Wings Study (as of 18/2/25) Flashcards
1
Q
When can you operate SVFR, restrictions?
A
- Authorised by ATC
- only by day
- clear of cloud
- vis > 800m
- speed at which PIC can see obstructions and traffic
2
Q
Light signals to acft from ad
A
Steady green
- inflight: authed to land
- ground: authed to take off
Steady red
- inflight: giveway to acft, continue circling
- ground: stop
Green flashes
- inflight: return for landing
- ground: authed to taxi
Red flashes
- inflight: AD unsafe - do not land
- ground: taxi clear of landing area in use
White flashes
- Inflight: nufin
- ground: return to starting point on AD
3
Q
VMC for a,b,c,e,g below 10,000
A
Vis: 5000m
Horizontal dist: 1500m
Vertical dist: 1000ft
4
Q
Vmc criteria D class
A
Vis: 5000m
Horizontal dist: 600m
Vertical dist: 1000ft above 500ft below
5
Q
Vmc criteria g class below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft agl whichever be higher
A
Vis: 5000m
Clear of cloud
ACFT Must be operated in sight of ground/water
6
Q
Vmc criteria g class below 700ft, requirements
A
Vis: 800m
Clear of cloud
Requirements:
- By day
- at a speed allowing pilot to see obstructions and other traffic
- if less than 10nm from an AD with an IAP, flight separation of at least 500ft vertical separation from aircraft that are within 10nm from AD, and IFR ACFT
7
Q
VMC Criteria: Class G below 700ft over water WITHOUT track guidance from nav system
A
Vis: 5000m
Cloud sep: 600m horiz, 500ft vert
Op Reqs:
- By day or NVIS
- Speed at which PIC can see obstructions and traffic and avoid
- If not more than 10NM, from AD with IAP, operate in a way that allows 500ft vert sep from another aircraft that is less than 10NM from AD and IFR.
8
Q
Cruising levels
A
WEEO
West = Even
East = Odd
IFR:
- East: odd 1000 ft (eg 3000, 7000)
- West: even 1000 ft (eg 4000, 8000)
VFR:
- East: odd 1000ft + 500ft (eg 3500, 5500)
- West: even 1000ft + 500ft (eg 2500, 6500)
9
Q
Holding Fuel/ Times for INTER and TEMPO
A
Inter:
30 min | 85 KG
Tempo
60 min | 170 KG
10
Q
ALT Min RAN Aircraft: DAY VFR
A
Nil
11
Q
ALT Min: DAY VFR other than class G
A
Cloud base: Greater than SCT below 1500ft
Vis: 8000m
12
Q
ALT Min: Night VFR
A
Cloud base: 1500ft
Vis: 8000m
Lighting: qualified person at the AD to attend the LDG period (30 min before ETA to AC ls completion of LDG and taxi) snd manually switching on the lighting in the event of failure
If the AC has dual VHF/carries 30 min holding fuel - no req for qualified pers
13
Q
Sources of Acc QNH
A
AAIS
ATC
ATIS
AWIS
CA/GRS
WATIR
14
Q
Transition altitudes
A
Area QNH (hPa) : Transition Level
= or > 1013.2 : FL110
997<x<1013 : FL115
980<x<997 : FL120
963<x<980 : FL125
<963 : FL130
15
Q
When must you report loss of RAIM or GNSS integrity
A
- During an en route phase of flight – loss for more than 5 min
- During a terminal phase of flight – loss of integrity
- ATS requests the provision of GNSS derived information – RAIM or GNSS integrity is not available
- ATC grants a clearance or imposes a requirement based on GNSS-derived information - RAIM or GNSS integrity is not available
- The GNSS receiver is in dead-reckoning mode, or experiences loss of its navigational function, for more than 1 minute
16
Q
Radio communication system becomes inoperative in VFR in Class G or E airspace, the pilot in must:
A
- Select code 7600 on the aircraft transponder
- Remain outside controlled airspace
- Assume the radio communication system is broadcasting and broadcast position and intentions on the frequent appropriate to the area of operation ‘in the blind’
- As soon as practicable, descend below 5000ft to continue flight under VFR
17
Q
Radio communication system becomes inoperative in VFR in Class A,B,C or D airspace or IFR in any airspace, the pilot must
A
- Select code 7600 on transponder
- Continue broadcasting position and intentions
- If certain of remaining VMC, remain in VMC and land at most suitable aerodrome
- IF the aircraft is in IMC or uncertain of maintaining VMC
- Maintain the last assigned altitude or level (or LSALT if higher) for 3 minutes
- Maintain the last assigned vector for 2 min, or fly one more holding pattern
- After above 2, proceed in accordance with latest ATC route clearance acknowledged
- Commence descent in accordance with latest ATC route clearance
- Conduct the most suitable IAP
18
Q
Separation from populous areas and public gatherings
A
- 1000ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a radius of 300m of the point on the ground or water immediately below the aircraft
19
Q
When navigating by Visual reference to the ground or water the PIC must at intervals of no more than 30 minutes
A
- Positively fix the aircrafts position by visual reference to features
marked on topographical charts - If over sea, features may include rocks, reefs and fixed human-made
objects that are:
• Marked on topographical charts appropriate to the flight
• Readily identifiable from the land
20
Q
How long is QNH accurate
for after receiving it
A
15 mins
21
Q
For an IAP, using the
forecasted area QNH you
must do what to the minima
A
Add 50ft to the minima, unless the AD does not receive a regular TAF
service, in which case the 50’ is added to the approach plate by
default
22
Q
For a GNSS/DME approach,
you must discontinue the
approach if the disparity
between VOR or NDB and
the GNSS track indication is
larger than __ degrees
A
- NDB – a divergence of more than 6.9⁰
- VOR – a divergence of more than 5.2⁰
23
Q
IAP speeds for Cat H aircraft
A
- Range of speeds Initial and intermediate approach: 70-120kts
- range of speeds for final approach: 60-90kts
- Max speed for visual manoeuvring: none
- Max speed for missed approach: 90kts
24
Q
IAP speeds for Cat A aircraft
A
- Range of speeds Initial and intermediate approach: 90-150kts
- range of speeds for final approach: 70-100kts
- Max speed for visual manoeuvring: 100kts
- Max speed for missed approach: 110kts
25
IFR Take of minima
- A cloud ceiling not lower than the height at which the greater of the following can be achieved:
• Vy or Vmin IMC
• Obstacle clearance can be maintained until reaching LSALT (OEI) and the
aircrafts endurance allows of flight to a suitable destination should a return to
the departure point be unavailable after an OEI event.
- Visibility of either:
• 800m;
• 550m, but only if
• The relevant runway has illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60m and centreline lighting
26
IFR Missed approach criteria
- During final segment of the IAP – aircraft is flown outside the
navigational tolerance for the navigation aid being used
- On IAP below MSA, the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect
or the aid fails
- Visual reference is not established at the MAPT or DA/RA height at
which the missed approach procedure commences
- A landing cannot be made from a runway approach, unless a circling
approach can be conducted in weather conditions at or better than
those specified for circling
- Visual reference is lost whilst circling to land from an IAP
27
What must you do on radio
when IFR in class G airspace
and cannot contact ATS on
the ground
- Broadcasts are made in place of the required reports
- Contact with the air traffic service is established as soon as possible
after take-off
28
Emergency transponder
codes and their meaning
Unlawful interference: 7500
Loss of radiocommunications: 7600
In flight emergency: 7700
29
The risk of an adverse event
as a result of NVIS failure
below 500ft AGL is
controlled by
- The aircrafts capacity to revert immediately to a non-filtered search or
landing light; or
- The presence of 2 pilots, each of whom:
• Is NVIS qualified and NVIS equipped; and
• Has access to dual flight controls
30
What is Icing conditions for
EC-135 operations
- 2 degrees OAT in visible moisture or;
- When icing detector indicates icing conditions
31
What level of forecasted
turbulence is permitted for
flying operations
Flight is permitted in forecasted moderate/severe turbulence
32
Can flight continue if severe
turbulence is experienced
No, flight operations should be discontinued if actual severe
turbulence is experienced
33
For inspecting the rotor head
what safety limits/procedures
are there
- Working at heights and pre-flight inspection training conducted
- Aircrew helmet, flying clothing and supplementary lighting worn
- Three points of contact maintained during inspection
- Wind/rain/sea state assessed as suitable
- 110kg OEM step limit applied
- Sentry posted
34
To prevent a tail strike, at
10ft what is the nose up limit
Not above 10 degrees nose up
35
An ACMN is required for
CA’s where __ rotor diameter
clearance from obstructions
is not available
2 rotor diameter clearance
36
Minimum height for
overwater ops at night
No ops below 400ft at night, other than embarked Ops
37
Minimum descent altitude for
autorotation training
Aircraft autorotation to hover not below 15ft
38
When should High NR be on during flight
High NR selected on throughout the flight
39
What is our fixed fuel reserve and can it be used for taxiing
Fuel reserve is 70kg
Can be used for taxiing provided the aircraft remains over a suitable
landing surface at all times
40
A QFI and authorised what is
the minimum altitude an
AvWO can manipulate the
controls
Not below 500ft by day or night, except in an emergency
41
If only one set of NVD’s is serviceable during a flight, what is your minimum altitude
Not below 500ft AO
42
When can you operate
overwater without aircrew
life rafts
Overwater within 5nm of coastline
Overwater within 5-10nm of coastline above VTOSS
Over enclosed waters
Overwater where FST is greater than ERT
43
When hover/taxing around
stationary aircraft, vehicles or
man made structures. What is
the minimum lateral
clearance required
- Minimum half rotor diameter 15ft (5m)
- May be reduced to 10ft (3m) with blade-walkers, marshallers or taxi
guidelines
44
Clearance required below the aircraft and rotor disk during IGE hover, taxi, lifting off, touching down and on the ground
- During IGE hover – 5ft or 1.5m vertically above the obstacles
- During hover, taxi, touching down or lifting off – 3ft (1m) above the
obstacles
- On the ground – 5ft (1.5m) between blades and obstacles
45
OEL for flight in IMC
- ELT/CVR/UMS
- RADALT
- Wx radar (at Flt Autho’s discretion)
- Current GTN Nav Database
- GTN 750/650
46
OEL for Low level Flight
- ELT/CVR/UMS
- RADALT
- GTN 650/750 (only one required)
- Sat phone (required for operation in remote areas)
47
OEL for overland utility
- ELT/CVR/UMS
- RADALT (flight can continue at AC discretion utilising ACMN for
judgement of height and external load clearances)
- GTN 650/750 (only one required)
- Floats (at Flt Autho’s discretion)
48
OEL for overwater utility
- ELT/CVR/UMS
- RADALT
- GTN 650/750 (only one required)
- Floats
- 1 tac radio (required for operations to vessels)
49
OEL for night aided/unaided
- ELT/CVR/UMS
- RADALT
- Current GTN database
- GTN 650/750 (only one required)
- Search/landing lights (either a serviceable search or landing light)
50
OEL for general handling
- ELT/CVR/UMS
- GTN 650/750 (only one required)
51
Maximum flight hours in any daily period?
8 hours unless extended by an Operation order
52
When air temp forecast to be
greater than +30 deg Celsius.
Aircrew must carry ___?
Minimum of 1litre of water per 1.5 hour sortie, per person
53
NFP and FP scan arcs of responsibility
NFP – 8 o’clock to 1 o’clock
FP – 11 o’clock to 4 o’clock
54
Format for announcing hazards or traffic
- Caution – obstacle/traffic
- Left/right clock code
- Distance – range or close, middle, far
- Level – low, co-level, high
- Direction of movement
- Instructions if hazard is a conflict
- E.g. “bird, left 10 o’clock, 500m, low, right to left, no conflict
- Can be shortened if time critical “traffic, break right”
55
Patter for handover of controls
- FP “handing over”
- NFP “taking over”
- NFP now FP “I have control”
56
Mandatory I-C-S items – In flight only
- ENG Main switches
- ENG MODE SEL switches
- ENG EMERG OFF switches
- Twist grips
- Fuel transfer switches
57
If an ACMN calls “well clear” during a CA
what do they mean
No obstacles within 30ft of the aircraft extremities and rotor tips
58
Effects of controls
Control | Primary eff | Secondary eff
Cyclic | Attitude | IAS, Heading, roll, TRQ
Collective | Power | Altitude, roll, pitch
Pedals | Yaw | Balance, TRQ
59
EC-135 cruise power and speed
FLI 8
Approximately 120kts
60
ROC for normal, steep and shallow profile approaches
Normal - apparent walking pace
Steep - slow walking pace
Shallow - fast walking pace
61
EC-135 audible warnings
- Steady tone – NR equal to or above 112% NR
- Broken tone – NR equal to or below 97% NR
- Gong – Any Warning light to NR equal to or above 106% NR
62
Rate of closure for normal, steep and shallow profile approaches
Normal – apparent walking pace
Steep – slow walking pace
Shallow – fast walking pace
62
During a standard climb, what is the altitude to time ratio used for planning
• 2000ft per minute
63
What does DIAFARE stand for
Divert point
Information
Altitude
Fuel
AVRM
R/T
Execution
64
You are 20 seconds early at a base speed of 90kts IAS
Decelerate to 70kts for 90 seconds
65
OEI Fuel flow and effect on total fuel
• OEI Fuel flow: 140kgs
• Total fuel: minus 50kg (rounded up from 43 or 47) due to loss of supply tank
66
DH’s set during instrument flight
Right side – 200ft
Left side – 999ft
67
Rate 1 turn calculation
• (IAS/10) + 7
• E.g. at 120kts. (120/10) + 7 = 19 degrees
68
Instrument Line up checks
• HDG matches RWY HDG
• ALT. A
• Tac Radios – off if using ground based navaids
• RNAV/Procedural SID – activate departure end or runway
• SID (RADAR) – note assigned heading from ATC
69
Can you plan to fly IMC with freezing levels below LSALT
It is an immediate No Go
70
Top of descent calculation – FG Answer
Current conditions: cruise level = 8000ft, G/S = 120kts, IAF = 3000ft
• Current conditions: cruise level = 8000ft, G/S = 120kts, IAF = 3000ft
• Height to descend: 8000ft-3000ft = 5000ft
• Time for decent: 5000ft at 1000ft/min = 5min
• Distance to commence descent 10nm (120kts GS = 2nm per minute)
• Therefore TOD is 10nm from the IAF
71
Top of descent calculation - Gouge way
Current conditions: cruise level = 8000ft, G/S = 120kts, IAF = 3000ft
• Use RoD as 5x GS to get a 3° Glideslope
• cruise level = 8000ft, G/S = 120kts, IAF = 3000ft
• 5x 120 = 600fpm RoD
• 8000-3000 = 5000ft to descend = 8 and a bit mins at 600fpm
• 8 and a bit x 2nm a min = 16/17nm
• TOD = 8.5 mins or 17nm
72
What does ENALD stand for?
• Emergency No Aid Let Down
73
What sea state are the EFS rated to
• Sea state 6
74
When do you have to match
BARALT/RADALT overwater
• Day – once established overwater at chosen altitude
• Night – prior to descent overwater, or aircraft can be levelled at 1000ft
overwater and then BARALT matched to RADALT before any further
descent
75
When overwater do you have to set both DH’s to the same value?
• Both DH’s are to be set to the same value
76
Rates of descent for an IMC letdown
• 1000fpm or less until 1000ft (Night/IMC)
• Then 500fpm or less (Night/IMC)
• VMC descent profile may vary as required
77
What checks need to be completed prior to a LLLFA?
BLAHSO checks
• Beach/landfall description
• Landing checks
• Approach track
• Height
• Speed
• Overshoot instructions
78
Missed approach point for LLLFA
• 1/4nm
79
What is the normal height of an overwater hover?
• 30ft over water
80
Once on scene for a SAR, what fuel flow is
permitted to be used for time on task
• 170kg/hr
81
Search patterns available in the EC-135
• Parallel track
• Track line
• Creeping line ahead
• Expanding square
• Sector
• Contour
82
Define Groups 1 to 5 of survivor triage
categories
• Group 1 – survivors with minimal or no injuries; first aid type injuries
• Group 2 – survivors who require medical trained care but treatment
may be delayed with little risk
• Group 3 – survivors with significant injuries whose ultimate recovery
will be determined by timely institution of proper initial treatment
• Group 4 – survivors critically injured that their survival is marginal
even with timely medical intervention
• Group 5 – those obviously dead
83
Maximum occupants including flight crew
• Maximum of 8 occupants
84
Maximum gross mass
• 2950kg maximum gross mass
85
Maximum gross mass during hoist and
external load operations
• 2910kg
86
Maximum allowable floor loading
• 600kg/m2
87
Tie down ring limits
• 100kg
87
Vne for OEI operation
• 110kn or as per Vne tables if less
88
Vne for autorotation
• 90kn or as per Vne table if less
89
Vne for Hi NR failure to decrease above 55 knots
• Vne minus 25kn
90
Max speed for use of wiper system
• 80 knots
91
Best climb angle and best rate of climb
• 40kts (Vtoss) and 65kts (Vy) respectively
92
Vmin IFR
• 60kts
93
Max wind for stating and stopping the rotor (except rear)
• 50knot wind from all directions except rearwards where the IBF limit
applies
94
Maximum rearward wind limitation for IBF operation
30kts
95
Max angle of bank for slope operations
• Right or left skid up – 14 degrees
• Nose up – 12 degrees
• Nose down – 8 degrees (4 IAW FG)
• If MMI is inoperative – 6 degrees
96
Minimum LOC interception distance and
Maximum LOC interception angle
• Minimum distance – 4nm
• Maximum angle – 90 degrees
97
Maximum ROD IFR
• 1500 ft/min
98
Maximum hoist load above 0 degrees OAT
• 249kg/550lbs
99
Vne for hoist operations/flight with a fully or partly extended boom
• 60kts
100
Max AOB with on hoist and no load on hoist
• Load on hoist – 20 degrees
• No load on hoist – 30 degrees
101
Max people on hoist
2
104
If an ACMN calls “well clear” during a CA
what do they mean
No obstacles within 30ft of the aircraft extremities and rotor tips
105
Max airspeed and AOB for loaded cargo hook ops
1300kg
106
Max airspeed and AOB for loaded cargo hook ops
100kts or as per Vne table
30 degrees
107
Emergency Floats max sea state
Sea state 6
108
Max airspeed during floats inflation or inflated
80kts
109
Max ROC with inflated floats and max
altitude with inflated/inflating floats
• 1500ft/min
• 5000ft
110
Wx radar safety distances
1. Personnel
2. Vehicles/aircraft
3. Refuelling operations and large metallic objects
• Personnel – 25ft (7.5m)
• Vehicles aircraft – 50ft (15m)
• Refuelling operations and large metallic objects – 100ft (30m)
111
What must an IFR aircraft consider if conducting a visual departure?
• Climb to MSA/LSALT must be conducted in VMC
• If the intended cruising level is lower than route LSALT, cloud base must permit VMC at that level
• Visually maintain obstacle clearance
112
Departure Report for Class D Aerodromes that also provide Approach service
• Tracking information + last assigned altitude
• Not required if VFR and departing to Class G airspace
• Not required if aircraft has been instructed to contact CEN/APP/DEP once airborne, then above report must be passed to relevant agency
113
When must you be established on track departing from an aerodrome?
• Established on Track within 5NM from the departure aerodrome
114
Can an IFR Flight climb/descend VFR?
Yes
• Must be operating in VMC
• Only in Class D & E airspace
115
When may an aircraft be instructed to track via an IAP
with a ceiling level restriction?
Military aircraft:
• if conducting Non Precision Approach or
• conducting Precision Approach provided that clearance is issued in sufficient
time to allow for aircraft to maintain required descent rate IAW the published
procedure
116
What criteria must be met for ATC Authorisation for Vis App
IFR Flights:
• Within 30NM of the aerodrome
• Can continue flight to aerodrome with continuous vis. ref. to the ground or water
• Visibility along the flight path not less than 5000m (800m for helos) or the aerodrome is constantly in sight
By night:
• As above (except 800m vis) + if being vectored the flight has been assigned the MVA and given the HDG/TRK to intercept final or to position within circling area
VFR Flights:
• Within 30NM of the aerodrome
117
Navigation requirements for IFR flights
• An approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route
• Use of a radio navigation system that allows for possible tracking errors of +/-9 degrees from the last positive fix, the aircraft comes within the rated coverage of the aid and can be used to fix position. Positive fixes must not exceed 2 hours
• Visual reference to the ground or water by day provided weather conditions permit VMC flight and fixing IAW the above can be maintained
118
Navigation requirements for VFR flights
• Visual reference can be maintained with the ground or water
• Must positively fix the aircraft position at intervals not exceeding 30mins
• Must notify if track diverges more than 1NM if operating in controlled airspace
119
VFR Flight on top of more than SCT cloud
• VMC can be maintained during the entire flight including climb, cruise and descent
• Visual position fixing can be met
• Current forecasts and observations indicate that conditions in the area of and period of the planned descent below the cloud layer will permit descent in VMC
• Position at which descent below cloud is planned to occur will ensure VMC flight to be maintained to the destination aerodrome or an alternate aerodrome has been planned for
120
Advice to ATC on aircraft deviations in controlled airspace (nav aids)
• VOR/TACAN – half scale deflection
• NDB - +/- 5 degrees
• DME - +/- 2NM of the required arc
• Area navigation system – can’t comply with specified RNP value
• Visual reference to ground or water – more than 1NM from the cleared route
• If outside of these tolerances, must notify ATC
121
When must you notify ATC of a RAIM outage?
(Think about the different phases of flight)
• Enroute – More than 5 min
• Terminal – Any loss of RAIM or GNSS integrity
• Where ATS requests the provision of GNS-derived info – must notify if unavailable
• Where ATS gives a clearance requiring GNSS derived info
• The GNSS receiever is in dead-reckoning mode, or experiences loss of its navigation function for more than 1 min
122
How long can you lose RAIM before it is considered
unreliable
5 minutes
• Aircraft must use another means of navigation until RAIM can be re-established however the ATS unit should be advised of the restoration before returning to the use of GNSS
123
When is an aircraft considered within the vicinity
of an aerodrome
Within 10 NM of the aerodrome
• And at a height above the aerodrome that could result in a conflict
124
What info must you include in your taxi report?
(IFR)
• Aircraft type
• POB
• IFR
• Taxiing ‘Location’
• For ‘Destination’
• Runway to be used
125
Departure information reporting requirements
Non-surveillance & surveillance
NON-SURVEILLANCE
Departure location and time
Outbound TRK in degrees magnetic
Intended cruising level
Est. for the first en route reporting point
SURVEILLANCE
Current position reference departed AD
Present level
Intended cruising level
Est. for the first en route reporting point
126
What are the military VFR alternate requirements
• Alternate requirements N/A to Army & Navy rotary aircraft operating by day under the VFR
127
For other aircraft, what weather conditions will require an alternate?
Except when operating VFR within 50NM of the point of departure
Cloud - more than SCT below alternate minimum
• 1000’ ceiling VFR
• HAA/HAT + 500’ IFR
Visibility - less than the alternate minimum
• 3000m VFR
• Published minima + 2000m IFR
Visibility - greater than alternate minimum but there’s at least a PROB30 of fog, mist, dust or other that will reduce it below alt. min.
A thunderstorm or SEV TURB or forecast of PROB30 of such event
Wind - crosswind or tailwind that will exceed aircraft limitations
128
Helicopter VMC alternate minima requirements
Class G
• Cloud – more than SCT below 1000ft
• Visibility – less than 3000m
129
If mean conditions are forecast to be suitable but there are intermittent/temporary deteriorations below alternate criteria what must you do?
Hold the fuel for the forecast deterioration
• INTER – 30min
• TEMP – 60min
• Or hold an alternate that is suitable for the weather conditions
• Note: you must hold the more limiting fuel, ie. If there is an INTER and a TEMPO below alternate conditions you must hold for the TEMPO
130
What buffer periods apply for FM or BECMG weather forecasts?
(Both for creating and operational requirements and removing them)
Create an operational requirement:
• 30min before the start of the FM or BECMG period
Remove an operational requirement:
• 30 min after the FM or BECMG period
131
When an aerodrome is receiving a TAF3 service, what requirements can you waive
Only during the first 3 hours of the TAF3
vailidity:
• 30 min buffer periods for FM or BECMG forecasts
• Alternate holding fuel required by:
• 30% prob of reduction in visibility
• PROB30/PROB40 of TS or SEV TURB
132
ADF IFR alternate minima
• Cloud – more than SCT below HAA/HAT + 500ft
• Visibility – less than the distance on the approach + 2000m
• By day only, for aerodromes without an IAP, or the pilot is unable to conduct the IAP – LSALT + 500ft and 8000m vis
133
VFR alternate minima
No heli-VMC
• Ceiling 1500ft
• Vis 8000m
134
IFR alternate minima when considering navigation aids
• Destination is served by a radio navaid with an IAP and the aircraft is fitted with two independent and separate radio navaid systems that are capable of using the aid
• Destination is served by two radio navaids, both of which has IAP and the aircraft is fitted with independent and separate radio navaid systems that are capable of using the aid
• Note: GNSS may be used as a suitable navaid
• Formation aircraft may consider their cumulative equipment total when determining need for alternate
135
VFR by night alternate minima when considering navigation aids
• Destination is served by a ground based navaid and the aircraft/pilot is fitted with a system capable of using the aid
• ADF – the aircraft is fitted with a GNSS receiver appropriate for aircraft to be operated at night under VFR
• NAVY – alternate not req. with respect to navaids for NVD Ops if aircraft is fitted with a suitable navigation system with less than 1NM position error
136
Alternate requirements for RWY Lighting
Lighting alternates required when at night and:
• Destination served only by portable lighting and no responsible person to turn lights on
• No standby power and no portable lighting with no responsible person to turn lights on – NOTE the alternate does not need standby power or standby portable lighting
• Due to EC135 having dual VHF, nil requirement for alternates when using PAL with no responsible person
• Not required when holding fuel to first light +10min
• Not required when on NVGs
137
Can you waive alternate requirements for RWY lighting
Yes
• If you hold fuel for first light plus 10min at the destination
138
Do ADF aircraft require to hold alternates due RWY lighting if using NVD/NVG
No
139
What conditions must you maintain whilst operating under Special VFR?
• Clear of cloud
• Visibility 800m
• Speeds at which the pilot has adequate opportunity to observe traffic/obstacles with sufficient time to avoid confliction
140
Speeds for aircraft performance categories
• A – up to 90KIAS
• B – 91KIAS to 120KIAS
• C – 121KIAS to 140KIAS
• D – 141KIAS to 165KIAS
• E – 166KIAS to 210KIAS
• H – helicopters
141
Obstacle Clearance for aircraft categories
• A & B – 300ft
• C & D – 400ft
• E – 500ft
142
Circling Areas for aircraft categories
• A – 1.68NM
• B – 2.66NM
• C – 4.20NM
• D – 5.28NM
• E – 6.94NM
143
When can an aircraft change performance categories?
Must fit into and be operated IAW only one
category:
• An aircraft may not reduce category because of reduced operating weight
• Must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those determined by Vat
• ADF – if able to operate at a lower category IAW speed restrictions, may decrease their category, subject to MAO (COMFAA) approval
144
What criteria apply to helicopter specific IAP
• Where helicopters are operated similarly to fixed wing they may be classified as CAT A
• Procedures specific to helicopters are:
• Designated CAT H
• Promulgated on separate charts
145
When may you deviate from using a minimum route altitude during IAP?
May not descend below LSALT or MSA until the IAF unless:
• Conducting a visual approach
• Conforming to a published DME/GNSS arrival
• Or when assigned an altitude by ATC
146
How much clearance does a RTCC provide from obstacles?
1000ft
3nm
147
Can you circle in No Circling areas
Yes
• Only in day VMC conditions
148
During visual circling, when can you descend below the MDA?
a. maintains the aircraft within the circling area; and
b. maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and
c. maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (i.e. the runway threshold or approach lighting or other markings identifiable with the runway); and either
d. by night or day, while complying with a., b. and c. and from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg of the landing traffic pattern at an altitude not less than the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates of descent and flight
manoeuvres which are normal for the aircraft type and, during this descent, maintains an obstacle clearance along the flight path not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or
e. in daylight only, while complying with a., b. and c., maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway.
149
When can you descend below the Straight-in MDA?
• visual reference can be maintained;
• all elements of the meteorological minima are equal to or greater than those published for the aircraft performance category and
• the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal flight manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
150
How far offset can a NPA be to a RWY centreline? (Cat)
• CAT A & B – up to 30 degrees offset
• CAT C & D – up to 15 degrees offset
151
When can you manoeuvre to align with the RWY centreline
• within the circling area;
• visual reference can be maintained; and
• continuously in sight of ground or water.
152
What does ‘visual reference’ refer to
• the runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot and a flight visibility not less than that specified for the procedure
153
When must you execute a missed approach?
a. during the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or
b. during an instrument approach and below MSA (as specified on the IAL chart) the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect, or the radio aid fails; or
c. visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences; or
d. a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling; or
e. visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach
154
What minimum obstacle clearance is provided on a missed approach procedure?
100ft
• 2.5% gradient (152ft/NM)
155
The MAPT in a procedure may be
• the point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA; or
• a navigation facility; or
• a fix; or
• a specified distance from the Final Approach Fix (FAF).
156
What must you do if executing a MAP from within the circling area?
Track for the MAPT and follow the MAP
• This involves an initial climbing turn towards the landing RWY and overhead the aerodrome, establishing the aircraft at the MAPT and climbing along the published MAP
157
MAP requirements for GNSS procedures
(RAIM)
• If a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix,
• Provided the RAIM warning ceases when the missed approach is selected on the GNSS equipment, it may be used for missed approach guidance.
• Should the RAIM warning remain when the missed approach is selected, or should there be any doubt about the accuracy of the GNSS, then an alternative means of guidance or dead reckoning must be used to fly the missed approach
158
When may you discontinue an IAP?
(Day)
Within 30NM of that aerodrome at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the
procedure being flown, the aircraft is established;
1) clear of cloud;
2) in sight of ground or water;
3) with a flight visibility not less than 5,000M or, in the case of a helicopter, is able to proceed under helicopter VMC, or the aerodrome is in sight; and
4) subsequently can maintain (1), (2) and (3) at an altitude not less than:
i) if in controlled airspace – 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA unless a clearance is received from ATC to depart and re-enter controlled airspace during the descent; and
ii) the minimum height prescribed by CASR 91.265 or 91.267 as relevant to the location of the aircraft.
159
When may you discontinue an IAP?
(Night)
At an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established:
1) clear of cloud;
2) in sight of ground or water;
3) with a flight visibility not less than 5,000M; and
4) subsequently can maintain (1), (2) and (3) at an altitude not less than:
i) in controlled airspace – 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA unless a clearance is received from ATC to depart and re-enter controlled airspace during descent; and
ii) one of the following:
– route segment LSALT/MSA; or
– the appropriate step of the DME/GNSS Arrival Procedure; or
– if being vectored – the last assigned altitude;
5) until the aircraft is:
– for an aerodrome with an authorised instrument approach procedure that the flight crew members of the aircraft are capable of using – within the prescribed circling area for the category of aircraft or a higher category, where the limitations of the higher category are complied with, or VAA–H, as applicable and the aerodrome is in sight; or
– for an aerodrome without an authorised instrument approach procedure that the flight crew members of the aircraft are capable of using – within 3NM of the aerodrome reference point, and the aerodrome is insight; or
– within 5NM (7NM for a runway equipped with an ILS/GLS) of the aerodrome, aligned with the runway centreline and established not below “on slope” on the T-VASIS or PAPI; or
– within 10NM (14NM for Runways 16L and 34L at Sydney) of the aerodrome, established not below the ILS/GLS glide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection
160
Handling Speeds for IAP procedures
(CAT A)
Vat
<91
Range of Speeds for Initial and intermediate Approach
90-150 (110 for reversals)
Range of Final Approach Speeds
70-100
Max Speeds for Visual Manoeuvring (Circling)
100
Max Speeds for Missed Approach
110
161
Handling Speeds for IAP procedures
(CAT H)
Vat
N/A
Range of Speeds for Initial and intermediate Approach
70-120
Range of Final Approach Speeds
60-90
Max Speeds for Visual Manoeuvring (Circling)
N/A
Max Speeds for Missed Approach
90
162
Visibility amendment required for a partial RWY lighting failure?
Published minima x 1.5
• Only in conditions less than VMC
163
Standard Descent Gradients
For phases of IAP
KEY
SEGMENT: GRADIENT
NORMAL | MAXIMUM
Arrival: As required | As required
Initial: 4% | 8%
Intermediate: Level | 5%
Final:
Non precision App - 5.2% | 6.5%
Precision App - 3° | Not applicable
164
What does “established” mean?
• Within half full scale deflection of the ILS, VOR and GNSS
• Within 5 degrees of the required NDB bearing
• Within 2NM of the DME arc
165
What obstacle clearance does an MSA provide?
1000ft
166
When can you commence an IAP without entering the hold?
a. in controlled airspace, ATC has cleared the aircraft for the approach;
b. in any airspace, for procedures using radio navaids:
1) the reversal procedure entry requirements of are satisfied; of
2) the DME arc entry requirements of are satisfied; or
3) the en route track to the procedure’s commencement fix or facility is within 30° either side of the first track of the procedure.
c. for procedures using GNSS:
1) in any airspace, the aircraft is tracking to an initial approach waypoint from within the capture region for that waypoint; or
2) in controlled airspace, the aircraft is being vectored to intercept the initial approach segment or is tracking direct to the intermediate fix.
Note to c.(1): The first track of a GNSS procedure must be joined using the tracking guidance provided by the GNSS receiver.
Note to c.(2): “direct to” clearances may be requested to the intermediate fix (IF) provided that the resultant track change at the IF does not exceed 45°
167
Reversal Procedures
(Types and geometry)
1) 45 / 180 Procedure Turn
2) 80 / 260 Procedure Turn
3) Base turns (1/2/3 min or DME distance)
168
Direct entry limitation for entering a reversal procedure
Within +/- 30 degrees of the outbound track
169
Limitations in Holding Patterns?
- Outbound timing commencement
- Time/distance outbound
- Turns
• Timing. Starts overhead or abeam the fix (whatever is later) for the published time or DME limit (to a max of 1.5mins in sector 2), starts abeam or wings level (whatever is later) for sector 3.
• Turns. All turns in nil wind should be at a bank angle of 25° or Rate One, whichever requires the lesser bank.
170
IFR Altimeter setting limits
• Should read within 60ft of aerodrome elevation
• If one altimeter has discrepancy of between 60-75ft then can fly IFR until the first point of landing then be reassessed
• If more than 75ft then considered U/S
171
VFR Altimeter setting limits
• Should read to site elevation within 100ft
(110ft at test sites above 3,300ft)
172
Minimum altitude for autorotation training
Aircraft autorotation to hover not below 15ft
173
What lighting is required for embarked or overwater utility operations
Serviceable HEELS
174
Alternate aerodrome: planning consids
WX conds
Radio navaids + GPS reqs
Nominated flight rules
RWY lighting
