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Infection > week 6 - GI infections/enterobacteriaceae > Flashcards

week 6 - GI infections/enterobacteriaceae Flashcards

1
Q

According to Bristol stool chart, describe the consistency of type 7 stool?

A

Liquid consistency with no solid pieces

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2
Q

Are neutrophils in the stool more indicative of a viral or a bacterial infection?

A

Bacterial as neutrophils are more commonly present in bacterial infections rather than viral infections

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3
Q

Can antimicrobials eradicate toxin in diarrhea

A

Antimicrobials do not eradicate toxin

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4
Q

Fever more common in …..

A

dysentry

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5
Q

Food infection

A

Presence of bacteria or other microbes which infects body after consumption

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6
Q

Food intoxication

A

Ingestion of toxins contained within food

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7
Q

Food poisoning

A

Illness resulting from consumption of food

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8
Q

How can Esherichia coli be classed

A

by virulence factors and diseases it causes

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9
Q

How can salmonella typhi be ingested

A

Food or contaminated water with sewage that contains bacteria from carriers

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10
Q

How can transmission for Bacillus Cereus be remembered

A

“Food poisoning from reheated rice? Be serious!” (B. cereus).

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11
Q

How is Rotavirus infection diagnosed

A

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) of antigen in stool

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12
Q

How long can untreated bacterial diarrhoea last

A

3-7 days

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13
Q

How long does viral diarrhoea last

A

2-3 days

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14
Q

How many stages of typhoid fever

A

4

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15
Q

How would antacids affect the growth of H.pylori

A

Increase risk of bacterial overgrowth

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16
Q

If …… is more prominent in food poisoning then …….. is more likely

A

diarrhoea

metabolic acidosis

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17
Q

If ……. is the main cause of fluid loss then ………. with ……… can occur

A

vomiting

metabolic alkalosis

hypocholeremia

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18
Q

Is fever present in diarrhoea

A

no

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19
Q

Is pain present in diarrhoea

A

patient may or may not be accompanied by cramps or a pain

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20
Q

is pain present in dysentry

A

Patient usually complains of pain and cramps in lower abdominal area

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21
Q

List the main causes of infectious Gastroenteritis?

A

Preformed toxins
Living organisms

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22
Q

What diseases are caused by salmonella

A

Enteric fever(Typhoid)

salmonellosis

acute gastroenteritis

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23
Q

What are carriers of typhoid fever treated with

A

Prolonged antibiotics

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24
Q

What are enteric (enterobactericaea) bacteria

A

Bacteria of the intestines

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25
Q

What are examples of living organisms that can cause infectious gastroenteritis

A

Helminths
Virus
Bacteria

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26
Q

What are examples of nematodes

A

Roundworms
Pinworms
hookworms
whipworms

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27
Q

What are some complications of typhoid fever

A

Pneumonia
intestinal bleeding
kidney failure
peritonitis

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28
Q

What are some examples of obligate enterbacteriaceae pathogens

A

Salmonella spp

Shigella spp

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29
Q

What are some examples of opportunistic enterobacteriaceae

A

Escherichia coli

Enterobacter aerogenes

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30
Q

What are some features of enterobacteriaceae

A

Some have capsules

resistant to bile salts

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31
Q

What are some features of shigella

A

Non motile
non spore forming
facultatively anaerobic

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32
Q

What are some medically important enterobacteriaceae

A

Enterbacter aerogenes
escherichia coli
klebsiella pneumoniae
salmonella enterica
shigella sonnei

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33
Q

What are some symptoms of S.aureus food poisoning

A

Nausea
abdominal cramping
vomiting
Dirarrhea

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34
Q

what are the 2 categories of causes for infectious gastroenteristis

A

Pre-formed toxins

Living organisms

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35
Q

What are the 4 categories of Viral gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus
Norovirus
Astrovirus
Enteric adenovirus

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36
Q

What are the 4 species of shigella

A

Boydii
dysenteriae
flexneri
sonnei

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37
Q

What are the categories of helminth infections of gastrointestinal tract

A

Nematodes
Cestodes
Trematodes

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38
Q

What are the clinical features for Rotavirus infection

A

fever
Malaise
abdominal pain
vomiting
water diarrhea

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39
Q

What are the clinical features of Pinworms (Enterobiasis)

A

Anal pruritus

Vulvovaginitis

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40
Q

What are the clinical features of schistosomiasis

A

Local reaction
acute schistosomiasis syndrome
chronic schistosomiasis

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41
Q

What are the components of the GI tract

A

Mouth
Pharnyx
esophagus
stomach
small intestine
large intestine

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42
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for a hookworm infection

A

Complete blood cell count to look for eosinophilia

Stool examination for eggs or worms

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43
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for ascariasis

A

Complete blood cell count to look for eosinophilia

stool sample to look for presence of eggs

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44
Q

What are the most common causative organisms for dysentry

A

E coli
Shigella
Salmonella

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45
Q

What are the most comon viral aetiological agents of acute gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus
Calcivirus
Astrovirus
Enteric Adenovirus

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46
Q

What are the respiratory effects of hookworm infections

A

dry cough
weezing
Löffler syndrome

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47
Q

What are the symptoms of Norovirus

A

Nausea
Acute onset vomiting
watery non bloody diarrhea
Abdominal cramps

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48
Q

What area does diarrhea affect

A

Small bowel

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49
Q

What area does dysentry affect

A

Colon

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50
Q

What cells does Rotavirus infect

A

Villus cells of proximal small intestine

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51
Q

What complications might result from cholera infection?

A

Hypokalaemia,

hypoglycaemia,

renal failure

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52
Q

What does viral gastroenteritis infect

A

Epithelium of small intestine

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53
Q

What electrolyte disturbance you might expect in a patient presenting with severe vomiting or diarrhoea?

A

Hypokalaemia

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54
Q

What genetic material does calicivirus have

A

RNA

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55
Q

What is a common source of infection for Bacillus Cereus

A

Reheated rice

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56
Q

What is a key feature of Bacillus Cereus infection

A

produce 2 different enterotoxins (Emetic and Diarrheal form)

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57
Q

What is a oligate pathogen

A

bacteria that must cause disease in order to be transmitted from one host to another

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58
Q

What is a virulence factor for shigella

A

Entertoxins such as shigatoxin

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59
Q

what is an example of a trematodes

A

Flukes

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60
Q

What is an example of cestodes

A

Tape worms

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61
Q

What is an example of pre-formed toxin cause of infectious gastroenteristis

A

Food poisoning

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62
Q

What is destroyed in dysentry

A

Upper epithelial cells attacked and destroyed

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63
Q

What is diarrhoea

A

Abnormal faecal discharge characterised by frequent and/or fluid stool

64
Q

what is diarrhoea with blood or pus due to

A

invasive infection with mucosal destruction

65
Q

what is diarrhoea without blood and pus due to

A

enterotoxin production

66
Q

What is dysentry

A

Inflammatory disorder of gastrointestinal tract often associated with blood and pus in faeces

67
Q

What is entercolitis

A

Inflammation involving mucosa of both small and large intestine

68
Q

What is gastroenteritis

A

inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract

69
Q

What is H.pylori

A

Gram negative spiral bacterium that lives in mucus layer that covers gastric epithellium

70
Q

What is Löffler syndrome

A

respiratory disorder characterized by accumulation of eosinophils in the lungs due to an allergic reaction to a drug or certain infections

71
Q

What is peritonitis

A

Inflammation of peritoneum

72
Q

What is the case fatality rate for shigella

A

5-15%

73
Q

What is the catalase status of shigella

A

positive

74
Q

what is the diagnostic technique used for Trichiuriasis (Whipworms)

A

microscopic examination of stool for eggs

75
Q

What is the diagnostic test for pinworms (enterobiasis)

A

Tape test

76
Q

What is the Enveloped status of Norovirus

A

non enveloped

77
Q

What is the enveloped status of Rotavirus

A

non enveloped

78
Q

What is the gram status of salmonellae

A

Gram negative

79
Q

What is the gram status of shigella

A

gram negative

80
Q

What is the incubation period for Clostridium perfringens food poisoning

A

6-24 hrs

81
Q

What is the incubation period for Enterotoxin I for Bacillus Cereus infection

A

30 mins to 6 hours after ingestion

82
Q

What is the incubation period for Enterotoxin II for Bacillus Cereus infection

A

6-15 hours after ingestion

83
Q

What is the incubation period for Norovirus

A

12-48hrs

84
Q

What is the incubation period for Rotavirus

A

1-3 days

85
Q

What is the incubation period for S.aureus food poisoning

A

1-6 hrs

86
Q

What is the incubation period of bacterial and viral pathogens

A

6-72 hrs

87
Q

incubation period of protozoal pathogens

A

1-2 wks

88
Q

incubation period of shigella

A

1-3 days

89
Q

incubation period of Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning

A

1-6 hrs

90
Q

What is the life cycle of a hookworm

A

contaminated soil>larvae transfer through feet>migrate to lungs>swallowed to intestines>mature to adults>colonise intestinal tract>eggs layer and eliminate via faeces

91
Q

What is the life cycle of ascaris

A

oral ingestion of eggs>eggs release larvae> larvae invade intestine>migrate to lungs>tracheal migration>back to intestine>mature

92
Q

life cycle of schistosomiasis

A

-infected humans secrete eggs in urine or faeces
-egg hatch in water and produce miracidia
-miricida infect freshwater snails and develop cercaria
-humans come in contact with contaminated water
-cercaria penetrate skin
-maturation into adult schistosomes

93
Q

life cycle of Trichiuriasis (Whipworms)

A

-host ingests eggs
-eggs hatch and release larvae in the small intestine
-larvae mature into adult worms in colon
-adult worms lay eggs, which are shed in feaces

94
Q

mechanism of invasion for salmonella

A

Salmonella triggers phagocytosis of epithelial cells lining small intestine

Salmonella multiply inside phagocytic vacuole and kills host cause diarrhoea

Salmonella move into blood stream

95
Q

mechanism of invasion for salmonella typhi

A

-Bacteria enter blood stream after being ingested
-travel to blood stream and WBCs carry disease to liver,spleen and bone marrow
-reenters blood stream

96
Q

mode of transmission for Ascaris

A

Fecal-oral

97
Q

mode of transmission for hookworms

A

penetration of larvae through feet

98
Q

mode of transmission for Pinworms

A

Fecal-oral
reinfection from digital-oral after scratching anal region

99
Q

mode of transmission for Trichiuriasis (Whipworm)

A

Fecal-oral

100
Q

What is the most abundant immune cell in the lamina propria

A

Macrophages

101
Q

What is the most common cause of infectious diarrhoea in the western world

A

viral gastroneteritis

102
Q

What is the oxidase status of shigella

A

neg

103
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Rotavirus

A

mucosal damage and villous atropy leading to impaired sodium absorption and loss of potassium

104
Q

What is the pathophysiology of shigella

A

shigella attaches to epithelial cell of colon and triggers phagocytosis
shigella multiplies in cytosol
shigella invades neighboring epithelial cells
abscess forms
shigella enters blood

105
Q

What is the pathophysiology of shigella

A

shigella attaches to epithelial cell of colon and triggers phagocytosis
shigella multiplies in cytosol
shigella invades neighboring epithelial cells
abscess forms
shigella enters blood

106
Q

What is the peak incidence for Norovirus infection

A

November-March

107
Q

What is the primary manifestation in gastroenteritis

A

Diarrhea
may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain

108
Q

What is the shape of cestodes

A

Flat bodied worms that are segmented

109
Q

What is the shape of nematodes

A

What is the shape of nematodes

110
Q

What is the tape test

A

Detection of eggs (ova) and/or pinworms on tape that has been pressed against the perianal region

111
Q

What is the toxin that causes staphylococcal food poisoing

A

Staph enterotoxin

112
Q

What is the transmission for Clostridium perfringens food poisoning

A

Reheated meat dishes
uncooked meat
raw legumes

113
Q

What is the transmission for Norovirus

A

Fecal-oral route through contaminated food or water, person-person contact and contact with contaminated surfaces

114
Q

What is the transmission of Bacillus Cereus

A

bacteria grow on heated food that cools down too slowly or is improperly refrigerated

115
Q

What is the treatment for a Rotavirus infection

A

Oral rehydration
IV fluid with patient with severe dehydration

116
Q

What is type 1 on the bristol stool chart

A

Seperate hard lumps

117
Q

type 2 on the bristol stool chart

A

lumpy and sausage like

118
Q

type 3 on the bristol stool chart

A

Sausage shape with cracks

119
Q

type 4 on the bristol stool chart

A

Smooth soft sausage or snake

120
Q

What is type 5 on the bristol stool chart

A

Soft blobs with clear cut edges

121
Q

type 6 on the bristol stool chart

A

mushy consistency with ragged edges

122
Q

What live organisms cause infections through invasive methods

A

Shigella
E.coli
salmonella
s.typhi

123
Q

What live organisms have non invasive methods for infection

A

V.cholerae
C.difficile
E.Coli

124
Q

What live organisms have non invasive methods for infection

A

V.cholerae
C.difficile
E.Coli

125
Q

What occurs in stage 1 typhoid fever

A

Slow rising temperature
relative bradycardia
malaise
epistaxis(nosebleed)

126
Q

what occurs in stage 2 of typhoid fever

A

high fever
distended abdomen
weight loss
delirium

127
Q

what occurs in stage 3 of typhoid fever

A

intestinal haemorrhage
encephalitis(inflammation of brain)
fever
dehydration

128
Q

What occurs in stage 4 of typhoid fever

A

defervescence(very high fever)

129
Q

What organs does salmonella typhi affect

A

Liver
gallbladder
stomach
small intestine
large intestine

130
Q

What salmonella causes paratyphoid fevers

A

S.paratyphi A,B and C

131
Q

What salmonella causes salmonellosis

A

S.typhimurium
S.montevideo
s.wien

132
Q

What salmonella causes typhoid fever

A

S.typhi

133
Q

What shape are trematodes

A

Flat bodied that are non-segmented

134
Q

What shape is salmonella

A

Rod shaped

135
Q

What shape is shigella

A

Rod shaped

136
Q

What toxin produced by Escherichia coli

A

shiga like toxin

137
Q

What type of antigens does Esherichia coli have

A

O,H and K antigens

138
Q

What type of bacteria is salmonella

A

gram -ve facultative

139
Q

What type of bacteria is shigella

A

gram -ve

140
Q

What type of genetic material in Rotavirus

A

Double stranded RNA reovirus

141
Q

What type of secretion system does Escherichia coli have

A

type III secretion

142
Q

What type of stool present in diarrhoe

A

Watery stool with no blood and mucus

143
Q

What type of stool present in dysentry

A

Mucoid stool that may be accompanied by blood

144
Q

What type of virus of Rotavirus

A

RNA

145
Q

Where are hookworm infections common

A

tropic areas where people walk barefoot

146
Q

Where are Norovirus infections common in community outbreaks

A

Nursing homes
hospitals
preschools
cruise ships

147
Q

Where do salmonellae live

A

intestinal tracts of warm and cold blooded animals

148
Q

Where does bacteria proliferate in Staphylococcal food poisoning

A

Inadequately refrigerated food

149
Q

Which is the first step in the treatment of diarrhea due to gastroenteritis?

A

Replace fluids orally or through injection into the vein

150
Q

Which is the most common side effect of gastroenteritis

A

Dehydration

151
Q

Which microorganisms cause infections through pre-formed toxins in food

A

C.botulinum
S.aureus

152
Q

Which pathway gives rise to eosinophils?

A

myeloid pathway

153
Q

Why do parasites elicit eosinophilia?

A

Large parasites cannot be phagocytosed internally and so must be killed extracellularly, eosinophil granules contain enzymes effectve against parasitic worms

154
Q

common oral infections

A

dental caries (tooth decay)
gingivitis – inflammation of the gums
periodontitis – inflammation of gums resulting in separation from teeth
oral herpes - blisters on soft tissues
oral thrush - fungal infection
Hand, foot and mouth disease
herpangina

155
Q

poliovirus

A

Non-enveloped single strand RNA virus

can lead to poliomyelitis: disabling and life-threatening condition

asymptomatic or flu like symptoms

156
Q

Enterobacteriaceae - physiology

A

Grow rapidly and have simple nutritional requirements
Facultative anaerobes
They ferment glucose, reduce nitrate
Catalase positive

157
Q

Yersinia

A

Ingestion of contaminated foods or blood transfusion

diarrhoea,fever,abdominal pain

affects terminal ileum

treat w/ antimicrobials

common in NA or Europe due to cool temps

Infection (8 decks)

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