WEEK6- Patient observations Flashcards

1
Q

what does the abcde approach stand for

A

airway and oxygen
breathing and ventilations
circulation
disability due to neurological impairment
Exposure and examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do clinical observations allow paramedics to measure

A

measure the stability of the patients conditions
measures patients’ vital signs which allows us to detect physiological deterioration of a condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the 14 clinical observations

A
  1. respiratory rate 2. oxygen saturations 3. peak flow 4. pulse rate 5. blood measure 6. capillary refill 7. 3 lead ecg 8. 12 lead ecg 9. blood glucose measurement 10. temperature 11. gcs 12. pupillary response 13. fast test 14. avvv test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(2) what are normal oxygen saturations (spo2) for a normal patient

A

94-100%= normal
less than 94%= hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

(2) what re the normal oxygen saturations (spo2) for a copd patient

A

88-92%= normal for copd
less than 88%= hypoxia for copd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

(2) what does spo2 measure

A

oxygen sats= ratio of oxyhaemoglobin to the total concentration of haemoglobin
the pulse oximeter measures the saturation of haemoglobin in arterial blood. Through use of 2 light sources (red and infrared) and a sensor, light absorbed is measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

(2) how do you perform spo2

A

select appropriate probe
place probe on finger (adults) on toe (small children)
not recommended to be put on ear because can give up to 50% variance on the reading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

(3) whats a peak flow

A

treats asthmatic patients that present with breathing difficulties
measures the air-flow through the bronchi/ can indicate the degree of obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is airway resistance

A

airway resistance= narrowing of the airway, muscle constriction, inflamed airway walls and mucus deposit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(3) how do you conduct peak flow

A

ask if the patient knows their normal range
attach disposable tube to peak flow meter
explain procedure
take deep breath (maximal inhalation)
place mouthpiece between teeth, the take short sharp huff (maximal exhalation)
record and complete for 3 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

(3) what does peak flow meaurenments depend on

A

age
height
gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

(3) what is peak flow measured in and what a normal measurement

A

litres per minute
normal= 400 and 700 litres per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does haemodynamic instability mean

A

perfusion failure represented by clinical features of circulatory shock, advanced heart failure, or simply one or more measurements which may indicate an out-of-range pathological value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(5) what is blood pressure

A

pressure exerted upon the vessels that carry oxygenated blood around the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is blood pressure measured in

A

mmHg (millimetres of mercury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

whats the measurement instrument uses for blood pressure

A

sphygmomanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what causes systolic pressure

A

when the heart contracts (highest pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what causes diastolic pressure

A

when the heart is at rest (lowest pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which number in 120/80 systolic/diastolic

A

120= systolic
80=diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do you perfom blood pressure

A

upper arm must be exposed, supported and at heart level
select correct sized cuff (covers 80% of circumferences of the arm and width is 40% of the arm circumference)
apply cuff firmly around upper arm with the indicator line/centre of the bladder of the brachial artery
place measurement scale where can easily be seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is Korotkoff’s sound

A

cuff is inflated= blood not getting through brachial artery
pressure released= blood can flow which makes a sound which ca be heard.
pressure decrease= different phrase noises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the 5 Korotkoff sound phases

A

phase I= clear tapping
phase II= softening of the tapping and swishing
phase III= like phase I but with distinct sharpening
phase IV= abrupt muffling
phase V= cessation of all sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do you conduct blood pressure

A

place stethoscope over brachial artery just below cuff
deflate cuff slowly (2 mmHg per second/ per heartbeat)
systolic value= taken when phase 1 begins (clear tapping)
when all sounds disappear, the diastolic value is recorded (phase 5) remember the auscultatory gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

whats the normal values for blood pressure

A

100/60 to 140/90= normal
less than 90 systolic= hypotension
140/90 to 160/100= stage 1 hypertension
160/100 to 180/120= stage 2 hypertension
+180 systolic OR +120 diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what complications can occur within hypotension

A

acute coronary syndrome
internal blood loss
seizure
blood clot in lung (PE)
life threatening asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what complications can occur within hypertension

A

pregnancy
chronic hypertension
cocaine, cannabis etc
intracerebral haemorrhage

27
Q

what does capillary refill measure

A

assess’ the adequacy of tissue perfusion
measures the time taken for the cpoliy bed to regain coloir afyer pressure has been applied.

28
Q

when should capillary refill be conducted

A

for patients who are in a “shock” like state/ when there haemodynamically unstable

29
Q

how do you perform capillary refill

A

apply pressure to nail ned for about 5 seconds
nail bed will return white
release pressure
count how many seocnds it takes for the colour to return

30
Q

how do you perform capillary refill

A

apply pressure to nail ned for about 5 seconds
nail bed will return white
release pressure
count how many seocnds it takes for the colour to return

31
Q

what’s normal cap refill time

A

2 seconds
capillary refill of +2 seconds may indicate poor perfusion unless extremely cold

32
Q

what does the 3 lead ecg measure

A

measures rate and regularity of the cardiac rhythm
shouldn’t be used as a diagnosis tool as not accurate

33
Q

when should you conduct 3 lead ecg

A

when investigating an acutely unwell patient
when monitoring a haemodynamically unstable patient
to monitor after giving drugs
if irregular rhythm or abnormal heart rate is found

34
Q

how do you perform a 3 lead ecg

A

R (red)- place near right mid-clavicular line, directly below clavicle
L (yellow)- place near left mid-clavicular line, directly below clavicle
F (green)- place between 6th and 7th intercostal space on patients left mid-clavicular line
N (black)- place between 6th and 7th intercostal space on patient’s right mid-clavicular line

35
Q

what’s the similarities and differences between NSR SB and ST

A

normal sinus rhythm, sinus bradycardia and sinus tachycardia all have a structured pqrst

nsr, sb and st all differ in rhythm (normal, slow, fast)

36
Q

how do you measure a 12 lead ecg

A

provides 12 views of the electrical activity of the heart
like cameras being placed around the heart to build a 3D picture

37
Q

how do you perform 12 lead ecg

A

V1- 4th intercostal space @ right sternal margin
V2- 4th intercostal space @ sternal margin
V3- midway between V2 and V4 leads
V4- 5th intercostal space at mid-clavicular line
V5- same transverse level as V4 at lest anterior- axillary line
V6- same transverse level as V4 at left mid-axillary line

38
Q

whens 12 lead ecg conducted

A

drug overdose
collapse that’s unknown why
chest pain (to rule out an MI)
if the 3 lead ecg is abnormal
seizure
diagnosed/known cardiac problems

39
Q

how many limb leads does a 12 lead ecg consist of and what’s their job

A

6 (I, II, III, aVR, aVL and aVF)

these look at the electrical activity of the heart in a vertical plane

40
Q

what’s blood glucose levels measured in

A

millimoles per litre

41
Q

how does the body regulate blood glucose levels

A

through the production pf insulin and glycogen by the pancreas

42
Q

how to conduct blood sugar

A

explain that the procedure hurts
insert test strip into monitor
clean the site- side of finger for adults’ heel for children
use the lancet to pierce the skin and introduce test strip to take the sample
whilst monitor analyses the sample apply gauze and pressure

43
Q

normal values for blood sugar

A

4.0-7.0 mmol/L = normal
less than 4.0 mmol/L = hypoglycaemia
more than 7.0 mmol/L = hyperglycaemia

44
Q

how do you measure temperature

A

tympanic thermistor technique- measures the superficial body temperature

44
Q

how do you measure temperature

A

tympanic thermistor technique- measures the superficial body temperature

44
Q

how do you measure temperature

A

tympanic thermistor technique- measures the superficial body temperature

45
Q

what could change in temperature mean

A

infection
central nervous system event
hypoglycaemia

46
Q

how to take a temperature

A

apply the single use tympanic cover
turn the thermometer on
insert into the ear
press the analysis button to take the reading

47
Q

normal values for temperature

A

36.5 to 37.5= normal
less than 35= hypothermia
more than 40 degrees= hyperthermia
above 38 degrees= pyrexia (fever)

48
Q

what does gcs measure

A

the Glasgow coma scale records the conscious state of a person for initial and subsequent assessment
evaluates 3 key categories of behaviour

49
Q

what are the 3 aspects of behaviour

A

motor responsiveness, verbal performances and eye opening

50
Q

whats the highest and lowest gcs number that can be given

A

15= highest
3= lowest

51
Q

what are the 3 aspects of behaviour marked out of

A

eye-opening response= 4: spontaneously 3: to speech 2: to pain 1:no response

verbal response= 5: recognizes time, person, place 4: confused 3: inappropriate words 2: incomprehendible sounds 1:no response

motor response= 6: obeys command 5: moves to localised pain 4: flex to withdraw from pain 3: abnormal flexion 2: abnormal extension 1:no response

52
Q

how do you measure the pupillary response

A

identifies any abnormality of the pupils and tests the normal reactions of the pupils.

53
Q

what size in diameter should an adult’s pupil constrict

A

2-4mm to bright light
4-8mm in the dark

54
Q

how to conduct a pupil check

A

observe pupil size, shape, equality, and position of pupils.
shine pen torch in one eye and observe the direct response (constriction)
shine pen torch in the same eye and observe the construction of the opposite pupil
repeat to the other eye

55
Q

what does anisocoria mean

A

one pupil is bigger than the other

56
Q

what does the fast test measure

A

fast is a stroke recognition tool which can identify a person having an acute stroke

57
Q

what does fast stand for

A

face, arms, speech and time

58
Q

how to conduct fast

A

ask patient is they have abnormalities normally
face- symmetrical, droop
arm- equal power, does arm drift
speech- slurred speech and speaking normally, ask challenging words like hippopotamus

59
Q

what percent does fast test identify strokes

A

70%

60
Q

how do we measure avvv

A

another stroke detection tool but measures different symptoms to fast

61
Q

how to conduct avvv

A

ask patient to stand, walk
assess co-ordination
ask about eyesight, is it blurry, double vision, black patches