
what is cortisol?
primary stress hormone
51
true or false: we are worse at dealing with stressors that are the same instead of different
false
52
what causes learned helplessness?
Trying a bunch of things and none of them working teaches you that your behaviour is hopeless and will not change anything
53
what is the negative explanatory style?
pessimistic to the point of being irrational
54
"I'll never get over this" is an example of ____
(stable global or internal)
stable
55
"I can't seem to do anything without them" is an example of ____
(stable global or internal)
global
56
"It was my fault" is an example of ____
stable global or internal
internal
57
the opposite explanatory style to stable is:
temporary
58
the opposite explanatory style to global is:
specific
59
the opposite explanatory style to internal is:
external
60
true or false: irrational Beliefs make you prone to depressive thoughts
true
61
genetic factors, temperatures, predispositions, gender are examples of ____ risk factors
biogenetic Risk factors
62
traumas, coping, gender, intergenerational are examples of ___ risk factors
psychological Risk factors
63
instability and insecurity in Western society, environment, gender, texting are examples of ____ risk factors
social and cultural risk factors
64
somatic diseases, substance misuse, gender are examples of ___ risk factors
somatic Risk factors
65
5-HT, NE, and DA are all:
monoamines
66
what do MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors) do?
inhibits breakdown
67
what do tricyclic antidepressants do?
boosts serotonin, norepinephrine and dopamine
68
true or false: MAOIs were developed on purpose
false
69
true or false: SSRIs were developed on accident
false
70
what do SSRIs do?
blocks reuptake of serotonin specifically so that there is more in the synapse
71
NARIs, SNRIs, and NDRIs are what generation of antidepressants?
third
72
true or false: psychedelic drugs can be used to treat depression
true, they appear to be effective for treatment resistant depression
73
how long does it take antidepressants to begin working?
biologically it is immediate, in terms of feeling it is 1-6 weeks (usually 6)
74
____ is caused by a lack of activity in 5-HT projection in the Raphe nuclei to the medial forebrain bundle and the forebrain
depression
75
what is Neurotropic Factor?
more brain -> reversed the atrophy depression caused
76
true or false: antidepressants help manic episodes
false. they make them worse
77
true or false: antipsychotics worsen depression
true
78
what is the Psychotherapeutic Approach
interpersonal and social rhythm theory
79
what is interpersonal and social rhythm theory
focused on developing work life balance and good sleep habits
80
anxiety disorders are characterised by: (2)
- distressing and persistent anxiety
- maladaptive behaviours to reduce anxiety
81
anxiety where you are unable to identify the cause, or identify too many causes is called:
generalised anxiety disorder
82
what is the age of onset for social anxiety?
13
83
what is a panic attack?
Minutes long episode of intense dread that can feel like a heart attack
84
why is it easier to identify phobias than anxiety?
it is more obvious. How do you know you worry more or less than others?
85
true or false: anxiety is in part due to the brains desire to make sense of things
true. your Brain wants reasons, so if you are anxious without reason it will look for some
86
what is panic Disorder?
recurrent panic Attacks and persistent concerns about having attacks and the consequences
87
what is agoraphobia?
a fear that something bad will happen if they are in public and that there is danger, even if there is not
88
true or false: most phobias are normal fears
true, they often are fears that make evolutionary sense are are common fears
89
true or false: a fear can become a phobia
true
90
how does a fear become a phobia?
exaggerated dear processing in the amygdala
91
there is a large learning component to which anxiety disorder?
social anxiety
92
_____ patients show a greater eye to mouth fixation difference
social anxiety
93
why do those with social anxiety focus so much more on eyes than the mouth?
gaging the threat level
94
_____ is the biggest behaviour in PTSD
social withdrawl
95
why do those with PTSD withdraw socially?
fear of embarrassment and displaying it, fear of being triggered
96
deterioration of brain areas for emotional regulation which leads to being triggered more easily and/or having stronger reactions when you are triggered. this is a large part of:
youth ptsd
97
there is a loss of neurons for those who experience symptoms less frequently in
youth ptsd
98
true or false: the hippocampus doesn't degrade with age
true
99
true or false: the hippocampus shrinks in youth ptsd
true
100
what happens if you stop someone with OCD from doing their compulsions
you will cause them severe distress
101
predisposition to fear of certain objects and situations for survival is called
natural selection
102
in ___ there is over-arousal of areas in the frontal lobe in directing attention and impulse control
anxiety
103
true or false: there is an attentional and cognitive element to anxiety
true
104
what is interference?
something that interrupts yours ability to do the task
105
what does a traditional stroop Task reveal about reading?
it is an automatic process
106
what is an emotional stroop Task?
ink colours of threatening and non-threatening words (assault vs table)
107
what is the difference between those with and without anxiety when doing an emotional stroop Task?
Those with higher anxiety take longer to read the colour of a threatening word. Those with low anxiety are able to ignore the content and cause less of a pause
108
what is the dominant form of therapy?
CBT
109
what's does CBT aim to do?
challenges the beliefs of the patient and gives them behavioural homework/strategies
110
benzodiazepines, which are GABA receptor agonists therefore they _____
reduce activity in the amygdala (there is too much activity during anxiety)
111
Recent anxiety treatments focus on ____
enhancing the learning process
112
how do recent anxiety treatments enhance the learning process?
by increasing activity at the NMDA receptor (a receptor for glutamate)
113
why is the NMDA receptor different?
it allows for calcium ions to enter the cell, causing long term changes inside of the cell
114
what does increasing learning do for anxiety?
The extra information taken in will then challenge the fear they feel
115
what is schizophrenia?
a break from reality
116
their experience is different from others in such away that they have lost touch with reality
schizophrenia
117
The former subtypes of schizophrenia were:
paranoid, disorganised, catatonic, undifferentiated, and residual
118
schizophrenia is characterised by: (3)
disorganised and delusional thinking , disturbed perceptions, inappropriate emotions and actions
119
don't make sense or are so unlikely they are practically impossible if not just straight up impossible
delusional thinking
120
what are disturbed perceptions?
things that are not real
121
true or false: actions may be appropriate in a schizophrenic persons reality
true
122
the positive symptoms of schizophrenia are: (2)
hallucinations and delusions
123
the negative symptoms of schizophrenia are: (3)
attention deficits, flat affect, other memory and executive function deficits
124
true or false: delusions are unpopular
false. delusions are not grounded in reality
125
true or false: drugs that can mimic schizophrenia mimic all symptoms
false, only positive symptoms
126
what were antipsychotics originally called?
neuroleptics
127
how were antipsychotics invented
they were meant to be sedatives
127
potency was determined based on how much it bound to D2 receptors for what medication?
antipsychotics
128
what is the Mesolimbic system?
the Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA) projects to the Nucleus Accumbens (NAcc) and the cortex, stimulation incentive learning
129
when is the Mesolimbic system activated?
when encountering stimuli that has incentive value such as cake or sex
130
how does the Mesolimbic system effect schizophrenia?
In schizophrenia, this system is constantly being activated and so the brain is trying to figure out reasons for why this is happening
131
what is the Nigrostriatal System responsible for?
This pathway is responsible for initiation and termination of volitional movements
132
in what disorder are there are enlarged ventricles, leading to a shrunken cortex and loss of grey matter
schizophrenia
133
The majority of antipsychotics such as Clozapine are _____
atypicals
134
what medication has a higher affinity for serotonin receptors (stimulating in the frontal cortex) than dopamine receptors and target the D4 receptors as they are more present in the Mesolimbic system than the Nigrostriatal system
atypical antipsychotics
135
true or false: increased serotonin improves cognitive function
true
136
what is executive function?
how flexible they are and how they use information
137
what is perceveration?
lack of flexibility/adaptability
138
true or false: increasing serontin release in the cortex can decrease dopamine in the ventral tegmental area
true
139
Excessive dopmine = the ____ aspects of schizophrenia, issue in cortex = the ____ aspects
(pos vs neg)
positive, negative
140
true or false: older individuals with schizophrenia show less catatonia and more negative symptoms
false. more and more
141
what is the diathesis stress model?
genetic predisposition and pre-natal or early neonatal factors such as hypoxia
142
the assumption that problems are caused by psychological tension between the unconscious and life constraints is called
psychoanalysis
143
The goal in ____ is to establish intrapsychic harmony, release repression, and gain insight intro problems
psychoanalysis
144
psychoanalysis therapy is called ___
insight therapy
145
what is free association
ambiguous associations; the one thought of first gives insight
146
what are transferences?
as emotions well up during therapy, they may be transfered onto the therapist
- Hating a parent becomes hating your therapist
147
what are the four steps to psychoanalysis?
1. confrontation: accept that there is a problem
2. clarification: understand why there is resistence
3. interpretation: relate behaviours and thoughts to Psychodynamic constructs - translate the latent into manifest
4. Working through: integrating new found information
148
When we suffer psychologically it is not because of the past, rather because of frustration towards the future. this is part of ____
humanism
149
true or false: humanism and existentialism are connected
true. Trying to find meaning in life and that comes from yourself
150
true or false: a humanist therapist will look at stuff such as trouble getting out of bed as a symptom of an existential crises
true
151
what is the goal of person-centred therapy?
help the client find purpose
152
what is unconditional positive regard?
no conditions. the therapist views the client as valuable no matter what
153
what is cognition
what you're thinking about
154
what was the early form of CBT?
rational Emotive therapy
155
what is catastrophising?
taking a true statement and making it extreme
156
what is mindfulness?
being actively in the present instead of dwelling on the past
157
what is memory?
the persistence of learning over time
158
true or false: there is no such thing as storage failure
true
159
true or false: memory is always concious
false
160
what is implicit memory
information available without conscious effort
161
what is explicit memory?
conscious effort to recover information
162
what is procedural memory?
memory about how to do something
163
what is Declarative memory?
recollection of facts and events
164
Declarative memory can be broken down into two categories. these are:
semantic memory and episodic memory
165
what is semantic memory?
facts that the learning of them are not tied to a specific time or place → divorced from context
166
what is episodic memory?
when memories are tied to a time and a space. a specific point in your life
167
what is an Engram?
a memory trace represented somewhere in the brain
168
what are the three parts to the basic memory model?
sensory memory, working memory, and long-term memory
169
true or false: you can use priming to find lost memories
true
170
what is sensory memory?
the immediate recording of sensory information
171
what is the working memory?
the activated memory
172
what is long term memory?
relatively permanent and limitless storage
173
how is short term memory lost?
time or displacement
174
what is goal directed attention?
plan in advance and looking for something in the environment that matches that goal state
175
______ puts sensory information into short term memory
attenion
176
Long term is forgotten due to ____ or ____, not decay
interference, retrieval failure
177
what is maintenance rehearsal
repeating something to yourself over and over again
178
how long does visual sensory memory last?
half a second
179
how long does auditory sensory memory last?
1-2 seconds
180
what is the other name for visual sensory memory
iconic memory
181
what is the other name for auditory sensory memory
echoic memory
182
what type of memory is primarily for processing purposes?
sensory
183
what is the duration of short term memory
15-30 seconds
184
what is the capacity of short term memory
7 +/- 2 chunks
185
what is chunking
reconfiguring information into groups based on what you already know is similar
186
what type of memory is involved in tasks like reasoning and language comprehension
and integrates sensory memory with info you already know
working memory
187
what are the four components to working memory
- phonological loop
- visuospatial sketchpad
- episodic buffer
- central exectuive
188
what is the phonological loop
sounds repeating
189
what is the visuospatial sketchpad
stored visual info
190
what is the episodic buffer
events in you life funneled into central executive
191
what does the central executive do
makes decisions. extracts the important stuff around you to put into systems and then extract it to do what you need to do
192
encoding for long term memory requires: (3)
distinctiveness, emotional significance, attention
193
what is the capacity of long term memory?
it is unknown, presumably limitless
194
true or false: processing for meaning is more effective to get things into long term memory
true
195
what is recall
reproduction of information previously exposed to
196
what is an example of recall
written answer tests
197
what is recognition
realisation that a certain stimulus is one that you have seen or heard before
198
what is an example of recognition
multiple choice tests
199
what is free recall
as many as you can rememberwh
200
what is ordered recall
in the order given
201
like taking a picture. all details are captured. this is called
flashbulb memory
202
what are retrieval cues?
stimuli (either internal or external) that cause the retrieval of a specific memory
203
what is encoding Specificity?
the idea that memories emerge most efficiently when the environment that you are retrieving in is the same as the environment you learned/encoded it
204
what is cue overload
cue associated with too many memories will impact retrieval
205
____ memory is procedural memory and priming, things you can’t talk about how to do
(implicit or explicit)
implicit
206
___ memory is semantic and episodic memory
(implicit or explicit)
explicit
207
some words get rehearsed more so people do better recalling the first words. this is called
the primacy effect
208
if listing words quickly, people do well on the first couple and then the last few, despite not having rehearsed the later ones. this is called
the recency effect
209
attention to structural properties is what level of encoding
first level. shallow
210
attention to the sound qualities of words is what level of encoding
intermediate level, phonological
211
paying attention to the meaning of words and thinking about them conceptually is what level of encoding
deepest. semantic encoding
212
- there are multiple kinds of deep processing, they are: (3)
- imagery: making mental images → better at remembering images
- Mnemonics: memory aid to help you remember things
- organisational hierarchies
213
true or false: you forget the most right after learning
true
214
what is transience
information is temporary and fades over time
215
disruption of encoding due to insufficient resources (such as attention) applied to the task. this is called
absent minded ness
216
what is blocking
a retrieval failure where memory is encoded but it is hard to get out
217
what is misatrribution
the event is remembered as being related to the wrong source
218
how do false memories happen?
memory is reconstructed as you remember, it is not a recording
219
true or false: the retrieval cue that triggers the remembering does not effect how you remember
false
220
what is memory Re-consolidation?
the idea that you can modify someone's memory by manipulating the remembering via things like extinction
221
what is proactive Interference?
information from the past makes it difficult to acquire new information
222
what is retroactive Interference?
new information makes it hard to recall old information
223
what is leveling
simplifying the sotry, filling in gaps
224
what is sharpening?
highlighting and overemphasizing certain details
225
what does memory Construction do?
filters information and fills in information
226
what is the misinformation effect
misleading information is incorporated into the memory of the event
227
what is the DRM effect
- given a list of words and then asked if a word was in the list
- list words all related to sleep, but sleep was not said → people will “remember” the word
228
what is anterograde amnesia?
inability to form memories for events after brain damage
229
what is retrograde amnesia?
inability to remember events that occurred prior to brain damage
230
Visual memory is stored in the _____ lobe
occipital
231
echoic memory is stored in the ____ lobe
temporal
232
touch is stored in the ____ lobes
parietal
233
_____ memories are in “older” regions like the striatum
Procedural
234
hippocrates classified mental illness into one of four categories:
epilepsy, mania, melancholia, and brain fever
235
what is the cathertic method?
a patient gains insight and emotional relief from recalling and reliving
traumatic events
236
what is mesmerism
an early version of hypnotism
237
what is traitement morale
improved nutrition, living conditions, and rewards for productive
behavior
238
It is estimated that 25%–50% of people diagnosed with_____ will attempt suicide at least once in their lifetimes
bipolar disorder
239
what is the difference between major depressive disorder and persistent depressive disorder
PDD is for a period of 2 years
240
is electroconvulsive therapy effective?
it does help by increasing brain activity but there are poor effects
241
Interpersonal Therapy for Depression focuses on:
improving interpersonal relationships by targeting problem areas, specifically unresolved grief, interpersonal role disputes, role transitions, and interpersonal deficits
242
what is adhedonia
Loss of interest or pleasure in activities one previously found enjoyable or rewarding
243
what are biological vulnerabilities
specific genetic and neurobiological factors that might predispose someone to develop anxiety disorders
244
what is different about blood phobias and other phobias
most phobias increase heartrate, but those with blood phobias experience a drop in heart rate and may faint
245
which phobia is more likely to run in families
blood
246
in order to qualify for an OCD diagnosis, how long per day do you need to spend engaging in obsessions/compulsions
at least an hour a day
247
what is interceptor avoidance
Avoidance of situations or activities that produce sensations of physical arousal similar to
those occurring during a panic attack or intense fear response
248
what is thought-action infusion
The tendency to overestimate the relationship between a thought and an action, such that
one mistakenly believes a “bad” thought is the equivalent of a “bad” action.
249
true or false: those with schizophrenia have a slower "processing speed"
true
250
true or false: children born to older fathers have increased risk of schizophrenia
true
251
what is metabolic syndrome
weight gain and increased risk for cardiovascular illness,
Type-2 diabetes, and mortality
252
what type of drug is associated with metabolic syndrome
atypical antipsychotics
253
what was the original name for person centred therapy
non-directive therapy
254
what is acceptence and commitment therapy
A therapeutic approach designed to foster nonjudgmental observation of one’s own mental
processes
255
Using exercises (e.g., computer games) to change problematic thinking habits
cognitive bias modification
256
what is DBT
A treatment often used for borderline personality disorder that incorporates both cognitive-
behavioral and mindfulness elements
257
A perspective in DBT that emphasizes the joint importance of change and acceptance
dialectal worldview
258
what is Integrative or eclectic psychotherapy
combining multiple
orientations (e.g., CBT with psychoanalytic elements
259
what is collective memory
the kind of memory that people in a group
share
260
261
trie or false: flashbulb memories are accurate
false. not entirely
262
what is recoding
taking
the information from the form it is
delivered to us and then converting it in
a way that we can make sense of it
263
what is consolidation
The process occurring after encoding that is believed to stabilize memory traces
264
A term indicating the change in the nervous system representing an event
memory traces
265
who is most susceptible to misinformation
children and older adults
266
true or false: memories must be moved from the hippocampus in order to last
true
267
what is functional amnesia
a loss of memory that cannot be attributed to brain injury or any obvious brain disease
and is typically classified as a mental disorder rather than a neurological disorder
268
what is Temporally graded retrograde amnesia
Inability to retrieve memories from just prior to the onset of amnesia with intact memory for
more remote events
