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Taste > Weeks 1, 2, 3 > Flashcards

Weeks 1, 2, 3 Flashcards

1
Q

the action of tasting

A

gustation

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2
Q

smelling

A

olfaction

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3
Q

organisms detect chemicals using

A

chemoreceptors

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4
Q

What are the chemical senses?

A
  1. taste
  2. smell
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5
Q

What 5 behaviours do chemical stimuli play an important role in?

A
  1. feeding and food preference
  2. territorial recognition
  3. avoiding predators
  4. mating
  5. social activities
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6
Q

What are 4 internal chemical monitors?

A
  1. blood
  2. glucose
  3. CO2
  4. pH
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7
Q

What are 4 external chemical monitors

A
  1. taste
  2. smell
  3. pheromones
  4. chemesthesis
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8
Q

What is the new definition of taste?

A

metabolic sense

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9
Q

the anatomically defined chemical stimulation of specific receptors leading to the perception of the primary modalities

A

Old definition of taste

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10
Q

With regards to the transduction of chemical signals, external chemicals can do what two things?

A
  1. interact with receptors on the plasma membrane
    - metabolic receptors
    - ionotropic receptors
    - ion channels
  2. cross the cell membrane to directly interact with secondary messenger systems or intracellular receptors
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11
Q

What are the 3 appetitive tastes?

A
  1. sweet
  2. umami
  3. salty
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12
Q

This taste includes sugars/carbohydrates which provide metabolic energy

A

sweet

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13
Q

This taste includes a meaty/savory taste

A

umami

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14
Q

This taste senses ions critical for cellular function

A

salty

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15
Q

What are the 3 aversive tastes?

A
  1. bitter
  2. sour
  3. too salty
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16
Q

This taste senses broad-spectrum of potentially poisonous compounds

A

bitter

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17
Q

This taste may help detect rotting food

A

sour

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18
Q

This taste causes excessive dehydration

A

too salty

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19
Q

What are examples of salty taste qualities?

A
  1. NaCl
  2. LiCl

(minerals)

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20
Q

What are examples of Umami?

A
  1. glutamate
  2. aspartate
  3. nucleotides

(proteins, calories)

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21
Q

What is an example of sour taste?

A

acids

(ripeness)

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22
Q

What are examples of sweet taste?

A
  1. sugars
  2. high intensity sweeteners

(calories for plant eating animals)

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23
Q

What are examples of bitter tastes?

A
  1. alkaloids
  2. peptides
  3. toxins

(poison avoidance, nutrient recognition?)

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24
Q

What are 6 non-conventional taste qualities?

A
  1. fat taste
    - tactile sensation
    - have own taste receptors
  2. carbonation
  3. metallic taste
  4. kokumi
    - flavour enhancement mediated by calcium channels
  5. starch
  6. water
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25
Q

What are 4 additional taste modalities?

A
  1. calcium
  2. water
  3. CO2
  4. pyrophosphates
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26
Q

What three things make up flavour?

A
  1. taste
  2. olfaction
  3. chemical irritation
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27
Q

What are the 3 functions of flavour?

A
  1. evaluate food and drink
  2. motivate ingestion or rejection
  3. act as a trigger for “cephalic phase” of digestion and metabolism
    - initiates exocrine and endocrine responses that anticipate arrival of food in gut
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28
Q

Is taste involved in dietary preference?

A

it could be, but there’s little data from humans

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29
Q

Can taste preferences be learned?

A

Yes.

conditioned responses and assocative learning

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30
Q

Describe the development of taste perception for salt

A
  • increases with age
  • wanes after age 2
  • may relate to organ development
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31
Q

What taste do newborns prefer?

A

sweet because it corresponds with milk

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32
Q

What taste do infants prefer?

A
  • what’s good for them
  • infant with imbalance in adrenal hormones that regulate salt had craving for salty foods
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33
Q

Why have breast-fed babies been shown to out-perform bottle fed babies?

A
  1. nutrition in breast milk
  2. difference in social relationship
    - unlikely, babies fed breast milk through tubes (different interaction) still outperformed babies fed by formula
  3. maternal education
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34
Q

True or false: Cats cannot taste sweets

A

True! they have lost sweet function. As well as other obligate carnivores

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35
Q

Why can’t cats taste sweets?

A
  • gene for Cat T1R2 is defective
  • has stop codons so cannot signal sweet taste
  • pseudogene
  • can be thought of as a molecular fossil
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36
Q

What are the implications of the defective T1R2 genes in cats?

A
  • no response to cabohydrates
  • great response to amino acids
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37
Q

What receptor is involved with sweet and umami in giant pandas?

A
  • no response to amino acids (no umami receptor)
  • great response to cabohydrates
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38
Q

What receptor is involved with sweet and umami in obligate carnivores?

A

T1R3 = sweet

T1R3 and T1R1 = amino acid, umami

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39
Q

gustation

A

taste system

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40
Q

Describe the taste system

A
  • taste buds are receptor cells
  • input to medulla, and from there to thalamus and limbic system
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41
Q

Describe taste development during the 1st, 2nd and 3rd trimesters

A
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42
Q

When is the ability to taste fully developed?

A

at birth, there is an increase in the number of taste buds

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43
Q

The tongue is a mass of skeletal muscle that is covered by

A

mucous membrane

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44
Q

Describe the oral, or anterior 2/3 part of the tongue

A

faces upwards towards the hard palate

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45
Q

Describe the pharyngeal, or posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

faces backwards towards the oropharynx

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46
Q

What parts of the tongue are keratinised and non-keratinised?

A

oral = keratinised
pharyngeal = non-keratinised

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47
Q

What type of epithelium is the tongue?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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48
Q

What are the two parts of the tongue (anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3) separated by?

A

sulcus terminalis

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49
Q

All intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue are supplied by which nerve?

A

hypoglossal

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50
Q

Which muscle of the tongue is the exception and is supplied by a different nerve? What nerve?

A

palatoglossus is supplied by pharyngeal plexus (vagus and glossopharyngeal nerve)

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51
Q

The general sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue comes from which nerve?

A

lingual nerve which is a branch of the mandibular nerve and has cell bodies in trigeminal ganglion

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52
Q

Taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue comes from which nerve?

A

chorda tympani (with cell bodies in the geniculate ganglion of facial nerve)

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53
Q

What is the nerve supply for general sensation and taste in the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve with cell bodies in glossopharyngeal ganglia in jugular foramen

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54
Q

What is the nerve supply for the posterior most part of the tongue?

A

vagus (CN X) nerve through the internal laryngeal branch (with cell bodies in the inferior vagal ganglion)

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55
Q

Chorda tympani is a branch of which nerve?

A

facial nerve VII

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56
Q

Where are the cell bodies of taste related fibers of the chorda tympani located?

A

geniculate ganglion

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57
Q

This is a mixed nerve which contains both sensory afferent and motor efferent fibers

A

glossopharyngeal nerve IX

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58
Q

Where does the glosspharyngeal nerve IX carry information?

A
  • from posterior 1/3 of tongue and up the pharynx
  • other head/throat areas
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59
Q

Where are the taste fiber cell bodies of the glosspharyngeal nerve IX located?

A

inferior glosspharyngeal ganglion

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60
Q

The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is responsible for many non-taste somatosensory sensations in the mouth such as

A
  1. tactile (texture, viscosity)
  2. heat/cool
  3. nociception (pain)
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61
Q

The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is also critical for two oral motor functions, what are they?

A
  1. biting
  2. chewing
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62
Q

Why is it important that the trigeminal nerve combines non-taste senses with taste perception?

A

hot spiciness of peppers is the result of pain receptor activation by capcaisin

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63
Q

These papillae are scattered across the anterior portion of the tongue

A

fungiform papillae

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64
Q

fungiform papillae are innervated by

A

chorda tympani branch of facial nerve VII

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65
Q

These papillae are located in folds on the lateral portion of the posterior tongue

A

foliate papillae

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66
Q

Foliate papillae are innervated by

A
  1. chorda tympani
  2. glossopharyngeal
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67
Q

These papillae are located in semi-circular crevices at the center of the posterior tongue

A

circumvallate papillae

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68
Q

The circumvallate papillae are innervated by which nerve?

A

glossopharyngeal

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69
Q

This type of papillae is similar to fungiform in morphology and is sensitive to all taste qualities, sweet in particular

A

papillae of soft palate

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70
Q

The papillae of the soft palate is innervated by

A

greater petrosal branch of the facial nerve (VII)

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71
Q

The taste bud is a multi-cellular organelle comprised of 50-75 cells, however only ___ function as receptors.

A

7-10

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72
Q

True or false: We know lots about the neurotransmitters produced by taste bud cells

A

False, we know little

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73
Q

Describe cell turnover in the taste bud

A

continual migration into and out of the pore region

74
Q

What are the 3 taste bud containing papillae?

A
  1. fungiform
  2. foliate
  3. circumvallate
75
Q

What is the non-taste papillae?

A

filiform papillae

76
Q

In addition to the tongue, where are 4 other places taste buds are found?

A
  1. soft palate
  2. cheeks
  3. upper esophagus
  4. epiglottis
77
Q

This type of taste cell has glial-like support cells and may express salt receptors

A

type 1

78
Q

This type of taste cell express receptors for sweet, bitter, and umami. Cells tend to be narrowly tuned to a single taste quality.

A

Type 2, aka receptor cells

79
Q

This type of taste cell expresses receptors for sour and salty taste and can respond to 3 taste qualities on average.

A

Type 3, aka presynaptic cells

80
Q

This type of taste cell is a precursor cell, or taste stem cell.

A

Type IV

81
Q

How are receptor cells in a taste bud organized?

A

different tastes seem to be segregated

82
Q

inability to detect gustatory stimulants

A

ageusia

83
Q

a diminished ability to detect gustatory stimulants

A

hypogeusia

84
Q

increased sensitivity to gustatory stimulants

A

hypergeusia

85
Q

distorted perception of taste stimulants (i.e., unpleasant taste)

A

dysgeusia (parageusia)

86
Q

inability to identify or classify a stimulant although properly perceived

A

taste agnosia

87
Q

inability to detect olfactory stimulants

A

anosmia

88
Q

a diminished ability to detect olfactory stimulants

A

hyposmia

89
Q

increased sensitivity to olfactory stimulants

A

hyperosmia

90
Q

distorted perception of olfactory stimulants (i.e., unpleasant order sensation)

A

dysosmia (cacosmia)

91
Q

inability to identify or classify a stimulant although properly perceieved

A

olfactory agnosia

92
Q

What are the two classes of taste receptors?

A
  1. G-protein coupled
  2. ion channels
93
Q

What are the three types of T1Rs (G-protein coupled receptors)?

A

T1R1
T1R2
T1R3

94
Q

This GPCR is responsible for sweet and umami taste

A

T1R family

95
Q

This GPCR has a very long n-terminal domain, is structurally related to glutamate and Ca receptors, and forms heterodimers

A

T1R

96
Q

solves the problem of multiple stimuli of varying structure by having multiple receptor sites on one heterodimer

A

T1R

97
Q

This GPCR is responsible for bitter taste

A

T2R

98
Q

This GPCR is structurally related to olfactory receptors and has a short n-terminus

A

T2R

99
Q

Solves the problem of having to detect large number of bitter stimuli by having many receptors (6-50, depending on the species) of broad specificity

A

T2R

100
Q

These channel proteins are related as belonging to the degenerin family, salty and sour

A

stimulus-gated ion channels

101
Q

What is responsible for salty taste?

A

Na+ channels, such as ENaC

102
Q

Differentiate between intracellular receptors and cell surface receptors

A
103
Q

Process in which cells sense the extracellular stimuli through membranous or intracellular receptors, transduce the signals via intracellular molecules. This process also regulates the biological function of cells.

A

Cell signalling

104
Q

What are the 5 features of signal transduction?

A
  1. specificity
  2. affinity
  3. amplification
  4. desensitization
  5. integration
105
Q

signal molecules fit binding site on its complementary receptor, other signals do not

A

specificity

106
Q

high affinity of receptors of signal molecules

A

affinity

107
Q

signal receptor activate many molecules of second enzyme, which activates many molecules of the third enzyme and so on

A

amplification

108
Q

feedback circuit that shuts off the receptor or removes it from the cell

A

desensitization

109
Q

two signals with opposite action on second messenger, the regulatory outcome results form integrated output from both receptors

A

integration

110
Q

What are 12 signals to which cells respond?

A
  1. antigen
  2. cell surface glycoproteins/oligosaccharides
  3. extracellular matrix
  4. growth factors
  5. hormones
  6. neurotransmitters
  7. light
  8. mechanical touch
  9. nutrients
  10. odorants
  11. pheromones
  12. tastants
111
Q

This type of messenger transmits signals from the receptor to the enzyme and activate it to produce a secondary messenger. (Ex. Gα,Gβγ)

A

Primary messenger

112
Q

This type of messenger transmits signals in form of either direct cellular response (cAMP, cGMP) or activates further enzymes to produce a response (IP3, DAG)

A

secondary messenger

113
Q

This type of messenger releases after action of second messenger on an organelle and act directly or in conjuction to give cellular responses (ex. Ca2+)

A

tertiary messenger

114
Q

What is the structure of a g-protein coupled receptor?

A
  1. 7TM a helices (seven transmembrane) coupled to an effector system through GTP/GDP binding protein called G-proteins
  2. intracellular domain = couples to g-protein
  3. extracellular domain = binds to the ligand (drug/neurotransmitter)
115
Q

Where does G-protein get its name from?

A

interaction with guanine nucleotides (GTP/GDP)

116
Q

When the g-protein is bound to GTP, is it “on” or “off”?

A

on

117
Q

When the g-protein is bound to GDP, is it “on” or is it “off”?

A

off

118
Q

How many subunits does G-protein have? What are they?

A

α, β and γ

119
Q

What subunit do guanine nucleotides bind to?

A

α

120
Q

A family of membrane proteins anchored to the membrane which are metabotropic receptors that act through a secondary messenger

A

G-protein

121
Q

What are the two types of G proteins?

A
  1. large (heterotrimetric)
  2. small
122
Q

This type of g-protein is activated by GPCRs and is made up of α (alpha), β (beta) and γ (gamma) subunits.

A

Large G proteins (heterotrimetric)

123
Q

This type of g-protein belongs to the Ras superfamily, is homologous to the α subunit, and also binds GTP and GDP for signal transduction

A

small G proteins

124
Q

Name the G-protein subunits and their second messengers

A
125
Q

Golf-odorant receptor

A

adenylyl cyclase

126
Q

What happens when Gt-cGMP phosphodiesterase increases?

A

cGMP decreases

127
Q

What does the Ga12/13-Rho family GTPase do?

A
  1. control cell cytoskeleton remodelling
  2. regulating cell migration
128
Q

What is the mechanism of GPCR?

A
129
Q

Describe hormones and signal transduction for GPCRs and G-proteins

A
  1. G-Proteins Bind Guanine Nucleotides (GDP and GTP)
  2. Heterotrimeric -α,β,γ Subunits
  3. Associate with GPCRs
  4. Altered by GPCR’s Binding of Hormone
130
Q

Describe hormones and signal transduction for B-andrenergic receptors.

A
131
Q

Describe PKA activation

A
132
Q

Describe the phospholipase-c signalling system

A
133
Q

What are the 9 GPCR classes?

A
134
Q

What are the 4 targets of g-proteins?

A
  1. adenylyl cyclase
  2. IP3/DAG phospholipase c cystem
  3. ion channels eso. potassium and calcium
  4. rho a/Rho kinase system
135
Q

What 4 things is the adenylyl cyclase/cAMP system involved in?

A
  1. energy metabolism
  2. cell division and cell differentiation
  3. ion transport, ion channels
  4. contractile proteins in smooth muscle
136
Q

What is the common mechanism of the adenylyl cyclase/cAMP system?

A

activation of protein kinases

137
Q

True or false: cAMP is a nucleotide

A

True

138
Q

How is cAMP synthesized?

A

within the cell from ATP by adenylyl cyclase

139
Q

Is cAMP produced continuously?

A

yes

140
Q

How is cAMP inactivated?

A

hydrolysis to 5-AMP by phosphodiesterases

141
Q

cAMP response element-binding protein leads to

A
  1. tyrosine hydroxylase
  2. iNOS
  3. AchR
  4. angiotensinogen
  5. insulin
  6. glucocorticoid receptor
  7. CFTR
142
Q

What is the best understood target of cyclic AMP?

A

protein kinase

143
Q

What does the EPAC pathway provide an additional effector for?

A

cAMP signalling and drug actin that can act independently or cooperatively with PKA

144
Q

What are the regulators of cell function?

A

monomeric GTPases

145
Q

The activation of diverse signaling pathways, regulates what 5 things?

A
  1. phagocytosis
  2. progression through cell cycle
  3. cell adhesion
  4. gene expression
  5. apoptosis
146
Q

hydrolyze the cyclic 3’,5’-phosphodiester bond in cAMP and cGMP

A

phosphodiesterases

147
Q

How many different proteins and subfamilies do phosphodiesters have?

A

> 50 different PDE proteins
11 subfamilies

148
Q

Phosphodiesterases are drug targets for what 4 things?

A
  1. astha
  2. cardiovascular diseases, (i.e., heart failure)
  3. atheroscleortic coronary and peripheral arterial disease
  4. neruological disorders
149
Q

What is phosphodiesterase inhibited by?

A

caffeine

150
Q

What is the substrate for membrane-bound enzyme phospholipase CB (PLCB)?

A

PIP2

151
Q

What does PIP2 split PCLB into?

A
  1. DAG
  2. inositol (1,4,5, triphosphate) (IP3)

**both are secondary messengers

152
Q

What happens after PIP2 is cleaved?

A

status quo restored

153
Q

What blocks the recycling pathway?

A

lithium

154
Q

a ligand-gated calcium channel present on the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum

A

IP3 receptor

155
Q

___, unlike the inositol phosphates, is highly lipophilic and remains within the membrane

A

DAG

156
Q

How many different mammalian PKC subtypes are there?

A

10

157
Q

play a central role in signal transduction, and control many different aspects of cell function

A

kinases

158
Q

DAG

A

diacylglycerol

159
Q

a ligand gated Ca2+ channel found in high concentrations in the membrane of the ER

A

IP3 receptor

160
Q

What concentration enhances Ca2+ release?

A

10^-9

161
Q

What concentration inhibit Ca2+ release?

A

10^-9

162
Q

What enhances Ca2+ release?

A

phosphorylation of IP3 receptor by PKA

163
Q

What inhibits Ca2+ release?

A

phosphorylation of an accessory protein, IRAG, by PKG

164
Q

What happens in smooth muscle as a result of PKG?

A

relaxation of vessel tone by cyclic GMP

165
Q

In skeletal and cardiac muscle, what is released through intracellular stores?

A

ca2+

166
Q

Ca2+ in skeletal and cardiac muscle is mediated by

A

the ryanodine receptor (RyR)

167
Q

What is an example of a drug that activates RyR

A

caffeine

168
Q

What is an example of a drug that inhibits RyR

A

Dantrolene

169
Q

In cardiac muscle, what enhances K+ permeability?

A

mAChRs

170
Q

reduces excitability by opening potassium channels

A

opiate analgesics

171
Q

Actions are produced by direct interaction between the βγ subunit of G0 and the channel, without the involvement of second messengers

A

ion channels

172
Q

How is the Rho/Rho kinase system activated?

A

GPCRs (and non-GPCRs) which couple G12/13 type proteins

173
Q

Rho-GDP

A

resting, inactive form

174
Q

Rho-GTP

A

active form

175
Q

What happens when Rho is activated?

A
  1. Rho kinase activated
  2. smooth muscle contraction and proliferation
  3. angiogenesis
  4. synaptic modeling
176
Q

What system is important in the pathogenesis of pulmonary hypertension

A

Rho/Rho kinase system

177
Q

Compare and contrast the two types of desensitization

A
178
Q

How many GPCRs are orphan (unknown)?

A

200

179
Q

homozygous loss of function mutations in the type 5 chemokine receptor provides resistance to

A

HIV infection

180
Q

True or false: Loss of function and gain of function mutations in GPCRs can cause disease

A

true

181
Q

Of the drugs approved for marketing by the FDA, how many target GPCRs?

A

40%

182
Q

Of the 800-1,000 different GPCRs, the drugs that are marketed target how many?

A

GPCRs

Taste (9 decks)

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