Week 9 Flashcards

1
Q

How do burns affecr the cardiovascular system?

A

Results in massive fluid & electrolyte shifts from intravascular spaces to the interstitium
Burns > 40% TBSA cause myocardial dysfunction (more at risk of hypovolaemic shock / burn shock)
↓ cardiac contractility & cardiac output falls within in minutes of injury (prior to decreased plasma volume)
Chemical & vasoactive mediators cause initial arterial constriction followed by vasodilation & ↑ capillary permeability (loss of capillary seal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the key interventions for cardiovascular system after burns

A

Restoration of intravascular volume is critical – maintains vital organ function (without exacerbating tissue oedema)

Urine output – KEY TO SURVIVAL (So this is the case when an IDC will be inserted to monitor urine output closely i.e. hourly)
Adults – 30-50 ml / hour
Children – 1-2ml / kg / hour (weighing less than 30 kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the parkland formula for fluid input for the cardiovascular system following burns

A

4 mls Hartmann’s solution x TBSA% burned x pt. weight (kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alterations in pulmonary function occur due to burns because of:

A

Systemic response to the burn injury
Inhalation injury
Circumferential full thickness burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Respiratory insufficiency from burns can occur at two points (leading to respiratory arrest)

A
  1. Resuscitation phase – from inhalation injury

2. Acute rehab phase – (10 days – 2 weeks) from infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why should Protein intake should increase after burns

A

to counteract muscle & viscera being used as protein sources while the body is in a hyper-metabolic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 types of pain generally experienced after burns

A

Pain as a result of the injury- chronic from damaged tissue

Acute pain as a result of procedures e.g. wound dressing, occupational therapy, physiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pathophysiology of immediate burn pain

A

Originates from the nociceptors (pain sensing nerves).

Destroyed nerve endings will not transmit pain, but those intact will trigger pain as will those that are regenerating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pathophysiology of primary hyperalgesia burn pain

A

The intense inflammatory response also triggers release of chemical mediators that sensitise the active nociceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathophysiology of secondary hyperalgesia burn pain

A

Continuous / repeated stimulation of the nociceptive afferent fibres induces a significant increase in dorsal horn excitability leading to increased sensitivity in surrounding unburned skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is Aetiology is a key factor in assessment

A

Pivotal to burns assessment is determining the causation of the injury: the type of burn

Some chemical burns can be activated by water (which is used in the initial first aid treatment of the wound) & cause further burning & integument damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Burns are classified according to;

A

Depth (according to level of dermis & subcutaneous tissue involved)
Extent of body surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Resuscitative phase of burn injury management

A

Lasts from burn injury to 72 hours post injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Rehabilitative phase of burn injury management

A

Begins 2-3 days after the initial burn injury & lasts until wound closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Long term rehabilitative phase of burn injury management

A

Begins after wound closure throughout the patient’s life span

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the length of the inflammatory phase for burn wounds

A

Approx 2 weeks

17
Q

What is the length of the proliferative phase for burn wounds

A

lasts up to 1 month
Includes collagen synthesis, revascularisation & reepithelialisation (slower rate)
Collagen layers are not organised as they are in other wounds (contributes to excessive scar formation)

18
Q

What is the length of the maturation phase for burn wounds

A

lasts 6-18 months (or longer)
New collagen layers are placed & old are broken down
Excessive deposits produce hypertrophic scarring (deep partial & full thickness burns) contract while maturing causing contractures

19
Q

What is mechanical debridement

A

(irrigation with specialised pressure, hydrotherapy), wet to dry dressings
Limited in use, painful, good surface cleansing achieved

20
Q

What is biological debridement

A

larval therapy

Useful - only dead tissue is removed, dressings need appropriate conditions for larval survival

21
Q

What is chemical debridement

A

Useful, can be relatively slow – uses enzymes, fibrinolytic preps

22
Q

What is surgical debridement under GA

A

Fast, preferred method

Either tangential excision or fascial excision

23
Q

What is Topical antimicrobial therapy

A

Initially, most burn wounds are colonised by gram positive bacteria, after the first week the burnt surface becomes positive with gram negative bacteria

These wounds are colonised as opposed to infected in most cases

Typically burn patients are started on topical antimicrobials to control proliferation of bacteria

24
Q

What is the Wallace Rules of Nines

A

part of the assessment tools used when assessing a burns patient

25
Q

What is the Parkland Formula

A

Many formulas are utilised but the Parkland Formula is commonly used. 3-4 ml Hartmanns/kg/%burn/24hrs. ½ in the first 8 hours from the time of injury, ½ in the next 16 hours

26
Q

What is Jackson’s Zones of Burn Injury

A

Describes the characterstic changes in damaged tissue

27
Q

What is a Superficial partial-thickness burn

A

The epidermis is destroyed or injured and a portion of the dermis may be injured.

28
Q

What is a Deep partial thickness burn?

A

A deep partial thickness burn involves the destruction of the epidermis and upper layers of the dermis and injury to the deeper portions of the dermis.

29
Q

What is a Full thickness burn?

A

A full thickness burn involves total destruction of the epidermis and dermis and, in some cases, the destruction of the underlying tissue, muscle, and bone.

30
Q

What is Zone of Coagulation

A

Is the area closest to the site of heat. Blood flow has ceased and the tissue is non-viable

31
Q

What is Zone of stasis?

A

Tissue is still seriously damaged but tissue is still viable but there will be signs of vascular occlusion. This