Adv Syst Flashcards
1
Q
Name the materials used in the construction of the EC135 T2+ fuselage
A
Aluminium
Composite materials
Acrylic Plastic
Titanium
2
Q
What are the 3 main fuselage sections?
A
Cabin structure
Main fuselage structure
Rear structure
3
Q
The primary function of the centre (or control) post is to?
A
House vertical pushrods
4
Q
In forward flight, the horizontal stabiliser creates a downforce, which will then pitch the nose of the aircraft?
A
Up
5
Q
The cabin roof structure is constructed from composite materials, there for it is a ( ) area.
A
No-Step
6
Q
The body structure, which carries the flight and landing gear loads is composed primarily of what material?
A
Aluminium alloy
7
Q
The horizontal stabiliser end-plates, the vertical stabiliser and the tail bumper are all canted to one side in order to?
A
Prove lift in order to counter the torque effect produced by the main rotor system.
8
Q
Cargo door can only be operated from?
A
Outside the aircraft.
9
Q
The cockpit doors can be placed in the spoiler position in order to?
A
Allow for increased forward speeds wit hthe main cabin doors open.
10
Q
According to RFM 9.2-61, the cockpit doors are only to be jettisoned after?
A
Touchdown
11
Q
All six doors in the HATS EC135 are constructed of?
A
Composite material
12
Q
In an emergency, the entire main cabin sliding door can be jettisoned. (T/F)
A
FALSE
Only the window can be jettisoned
13
Q
The gas springs, used on the cockpit and cargo doors, are used to hold these doors…
A
Open
14
Q
The main cabin doors can only be locked in the clocked position (T/F)
A
FALSE
15
Q
Maintenance steps must be _____ in order to prevent damage to the cabin sliding door when the cabin door is being opened.
A
Closed
16
Q
The three hand operated access panels on each side of the fairing assembly are:
A
Transmission / oil cooler
Forward engine
Aft engine
17
Q
An engine cowling latch left open, will displat what colour to an outside observer?
A
Red
18
Q
The fuel filler neck access door must be opened with a ?
A
Key
19
Q
The external power receptacle access door / point should be opened with your _____ and has an _____ connection point.
A
Hand
Intercommunications System
20
Q
The landing gear provides a mounting point for what 3 other items?
A
Wire deflectors
Emergency float system floats
Ground handling wheels
21
Q
The landing skids are structurally attached to the aluminium cross tubes via?
A
Shoes with clamping rings
22
Q
In order to provide additional ground clearance the HATS EC135 aircraft is fitted with the _______ height landing gear.
A
Intermediate
23
Q
The skids plates are installed on the landing gear in order to provide a ___________ for the landing gear
A
Sacrificial wear surface
24
Q
Grounding straps electrically connect the fuselage to the cross tubes and the crosstubes to the ?
A
Skids
25
The purpose of the wire strike protection system (WSPS) is to?
Provide a measure of protection against collision with horizontally strung wires and cables.
26
Cockpit seats have a ___ point restraint harness
5
27
Cabin seats have a __ point restraint harness
4
28
Cabin seats can/cannot be adjusted for/aft and vertically by the crew.
Cannot
29
Cockpit seats have a _____ shoulder harness inertia reel, unlike the cabin seats
Lockable
30
List 3 characteristics of the cockpit seats.
Five point restraint harness
Shoulder belts with lockable interia reel
Adjustable lumbar support
31
List 3 characteristrics of the Martin-Baker main cabin seats
Four point restraint harness
Shoulder belts wth lockable inertia reel
Rotatable for 360 degrees.
32
Stowage under seating in the EC 135 is ____
Prohibited
33
Max floor loading is _____ kg/m2
600
34
One common characteristic of both the cockpit and Martin-Baker seats is that they are both ______ attenuating
Crash
35
Aircraft documentation must be stored in the _____ -hand door pockets as this mass/location has already been taken into account for aircaft weight and balance purposes.
Right
36
Each tie-down ring is rated at ____ Kg when correctly installed in the floor.
100
37
What are the three sections of the instrument panel called?
Left hand section
Centre Section
Right hand section
38
Venting lines allow the equalisation of ____ across the different tanks
Pressure
39
Thermal expansion of fuel will cause the excess fuel to flow into the _____ tank, which can hold 14L
Expansion
40
The RH (No. 2 engine) supply tanks is _____Kgs smaller than the LH tank due to a foam core.
4.5
41
What is the total fuel in the tanks
Main tank 474.5
LH Supply Tank 49
RH Supply tank 44.5
Total 568
Unusable 7.6
42
If we burn 200kg/hr how much fuel do we burn in a minute?
3.3 kgs/min
43
Which supply tank has a foam core in it and why?
The right (SYS II) tank
So that both engines dont flame out at once and allows us 1 more minute to land.
44
Crash worthy adaptations of the EC135 fuel system.
Flexible, impact resistant fuel tanks
Flexible hoses for supply and ventiation
Suction type fuel feed to the engines
Fuel supply shut-off in the case of engine fire
Fuselage structure supporting the tanks
45
Fuel is provided from the main tank to the two supply tanks through the use of two _____ pumps
Transfer
46
Fuel is provided under pressure from the supply tanks to the engines during start by the ______ pumps
Prime
47
The F PUMP AFT/FWD caution light will appear after the pump has not pumped any fuel for ____ minutes
3
48
Another way to shut off fuel to the engines, besides the ENG-IDLE-FLIGHT switch, would be to depress the ___ button on the warning panel.
EMER OFF SW (FIRE)
49
Once an engine has been started, turning off the PRIME pumps will?
Do nothing to the engine as the engine will now draw fuel from the supply tank on its own.
50
How much fuel remains in the supply tanks when a 'FUEL' caution on the CAD appears
36 kgs SYS I
32 kgs SYS II
51
How much fuel remains in the supply tanks when a 'LOW FUEL' warning light comes on?
32 kgs in SYS I or 28 kgs in SYS II
52
How much flight time do you have when the LOW FUEL warning light comes on?
10 min as per RFM
53
How long will a transfer pump "run dry" for before indicating on the CAD?
3 min
54
If both transfer pumps failed, the only fuel you would be able to access would be the fuel in the ____ tanks
Supply
55
If the CAD lane fails, would you have any remaining indications of fuel quantity?
Yes, LOW FUEL (SYS I SYS II) warning and gong will still work.
56
If the CAD displats 300Kg of fuel remaining, but the LOW FUEL warning has come on, which is assumed to be correct?
The warning
57
To turn on all lights in the main cabin, the pilot would select PAX/CARGO switch to the ________ position
PAX/CARGO
58
The standby horizon lighting setting is ________ of instrument lighting setting
Independent
59
Placing the Emergency Exit (HEEL) cockpit switch on will activate the EXIT and HEEL lights (excluding ________)
Sliding doors
60
What are the three settings for the instrument lights?
Day, night, NVG
61
Can the overhead panel instrument light brightness be adjusted?
No
62
The HEEL switch in the cockpit, when placed in the ARM position will allow the HEEL system to be activated when?
Total power loss
Crash landing
Contact with water
63
Can you see the white position light when an EC135 is flying directly at you?
No
64
Are the position lights, anti-cols and formation lights NVD compatible
Yes
65
Can the landing light be slewed in any direction?
No it is fixed
66
Can the search light be slewed?
Yes
67
Do both the landing and search light have an IR operating mode or just the search light?
No, only the search light has an IR mode.
68
What two indications are available in the cockpit as a warning for the fire detecting system?
Visual warning on the warning panel and Audio (Bell)
69
How many fire detectors are on each engine?
Two on each
70
What is the main purpose of the engine fire wall?
To prevent the fire from spreading
71
The engine fire extinguisher system consists of ____ extinguishing agent bottle(s) and tubing to both engines
One
72
The fire detection elements are located under what engine components?
Under the starter generators and combustion chamber casing
73
Pressing the FIRE button will always release the extinguishing agent? (T/F)
False
74
Once the floats have been activated, how long do they take to inflate?
4 seconds
75
What is the max permissible airspeed with floats inflated?
80 kts
76
Where and how are the floats activated?
Pilot and Co-pilot collective headbutton - lift flap and depress
77
What is the maximum height for float inflation?
5000ft
78
What is the maximum airspeed with the OFF-ARM-TEST switch in the ARM position?
Vne
79
Where are the float circuit breakers located?
Essential bus 1 and 2 on the overhead panel
80
For calm water operations, what is the recommended touch down speed with EFS activated?
Up to 30 kts
81
What is the maximum rate of climb with the floats inflated?
1500ft/min
82
What additional item must be fitted to the skids when the floats and hoist are fitted?
Cable deflector
83
What is the purpose of the HEEL system?
To guide crew / passengers to exits in the event of ditched or submerged helicopter
84
The extinguishing agent in the portable fire extinguisher is:
HALON
85
The ELT transmits on what frequencies?
406 and 121.5 MHz
86
The ELT will transmit a GPS location even when removed from the aircraft. (T/F)
True
87
The portable fire extinguisher gauge must be within the _____ band to be considered servicable
Green
88
Where is the first aid kit located?
Clam shell door left hand side
89
What is the main purpose of the cockpit camera?
To record video and audio to it's internal media
90
Video from the cockpit camera can only be viewed
On the ground through the external playback software
91
EMER EX LT switch to ARM - activated the EXIT-lights and the HEEL system in case of a total power loss, a crash landing or ________
Contact with water
92
Where is the CVFDR located?
On the tail boom. underneath the left hand side engine cowl
93
The purpose of the data transfer unit is to?
Record maintenance data
94
MARMS is utilised for what?
Acquires and stores flight data and usage monitoring of components
95
The cockpit camera (Does/does not) send information over to the CVFDR
Does NOT
96
The CVFDR will record cockpit voice info for ____ minutes before it is overwritten
120
97
The Data Tranfer Unit records the UMS data on a ____________ for further analysis by maintenance.
PCMCIA card
98
What does the engine provide for the aircraft?
TQ, bleed air and electrical power
99
Is the Gas Generator shaft connected to the Power Turbine shaft?
No, completely independent of eachother (Free turbine)
100
Principle of operation for Turbomeca ARRIUS 2B2 Engine
Suck squeeze bang blow
101
What does the N1 figure on the VEMD indicate
Gas generator rpm as a percentage
102
What N is the power turbine referred to as
N2, because it is powered after the gas generator
103
Which shafts drive the reduction and accessory geartrains, respectively
N1 for accessory (Gas generator)
N2 for reduction geartrain (Power turbine)
104
Where is N1 displayed?
VEMD
105
What does the N2 needle on the triple tacho indicate
N2 rpm as a percentage
106
What is the purpose of the reduction geartrain?
Reduces the power turbine speed to a suitable speed for the main transmission input
107
What is the purpose of the accessory drivetrain?
Provide appropriate speed reduction to turn all engine accessories
108
What items does the engine accessory drivetrain drive?
Starter/generator, oil pump, alternator and the fuel pump
109
When acting as a starter, the starter/generator will turn which "N"
The N1, to run up the gas generator assembly for engine start
110
What is the purpose of the oil system?
To ensure lubrication and cooling of the engine
111
If we see ENG CHIP on the left side of the CAD what does that mean?
Engine 1 has metal particles caught by one of the 2 magnetic plugs
112
How many times can we activate the ENGO CHIP switch
Only once per chip caution indication. ie. if it goes away you may do a second
Follow checklist
113
What do you do if the engine oil is not between MIN/MAX?
Contact maintenance
114
What are the oil cooling fans driven by?
Main transmission
115
This pump draws oil from the tank and delivers it to the engine areas that require lubrication and cooling?
Pressure pump draws oil from the tank and delibers it under pressure to the engine.
116
How many pressure pumps vs scavenge pumps are in the system?
1x pressure
2x scavenge
117
What is the purpose of the Fuel Pump Unit?
It supplies fuel under determined conditions of pressure and flow set by the FADEC
118
Where are the engine fuel pumps and what are they driven by?
Theyre mounted on the front face of the reduction gearbox and driven by the N1 geartrain
119
If you see the FUEL FILT on the right side of the CAD, what does this mean?
The fuel filter caution on the CAD indicates an impending opening of the #2 engine by-pass due to a clogged filter element
120
How many and what sort of injectors are utilised in the fuel injection system?
12 total
9 main injectors
1 preference injector and
2 additional starter injectors
121
Which injectors are utilised during engine start?
Only the 2 starter injectors deliver fuel until 50% N1
After 50% N1 the main/preference injectors take over delibering fuel to the combustion chamber
122
What is special about the 1 preference injector during normal ops?
If fuel flow is reduced significantly the main injectors stop however the 1 preference injector continues delivering fuel to avoid engine flame out.
123
What are the three different operating modes that the Fuel Metering Unit can be in?
Auto, manual, mixed
124
Which twist grip manually controls the LH and RH engines?
LH is TOP TWIST (slide)
RH is BOTTOM TWIST (bumpy)
125
What button must you press on the collective if you were to manually cut fuel to an engine?
The OFF or STOP MIN FUEL button
126
What ocntrols the engine start sequence?
EECU which activates the ignition system
127
On engine start, at what n1 speed does the ignition system shut off?
After reaching 50% the starter control relay disconnects the ignition circuit
Changes to generator mode
128
How much voltage and where does the ignition system get its energy from for the engine start sequence?
24VDC from MSTR BAT, EPU or other engine generator
129
Besides a FADEC malfunction, what are 2 methods that can take the engines out of automode
Engine mode set to MAN
Twist grip moved away from neutral position
130
If we had a double generator failure, would the FADEC stop working?
No the alternator from the accessory geartrain provides power to the FADEC regardless of generator output
131
If the engines were running, what would happen if you turned the engines control panel FADEC switch off?
The FADEC would remain on. Greator than 50% N1, powered by alternator which is driven by the accessory gear train.
132
What does setting the VENT/OFF switch to VENT on the engine mode select panel do?
The starter/generator will run up the gas generator assembly to approx 20% N1 byt the engine ignition system is deactivated and the fuel remains shut off
133
What happens to the fuel flow of an engine if it is entered into manual mode?
It freezes at the point it enters manual mode, no change to fuel flow until it is incurred by the pilot
134
What components make up the FADEC?
EECU and manual back-up mode (Collective grips)
135
What is the FADECs primary task?
Controls the corresponding turbo shaft engine and provides interfaces to the other FADEC as well as to the aircraft for data interchange
136
What are 2 of the FADEC primary functions?
Fuel supply,
auto engine control,
auto torque matching,
engine and power monitoring
power turbine over-speed protection
governs Nr according to DA
137
What is the crosstalk capability and what does it provide?
Allows the engines to cross reference eachother and detects manual mode
OEI situations,
Training mode activation,
Auto bleed shutoff
Auto torque matching
138
When does the engine become self sustaining?
50% N1
139
When do we turn engine fuel prime pumps off?
IAW checklist
140
At what DA does N2 automatically increase?
DA from 4500ft to 9500ft the n2 speed is automatically increased from 100.5% to approx 103.5
141
If you beep the ENG TRIM switch on the collective to the left, what occurs?
The TQ on the LH eng accelerates and the RH Eng decelerates
142
What 2 things are required to return the engine fuel system back into the normal auto mode?
Check NORM on the overhead panel and twist grips back to neutral
143
What is droop compensation and how does it work?
To prevent a decrease in NR the FADEC anticipates this situation using signals from LVDTs
144
When is HI NR mode activated in civilian EC135?
Gross mass above 2835kg
145
When does 723sqn activate HI NR
Always
146
If HI NR is selected, what airspeed does HI NR deactivate/activate
Deactivates 55KIAS
Activates 50KIAS
147
Where does the HI NR receive its airspeed data from and what happens if this information is blocked?
ADC 2. HI NR automatically activates if the HI NR pushbutton is on
148
What happens to torque as NR slows from 95% and 90% in OEI
TQ increases 1% for every NR 1% decrease
149
What does it mean if you see OVSP and ENG FAIL?
Engine is shut down due to overspeed
150
Name the components of a hydraulic system
Sight glass
Fluid level indicator
Reservoir
Hydraulic line
Hydraulic pump
Valve block
151
What flight control actuator will no longer be boosted with a loss of #2 hydraulic system?
Tail rotor
152
Both hydraulic pumps are driven by?
Transmission accessory drive gearboxes
153
The hydraulic reservoir sightglass must display what percentage?
50%
154
With the HYD test switch selected to SYS 2, what cockpit and flight control indication would you expect to see or feel?
SYS 1 Caution as it has been closed
Nil change to flight control feel
155
The HYD Test can only be performed when?
On the ground
156
Where no control input is present in a follow up HYD system, which compenent blocks the pumps pressure from reaching the boost cylinder?
The control spool
157
What AFCS control systems can provide an input signal into an EHA?
SAS and auto pilot inputs
158
The Pitch, collective and roll hydraulic actuators are __ stage actuators
Dual/2
159
Which hydraulic system supplies the electro-hydraulic component of the EHAs?
HYD system 1
160
What type of hydraulic actuator does the collective have and what is its location within the main rotor hydraulic pack?
MHA
In the middle
161
Loss of the #1 hydraulic system will result in the degredation of the _____ and _____ Stability Augmentation System (SAS) channels.
Pitch, roll
162
Hydraulic systems work due to the underlying principles that liquids do not?
Compress
163
The single-stage tail rotor hydraulic actuator receives hydraiulic pressure only from the ________ hydraulic system
#2
164
In the event of a loss of the #2 hydraulic system, the tail rotor will
Be controlled as normal, but with higher control forces
165
The tail rotor actuators use the same follow-up principle as the MHA/EHA (T/F)
TRUE
166
The collective lever changes the pitch angle of the main rotor blades ______ and at the same ____
Equally; time
167
Cyclic controls change the angle of incidence of ________ blades as they pass ______ in the main rotor disc
the individual;
a position
168
Yaw pedal input change the pitch angle of each tail rotor blade ___ and at the same _____
equally;
time
169
Components of a collective
Collective pitch lever
Collective shaft
Control Rod
Upper guidance unit
horizontal control rod
main rotor actuator
170
Components of cyclic
Cyclic control run
Cyclic stick
lower horizontal pitch control rod
lower guidance unit
vertical push rod (roll and pitch)
upper guidance unit
upper horizontal control rod
main rotor actuator and EHA
171
What colour is the collective control rod?
White
172
What colour is the Cyclic-roll control rod
Red band
173
What colour is the Cyclic- Pitch control rod
Black
174
The cyclic centring device and collective lock are used in what flight regime?
None. Ground turn use only
175
Looking forward name the MHA/EHAs from left to right
(LH SIDE) Roll, collective, (RH SIDE) pitch
176
EHA are located on what control channels?
Pitch and roll
177
What does the vibration decoupling linkage do?
Tilt upper guidance unit forward/aft to prevent control inputs caused by flight load induced transmission movement
178
Name the swashplate components
Sliding sleeve
Cardan ring - gimbal
Control ring
Bearing ring
179
Function of the swashplate assembly is to?
Convert stationary control inputs into rotating outputs
180
The collective fork will lift up which swashplates when the collective is raised?
Both stationary and rotating swashplates
181
Components of the rotor head?
Short control rod
Control ring
Bearing ring
Scissor assembly
Rotating control rods
Pitch horn
182
What function does the mast moment indicator provide?
Measures and indicates in the cockpit any rotor mast bending moments
183
Flex beam purpose
Lead lag flap feather
184
What feature allows the discharge of static electricity from the helicopter
Static discharger riveted to the blade trailing edge in the blade tip area
Electrical conductive strap
185
What sort of main rotor system does the HATS EC135 T2+ have?
A bearing-less, hinge-less 4-blade main rotor head
186
Tail rotor purpose
Used to control the amount of thrust that is produced by the tail rotor
187
The tail rotor unit performs the function of a ______ for the tail rotor.
Swashplate
188
The ____ cable transmits the control movements from the pilots bellcrank to the dual yaw actuators in the fenestron structure
Flexball
189
How many small blades does the tail rotor have
10 stator
10 tail rotor
190
What does the shroud do?
Reduce drag
191
Components of the tail rotor system
Pitch control/yaw SEMA
Stator blade (10)
Tail rotor blade (10)
Pitch horn
Tail rotor gear box
Sight glass (oil)
Track and balance sensors
Chip detector
192
The trim system provides an artificial control feel to the cyclic system through the use of
Force gradiant springs
193
Front and back trim motors do?
Longitudal - Pitch(front)
Latitudal - ROLL (Back)
194
What are the power sources for the essential busbar and which provides power during normal AEO operations?
Generators and battery
Generator provides power during normal AEO operations with battery as a backup.
195
Electrical systems that in the event of an electrical power loss are still necessary for safe flight are termed to be?
Essential
196
Where does the starter get its power from for starting the engine?
Battery, epu, or other generator if running
197
What is the purpose of a busbar?
To receive then distribute electrical power to a group of aircraft systems
198
In normal AEO operations where do the shedding busbars receive power from?
Generators through primary busbars
199
The battery provides how many volts DC?
24 volts DC
200
What kind of battery is it? (Materials)
Nickel Cadmium
201
The battery master box's function is to?
Control and monitor the operation of the battery
202
The avionics master switches connect power to the avionics sections of which buses?
Avionics ESS BUS 1 &2
Avionics SHED BUS 1 & 2
203
If the generator fails or a bus tie is opened, which busbars are automatically disconnected?
High Load Busbars
204
The GEN I and GEN II switches are located on the?
Engine Switch Assembly
205
Does the battery need to be connected before external power is applied to the aircraft?
Yes, to prevent damage to the aircraft electrical system
206
How many generators have to fail before the Shedding buses are automatically disconnected?
2
207
What cockpit switch allows you to reconnect the Shedding buses after they have been disconnected?
SHED BUS
208
DC power is converter to AC power in the EC135 by use of an?
Inverter
209
The inverter is referred to as #2 because it receives DC power from?
Essential Busbar #2
210
The inverter converts 28 DC into what VAC and at what frequency?
26VAC 400Hz
115VAC 400Hz
211
Name one of the aircraft components mentioned in class that requires AC power
AHRS1
Roll SAS
Weather Radar
Ice detector
Pitch SAS
212
The two HATS EC135 high power electrical consumers are??
Air Conditioning System
Winch
213
The winch receives its power from the ?
#1 Primary Bus
214
What is the primary role of the main rotor drives?
Transmit power from both engines to the main and tail rotors and auxiliary units
215
What do the flexible couplings at each end of the engine drive shaft do?
They correct misalignment between the engine outputs and the main transmission inputs
216
Where are the 2 freewheel units and what do they do for the main transmission?
Part of the input drive
They allow power to be transmitted only from the engines to the main transmission. They prevent a reverse power flow from the main transmission to the engines
217
What important component is located between the tail rotor drive shaft and the main transmission?
Rotor brake disc adapter
218
What is the primary role of the main transmission gearing?
It reduces input RPM to main rotor, tail rotor and accessories
219
What type of oil sump system does the main transmission have and what are the oil systems primary functions?
Wet sump oil system for oil lubrication and cooling
220
How many oil pumps does the main transmission oil system have and why?
2 in the lower gearbox casing for redundancy
221
If you find the main transmission oil filter pop-up button extended, what does this mean and what would you do?
It is the oil filter pre-clogging indicator. Tell maintenance
222
Where are the oil coolers mounted?
Directly abeam and either side of the main transmission
223
What draws the air to the oil cooler for cooling?
The cooler fans driven by the main transmission accessory drive.
224
If you see XMSN OIL T on the CAD, what does it mean?
Main tansmission oil temp outside limits
225
How many chip detectors are there in the main transmission lubrication system and where are they?
1 which is fitted in the 1 common suction line for both oil pumps
226
If both main transmission oil pumps had failed, what indications would you receive in the cockpit?
XMSN OIL P both sides
XMSN OIL P warning unit
Gong
227
How do you check the oil level of the main transmission and what if the level is outside of the MIN/MAX marks
Sight glass at the rear RH side of the transmission below RH input drive. Advise maintenance.
228
How do we activate the rotor brake in the aircraft?
By pulling down on the rotor brake lever in the overhead panel.
229
Below what rotor RPM should we operate the rotor break?
Below 50% Nr with both engines shut down
230
How much time do we need between rotor break applications?
10 minutes
231
What 2 parameters have to be met before ROTOR BRK illuminates on the CAD and why?
The rotor brake lever must be engaged and the rotor turning
The microswitch is only depressed when the brake is engaged and the brake disk starts turning
232
What does the main transmission accessory drive operate?
The hydraulic pumps and the oil cooler fans
233
Where is the rotor brake system attached and what is its primary function?
Attached between the tail rotor drive shaft and the main transmission it enables the main and tail rotors to be brought to a standstill
234
How is the main transmission connected to the airframe?
By four ARIS dampers. One side load strut and 2 torque struts
235
What is the main purpose of the main transmission mounts?
They transmit the main rotor forces and moments into the helicopter airframe
236
What is the purpose of the ARIS system?
A spring/mass damper used to isolate vibration between the rotor system and the fuselage
237
What is the purpose of each emergency stop mounted above each damper?
Supports transmission if the primary bellows of the ARIS fails
238
Where is the mass/spring damper and what does it do?
In the fuselage below the co-pilots feet and it compensates for main rotor lateral vibrations
239
The purpose of the tail rotor drive system is to?
Transmits the power from the main rotor transmission to the tail rotor
240
The purpose of the tail rotor gear box?
Drive tail rotor
Reduce speed from drive shaft
Divert the direction of power flow through 90degrees by means of two bevel gears
241
The tail rotor gear box is equipped with an electrical chip detector which indicates on the CAD (T/F)
True
242
The PAX/BLW siwtch has how many positions?
Three (ON OFF ENABLE)
243
When the PAX/BLW switch is placed to the ON position, the PAX blower will run at ____% speed
100%
244
When the PAX/BLW switch is placed to the ENABLE position, the PAX blower will run at what speed?
Variable speed, based on the rheostat
245
CPDS OVHT occurs at what temp?
55C
246
When will the cockpit blower automatically activate and what indication would you get on the CAD?
It will activate if CPDS is above 45C
Nil indication on CAD
247
To bring fresh air in. Air Circulation knob must be?
Fully up
248
The air conditioning compressor is powered by
The main gear box
249
An additional component added with the air conditioning system was the addition of cockpit and cabin _______ assemblies
Evaporator
250
In order to run the air-conditioner safely, the VENT SYS rheostat in the cockpit must be?
ON
251
During postflight, water under the DF receivers and search light? Abornmal or normal?
Normal. Condensation from the cockpit evaporator draining out
252
The air-conditioner will automatically disengage when the _____ is actuated for hoist ops
CABLE CUT - ARM
253
The airconditioner will auto disengage when....
GEN I & II are offline
Engine I & II are offline
254
What is the recommended max airspeed for windshield wiper operation?
80 knots
255
When should the ice detection system test be carried out?
After engine start, when expected min OAT is <5C
256
Where are the windshield wiper switches located?
Overhead
Cyclic head
257
Pilots should operate wiper only when the windshield is______
wet
258
The Ice Detection system aspirator is driven by _____ air from the engines
Bleed
259
Allow the ice rating sensor to cool down for atleast ___ minutes between built-in test and preflight system check
10
260
According to the flight manual, flight in icing conditions is _______
Prohibited
261
The last 20 feet of the hoist cable are painted what colour?
Orange
262
The pyrotechnic cable cutter can be initiated from buttons located on the?
ACMNs hoist control pendant
Pilot/Co-Pilot collective head
263
If the pyrotechnic cable cutter failed to cut th winch cable, the ACMN could use the ________ as a last resort to cut the cable.
Hand cable cutter
264
The hoise cable breaking strength is ______ pounds
3330
265
What is the total length of the hoist cable?
Total length of the hoist cable is 90m
266
Who are the winch wire abnormalities reported to?
Maintenance
267
Which crewmembers can move the hoist boom out and in?
All
268
Which crewmembers can lower the hoist cable?
All
269
The time to fully extend or retract the hoist boom?
7.5 SECONDS
270
Where is the pilot hoist control located?
On the collective lever
271
To adjust the volume of the VHF frequency in the GTN750 which knob do we use on the ACP?
VHF2
272
What 4 methods do we have to activate the ICS (excluding hoist/hook pendant controllers)?
VOX
1 click cyclic trigger
ICS/TX toggle switch on ACP
PTT switches on cabin drop leads
273
To monitor VHF2, what selection do we make on the ACP?
VHF2 push-button in the extended position; or rotary transmit on VHF2
274
How many ACP are there?
4
275
How could the left hand seat pilot transmit without flight controls?
ICS/TX switch
276
Which radio can we use with just the BAT MSTR switch on?
VHF2 (gtn750)
277
Garmin GTN650 and 750 transcievers provide two way communication in the ____ frequency band
VHF
278
The active frequency is shown as what?
Green
279
Which device uses the SATCOM?
GTN750
280
Where is the sat phone antenna?
Behind Vert Stab
281
Which radios can we use to transmit 282.8MHz?
TAC1 & 2
282
Which radios in the aircraft can we use to transmit on 118?
VHF1, VHF2, TAC1, TAC2
283
Where are the tac radio antennas?
Sharkfin top engine
Fenestron
284
Which radios can we use to relay and simulcast?
TAC1, TAC2
285
Which device do we use to enter ATC?
IFF
286
HATS EC135 only provides ADS-B for?
Out only
287
Quickest way to enter the ATC emergency code of 7700 would be to use the ______
OFF-STBY-NORM-EMER rotary
288
The FLI normally appears in Lane ___ of the VEMD?
1
289
The pointer parameter will automatically default to ____ for engine start up
TOT
290
The CPDS is the collective term for which 2 components?
CAD and VEMD
291
How will a new caution be displayed on the CAD and how does the pilot acknowledge it?
Flashing yellow bars, new caution displayed on CAD, master caution illuminated
reset switch on cyclic
or the select function key
292
How long can you remain in the OEI HI range?
30 Seconds
293
What indication is there that you have 5 seconds remaining in the OEI band limit?
The red LIMIT warning will flash
294
The VEMD would indicate an engine parameter in the Maximum range by underlining the text with a _____ line
Red
295
Three operating modes of the CPDS
Normal mode (3 screens)
Derivative mode (2 screens)
Back-up mode (1 screen)
296
What will the FIRE button always do?
Shut off fuel to the engine even if there is no fire
297
What sound will Low rotor below 97% make?
Pulsed tone
298
What sound will BAT TEMP make?
Gong
299
What sound will FIRE make?
Bell
300
What does the EXT button do?
Displays weather radar overlay on the ND
301
Can the starter/generator operate as both a starter and a generator concurrently?
No. Operates as a starter until 50% N1 then as a generator
302
How many boost pistons are there in a single EC 135 T2+ MHA/EHA?
1
303
wWhat is meant by the term power sharing
When the system governs and optimizes the performance of the engines and adjusts relative to each other.
The datum is N2 set to 100.5 under normal flight conditions
