Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fundamentals > Week 3 A > Flashcards

Week 3 A Flashcards

1
Q

What refers to a condition in which the body is in a decreased state of activity, with the consequent feeling of being refreshed?

A

rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a state of rest accompanied by altered consciousness and relative inactivity?

A

Sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a time of mental activity and energy expenditure.?

A

wakefulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is delta sleep state?

A

Stage III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what body funcitons are depressed when sleeping

A

pulse
RR
BP
metabolic rate
muscle tone in skeletal
deep tendon reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What body function is not depressed when sleeping

A

body temp- it increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In which stage of NREM sleep does the person fall into a stage of sleep but can be aroused with relative ease?

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Barbiturates, amphetamines, and antidepressants decrease or increase REM sleep?

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do barbiturates, amphetamines, and antidepressants do to the body

A

CNS depressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are illnesses associated with sleep disturbances

A

Gastroesophageal reflux
Coronary artery diseases
Epilepsy
Liver failure and encephalitis
Hypothyroidism
End-stage renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are ICSD Classification of Sleep Disorders?

A

Insomnia
Sleep-related breathing disorders
Central disorders of hypersomnolence
Circadian rhythm sleep–wake disorders
Parasomnias
Sleep-related movement disorders
Other sleep disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What percent of US adults complain of insomnia?

A

30 to 35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the factors that interfere with sleep?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two types of sleep apnea?

A

Central Sleep apnea
occluded airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of apnea is affected by the CNS?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the five predominantly obstructive respiratory events in OSA

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is Hypersomnolence?

A

Excessive daytime sleepiness 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are Characteristics of Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorders?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Somnambulism?

A

sleepwalking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Willis Ekbom disease?

A

restless leg syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are two pharmocological therapeutics?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are safety risks for patients on sedadtives?

A

dizziness
airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some nonpharmocologic therapeutics for dyssomnia?

A

CBT,
relaxation measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some characteristics to assess in sleep?

A

restlessness
sleep postures
activiites
snoring
jerking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are screening tools ot assess sleep disturbances?

A

The Epworth Sleepiness Scale
The Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index (PSQI)
Sleep Disturbance Questionnaire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some foods that may be appropriate for helping someone fall asleep

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

First thing to do before moving a patient is to determine what?

A

ask if they are able to assist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a type of isotonic exercise?

A

swimming
walking
jogging
running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an example of isometric exercises?

A

holding a yoga pose?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is an example of isokinetic exercise?

A

weightlifting, knee exercises for rehab facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some positive effects of exercise on Cardiovascular system?

A

increased heart efficiency
lowered resting HR and BP
increased blood flow and oxygenation of the body parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are some benefits of exercise to the cardiovascular system?

A

increased heart efficiency
blood flow
venous return
circulating fibrinolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are some effects of immobility on the cardiovascular system?

A

increased cardiac workload
increased risk for orthostatic hypotension
increased risk for blood clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are positive effects of exercise on the respiratory system?

A

increased depth of respiration
increased RR
increased gas exchange
increased rate of CO2 excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the effects of immobility on the respiratory system?

A

decreased respiratory depth
decreased RR
pooling of secretions (infection)
impaired gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the effects of exercise on the GI system?

A

increased appetite
increased intestinal tone
Control weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are some effects of imobility on the GI system?

A

Decreased peristalsis
Decreased fluid intake
Constipation increasing the risk for poop inpaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the effects of exercise on the Urinary system?

A

Improved blood flow to the kidneys
Allows kidney to maintain body fluid balance, an acid-base balance, more efficiently
Excrete body wastes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the effects of immobility on the Urinary system?

A

Urinary stasis
Renal calculi
Decreased fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some psychosocial benefits of exercise?

A

Increased energy, vitality, and general well-being
Improved sleep
Improved self-concept
Increased positive health behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the effects of immobility on the musculoskeletal stem

A

Decreased endurance, strength, and mass
Impaired balance, and stability
Contracture
Foot drop
Altered joint mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are proper body mechanics to lift?

A

wide base support
knees flexed
back straight
get close to the object or patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

why is sensory overload a factor in healthcare?

A

It can manifest as racing thoughts, anxiousness, and restlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is xerostomia?

A

reduced salivation or dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What can nurses do to prevent xerostomia?

A

hard cany
hyddration
oral care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are some safety features for nurses when caring for sensory perception deficit patients?

A

call light accessibility
orient clients
cleaer path
place bed in lowest position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some actions for cients who have hearing loss?

A

sleep slowly
sit and face the cient
try lowering vocl pitch, tone and increasing volume
writedown what clients do not understand
don’t shout
minimize background noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are some actions for cients who have vision loss?

A

before leaving, inform clients of your departure
make a radio, television, CD player are available
call clients by name before approaching to avoid starling them
approse client’s clothing and suggest if soiled or torn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are some actions for cients who have aphasia?

A

speak clearly and slowly using short simple sentences
never shout
check for compression
reinforce with nonverbal gestures
allow plenty of time for clients to respond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the ways to reduce hazards for visually impaired patients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are the ways to reduce hazards for auditorily impaired patients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are the ways to reduce hazards for olfactory impaired patients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are the ways to reduce hazards for gustatory impaired patients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the ways to reduce hazards for tactile impaired patients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the principle where human development falls a head to toe progression?

A

Cephalocaudal principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What principle is where human development progresses from the center to the outward direction?

A

Proximadorsal principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a principle where the spine develop first followed by extremities than fingers and toes

A

Proximodorsal principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the universal principle where humans develop in an orderly fashion from simple to complex?

A

Simple to complex universal principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What principle of human growth and development is where infants accomplish how to control before they are able to crawl

A

Simple to complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the human growth and development principle where human growth is a continuous process characterized by periods of growth, spurts and periods of slow and steady growth?

A

Continuous process principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the principle where human development occurs from large muscle movements to more refined muscle movements?

A

General to specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the universal principle of human development that makes development very from individual to individual?

A

Individualized rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What marks the beginning of prenatal development?

A

Conception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the three periods of prenatal development?

A

Zygote, embryo, and fetus 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How long does the zygote period last?

A

About two weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When is the zygote considered an embryo?

A

When it implants itself into the uterine wall 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What marks the end of the cycle. And the beginning of the embryonic period.

A

Implantation and differentiation of cells 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

During what period of pregnancy is the embryonic period?

A

Third week after conception to the eighth week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What developmental period is characterized by three cell layers forming?

A

The embryonic period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

During what stage of development do body structures and internal organs develop?

A

The embryonic period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does the outer layer of the embryonic period become?

A

Hair, outer layers of the skin, and the nervous system 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the outer layer of the embryonic period called?

A

Ectoderm layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does the mesoderm become?

A

Muscles, bone and circulatory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does the endoderm of the embryonic period become?

A

Lungs and digestive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What time. Of pregnancy does the fetal period last?

A

It’s on the ninth week to birth 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

At what point of the fetal period do most bodily systems function well? And what is this stage called?

A

Between 22 and 28 weeks; the age of viability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What happens if the mother does not consume enough folic acid during pregnancy?

A

The fetus may develop spina bifida where the neural tube does not close properly during the first month of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are some conditions of late pregnancy?

A

Difficulty breathing
Easily tired
feel physically uncomfortable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How soon after birth, is the newborn assessed?

A

About 1 and 5 minutes after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What does APGAR. mean?

A

appearance or skin color
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What can influence Apgar scores?

A

Gestational age
Birthweight
Maternal medication or anesthesia used
Congenital abnormalities 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What should the pulse of a newborn be to get two points on the Apgar scale?

A

At least 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the Moro reflex in an infant?

A

When startled extremities are pulled inwards towards the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What reflex is being tested if a newborn line supine has their head turned to the side? And what is expected to happen?

A

Tonic neck; the arm and leg on that side will extend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the simulation when the sole of the foot is stroked and what will happen?

A

The toes will fan outward, and the foot turns inward. This is called the Babinski reflex. 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What will happen if a newborn is held upright with the feet touching the surface?

A

They will move their feet as if to walk 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is measured right after birth?

A

Height and weight
Head circumference
Vital signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is normal for a newborn’s temperature?

A

A lower than normal temperature as the newborn adjusts to life outside the uterus 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are three ways to prevent heat loss of a newborn

A

Cover with a light blanket
Putting the newborn on the mother skin
Covering the neonate head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How should a newborns respiratory rate be measured in what is the typical range?

A

It must be counted for a full minute; usually between 30 and 60 breaths per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How should an apical pulse of a newborn be taken in? What is the typical range?

A

It should be taken for a full minute; they typically ranges from 110 to 160 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the average newborns blood pressure range?

A

60 to 80 mm per mercury for systolic
40 to 50 millimeters per mercury for diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How long does infancy span?

A

Two days to toddler hood 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How long do infants or newborns sleep for?

A

About 20 hours and then 12 hours per day at the end of their first year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What can infants do during their first two months?

A

Hold their head erect and stueady
Cool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

At what age can infants roll from side to side, left their head, while lying prone and sit with support?

A

End of their fourth month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

At what age can infants pick up objects, and transfer the objects from hand to hand for themselves, up to an upright position, and enjoyable vocal play

A

Six months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

When do deciduous teeth begin to emerge?

A

At age 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

By their first birthday, how heavy should an infant be?

A

Three times their initial birth weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What kind of vaccines are given in the first two years of life?

A

Syria measles, mumps, rubella, polio tetanus, and pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

When does object permanence kick in?

A

Around nine months and fully develops during toddler hood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is associative play a characteristic of

A

Preschool age, children, who interact with each other in a similar activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What kind of play do older preschoolers engage in usually?

A

Cooperative play with the rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What hormone triggers puberty?

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What hormone stimulates the development of eggs and sperm?

A

follicle-stimulating hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What hormone causes testosterone and estrogen secretion?

A

Luteinizing hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is climacteric in women?

A

Menopause and heart palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What physiological change in older adults make that more susceptible to cardiac and respiratory disorders?

A

A loss of elasticity in the blood vessels and lung tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

According to Erikson, what is the first stage of psychosocial development?

A

Trust versus mistrust
Infancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

According to Erikson, what is the second stage of psychosocial development? 

A

Autonomy versus shame, and doubt during toddler hood 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

According to Erikson, what is the third stage of psychosocial development and when is it? 

A

Initiative versus guilt which occurs during preschool age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

According to Erikson at what stage does a child develop self-confidence productivity, and a sense of self accomplishment? 

A

During childhood
Industry versus inferiority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

According to Erikson, what psychosocial stage is important for identity formation, and exploration to achieve a sense of identity and purpose?

A

Identity versus role confusion during adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

During what stage does an individual begin to form, intimate, committed relationships with one another?

A

Intimacy versus isolation in early adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

During what stage does a person usually undertake activities that cause and benefit others, such as raising a family mentoring, coaching and becoming more community involved?

A

In middle adulthood, where generativity versus stagnation is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the last stage of Ericksons psychosocial development model

A

Integrity versus despair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

According to Erikson, at what stage does one achieve a sense of identity and determine a place in society ?

A

During adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are the four stages of Piaget‘s theory of cognitive development?

A

Sensorimotor
Preoperational
Concrete operational
Formal operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

According to Piaget, how do infants explore the world through direct, sensory and motor contact?

A

Sensorimotor stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

At what stage does object permanence and separation anxiety emerge?

A

Sensory motor from 0 to 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

According to Piaget, when does someone express themselves through language and symbolic gestures but cannot reason logically yet?

A

Preoperational stage from 2 to 6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

According to Piaget, when does someone understand the concept of reversibility and speciality, and can classify socialize and apply rules?

A

Concrete operational from 6 to 12 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

At what stage according to Piaget, can people refine their thinking, and reasoning skills to achieve cognitive maturity

A

Formal operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is a critique to Piaget’s theory?

A

He used his own children as participants, as well as other children of well educated professionals of high socioeconomic status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development at what stage does preconventional reasoning happen?

A

4 to 10 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What kind of level of moral development according to Kohlberg is when rules are obeyed to avoid punishment, and rules are played or a personal gain

A

Preconventional reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

According to Kohlberg, when are rules of paid for acceptance and approval, and also to maintain social order

A

ConventionAl reasoning and 10 to 13 years to adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

According to Colbert, when are people in the social contract and universal ethical principles stage

A

Adolescence to adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, if a rules are challenged if they impinge on the rights of others, what level is this?

A

Post conventional reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the most prevalent cause of genetic disorders?

A

Down syndrome 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are some health concerns with down syndrome?

A

Congenital heart defect
Gastrointestinal anomalies
Wake, neuromuscular tone
Audio visual impairment
Early onset, Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the second most common type of birth defect?

A

Spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What kind of medication‘s are associated with higher risk of giving birth to babies with congenital defects?

A

Epilepsy and bipolar disorder medication’s 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are the range of disabilities of spina bifida? 

A

No symptoms to mild to severe with uses of crutches, braces and wheelchairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are some symptoms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder? 

A

Low birthweight
misshapen face, small head
thin upper lip
short nose and widely spaced eyes sometimes hyper active behavior
attention and many memory problems, learning disabilities and speech and language, delays poor judgment skills in a variety of health problems 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Why is fetal alcohol syndrome? Hard to diagnose

A

The mothers may not be forthcoming with their alcohol
Sometimes the diagnosis looks like other conditions 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is failure to thrive?

A

They have height and weight measures that typically Fabi long is the third or 5th percentile is Laura Baker of growth and development related to nutritional needs that are unmet 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are infants with a ftt prone to?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux
Celiac disease
Unwillingness to eat food
Absorption problems
Difficulty swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What kinds of behaviors to people with FTT present?

A

Easily fatigued
Irritable
Black age appropriate social responses
Excepted delayed physical skills and motor development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the leading cause of death for children and all age groups?

A

Motor vehicle accidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is the concept of reversibility?

A

The idea that some objects can be changed and can change back into another form 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

At what age what a child, attribute feelings and motives to an object?

A

2 to 6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

When can the ends make initial assessments and data collection on clients?

A

When the patient is deemed stable, but the RN must determine if further physical assessment data is needed 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the four step process that practical nurses used to assess a patient?

A

One data collection
Two planning
Three implementation
Four evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What step in the nurse process can the PN do the same as the RN?

A

They can do the same planning, but they must assist and collaborate with the RN not assuming full responsibility for planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are tasks that cannot be delegated to an AP?

A

Wound care of a new wound
Assessment a respiratory system
Assessment of urine
Administration of eyedrops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is at the bottom of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Physiological needs such as air water food housing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What kind of need is a safety need?

A

Secure environment to live work and play 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the deficiency needs of Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

The first four or bottom for physiological, safety, love and esteem needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is the third level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

You need to give and receive love 

151
Q

What is the second to highest level on Maslow hierarchy of needs?

A

Need to have a high self image 

152
Q

What is a growth need on Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

The very top, which is self actualization, or a need for achievement and mastery 

153
Q

Which level on Maslow’s hierarchy is the struggle to maintain homeostasis?

A

Physiological needs 

154
Q

What is the least restrictive least invasive priority setting ring work?

A

Using intervention priorities, based on what is least restrictive and invasive 

155
Q

And what priority framework should you check for abdominal distention, hives, or edema?

A

Exposure

156
Q

What is the safety and risk reduction?

A

Priority is given to whatever finding possessed the greatest or immediate risk to the clients, physical or psychological well-being

157
Q

What is it called when there is a mass casualty incident and the framework is based on doing the most good for the maximum number of clients at a time when healthcare resources are limited?

A

Survival potential

158
Q

What does the E stand for in exposure?

A

To uncover the client from head to toe while maintaining privacy and body temperature to uncover any unexpected findings, such as presence of internal or external bleeding, rashes or a edema 

159
Q

What are the benefits to educating clients?

A

Decrease anxiety
Ownership
More knowledgeable and empowered
Less pain and fewer unpleasant hospital experiences

160
Q

What are the components of cognitive domain?

A

Knowledge
Comprehension
Application
Analysis or the breakdown of information to understand the structure
Synthesis or putting the elements together
Evaluation 

161
Q

What are the domains of learning?

A

Affective
Psychomotor
Cognitive

162
Q

What are the five components of psycho motor domain learning?

A

Guided response, an imitation
Mechanism or manipulation
Complex or precision
Adaptation or articulation
Origination or naturalization 

163
Q

Which domain of learning is based on educational instruction to provide information that affects the clients feelings and apply it to their situation?

A

Affective domain 

164
Q

What are the six fundamental principles of learning according to Knowles?

A

Relevance
Self-directed
Life experience
Readiness
Tasks centered
Motivation 

165
Q

Which fundamental principle of learning, according to Knowles, is where the client takes part in their learning, and have control over making informed decisions?

A

Self-directed principle 

166
Q

Which fundamental principle of learning, according to Knowles is when the adult needs to be problem centered, and the education is more effective when a relates to adult life experiences

A

Task centered, principal

167
Q

 Internal motivation is vital because it increases what?

A

Self-esteem

168
Q

What are factors that promote learning?

A

Received benefit
Enhanced health literacy
Nonjudgmental support
Quiet low stimulus environment
Repetition

169
Q

What are some factors that hinder learning?

A

Fear, anxiety, and depression
Lack of motivation
Environmental distractions
Psycho motor deficits
Physical discomfort
Timing

170
Q

How ar which domains of learning has a dialogue of personal topics, expression of feelings and support 

A

Affective domain
Receiving and agreeing
Responding to agreement
Valuing the volume information to the client
Organization
Characterization or having pursued values

171
Q

What are some positive outcomes when clients learn effectively?

A

Better able to manage their care
Empowers them to make informed decisions
Increased adherence to interventions
Reduction of hospital admissions

172
Q

What happens during the assessment portion of the teaching process?

A

The nurse gathers data regarding the clients needs such as motivation, health literacy, learning environment, and support system

173
Q

Which of the nursing process or the teaching process is RN only?

A

Analysis

174
Q

Which part of the teaching process develops a teaching plan that meets the clients learning needs?

A

Planning

175
Q

Which part of the teaching process does the nurse include verbal discussion demonstration teach back printed materials, videos, and computer based learning

A

Implementation

176
Q

At what point in the teaching process would the nurse determine if they need to form a new learning goal?

A

Evaluation

177
Q

How does documentation help a hospital?

A

Ensures that the facility is being reimbursed for services to maintain or increase staffing and services

178
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Ask client to identify specific smells, such as coffee or peppermint, testing each nostril separately.

A

Olfactory I

179
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Test visual acuity using Snellen chart or by having client read printed material.

A

Optic II

180
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check extraocular movements by assessing the 6 directions of gaze.

A

Oculomotor III

181
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check pupillary reaction to light and accommodation.

A

Oculomotor III

182
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess the six directions of gaze

A

Troclear IV

183
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess corneal reflex.

A

Trigeminal V

184
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Palpate the masseter muscles at the temple while client clenches jaw.

A

Trigeminal V

185
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check sensation by lightly touching over the face with a cotton ball.

A

Trigeminal V

186
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess the 6 directions of gaze.

A

Abducents VI

187
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Monitor for symmetry of the face when the client smiles and raises/lowers eyebrows.

A

Facial VII

188
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check the perception of sweet and salty tastes on the front of the tongue.

A

Facial VII

189
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Whisper a word 2 to 3 cm away from one ear while client occludes the other ear. Check both ears.

A

Vestibulocochlear (Auditory) VIII

190
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Observe the client’s balance as they walk.

A

Vestibulocochlear (Auditory) VIII

191
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check perception of sweet and sour tastes on the back of the tongue.

A

Glossopharyngeal IX

192
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Use a tongue blade to check the gag reflex.

A

Glossopharyngeal IX

193
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess the ability to swallow.

A

Glossopharyngeal IX

194
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Have client say “ah” and observe palate and pharynx for movement.

A

Vagus X

195
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Listen for hoarseness of voice.

A

Vagus X

196
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess pulse, bowel sounds.

A

Vagus X

197
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Observe ability to turn head side to side.

A

Accessory XI

198
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Monitor client’s ability to shrug shoulders against resistance from examiner’s hands.

A

Accessory XI

199
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Ask client to stick tongue out, observe if midline;

A

Hypoglossal XII

200
Q

What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess ability to move tongue side to side.

A

Hypoglossal XII

201
Q

What senses are affected by an upper respiratory infection?

A

smell and taste

202
Q

What senses are affected by poor nutrition?

A

smell, taste and touch

203
Q

What senses are affected by hypertension?

A

touch and vision

204
Q

What senses are affected by high cholesterol?

A

touch and vision

205
Q

What senses can be affected by diabetes Mellitus?

A

hearing, smell, taste, touch, and vision

206
Q

What three cranial, nerves control, the eyes and vision?

A

Ocular motor (iii)
Trochlear (IV)
Abducens (VI)

207
Q

What is another word for farsightedness?

A

Hyperopia

208
Q

What is the condition where blood leaks from the blood vessels in the retina

A

Diabetic retinopathy

209
Q

What is the most common cause of impaired vision, and blindness during adulthood?

A

Diabetic retinopathy

210
Q

By age 75 how many Americans have cataracts?

A

50%

211
Q

How often should a diabetic have an annual eye exam?

A

Every year

212
Q

What are some ways diabetics can slow down, diabetic retinopathy progression?

A

Control glue close levels
Blood pressure
Cholesterol levels

213
Q

What condition starts with the loss of peripheral vision and buildup of fluid?

A

Glaucoma

214
Q

What are some emergent manifestations that require immediate treatment of glaucoma?

A

Eye pain
Severe headache
Blurred vision 

215
Q

In the US, what is the number one cause of vision loss and buenas for people over 65 years of age?

A

Macular degeneration

216
Q

How often should children who have no vision, problems or history of vision problems in their family have their vision assessed?

A

Every two years after there first grade exam

217
Q

What tool can measure Intraocular pressure?

A

tonometry

218
Q

What tools are used to measure for assess for glaucoma?

A

tonometry
Gonioscopy

219
Q

What tool allows visualization of the anterior portion of the eye?

A

Slit lamp examination 

220
Q

How far away should someone stand to assess with a Snellen chart?

A

20 feet or 6 m

221
Q

How far away should a client hold a chart for a Rosenbaum test?

A

14 inches or 36 cm

222
Q

What are some ways that a nurse should educate a client for healthy eyecare?

A

Wash hands before and after instilling eye medication
Quit smoking
Limit, alcohol intake
Keep blood pressure blood glucose in cholesterol under control
Eat foods, rich in antioxidants

223
Q

What kind of drugs will dilate the pupil?

A

Anticholinergics, such as atropine ophthalmology solution

224
Q

What kind of hearing loss affects the inner ear, auditory nerve, or hearing center of the brain?

A

Sensorineural

225
Q

What kind of hearing loss affects the middle ear to block sound waves before they reach the cochlea of the inner ear?

A

Conductive hearing loss

226
Q

What structures of the year are considered the middle ear or a tympanic cavity?

A

Eustachian tube, ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes)

227
Q

What structure separates the inner and outer ear sections?

A

Tim panic membrane, or the eardrum

228
Q

What three structures consists of the inner ear? Horrible grammar

A

Cochlea, the vestibule, semicircular canals

229
Q

What can cause conductive hearing loss?

A

History of middle ear infections
Older age (otosclerosis)

230
Q

What are some causes of tinnitus?

A

Age related hearing loss
Ear injury
Cerumen blockage
Circulatory system problem

231
Q

What are some causes of sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Prolonged exposure to loud noises
Ototoxic medication
Infectious process
Older age (presbycusis: decreased ability to hear high-pitched sounds)

232
Q

What is the most prevalent type of hearing loss?

A

SNHL

233
Q

What are some congenital infections that can cause SNHL?

A

Down syndrome
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex
Syphilis

234
Q

What are some non-genetic or infection related causes of hearing loss in infants?

A

Preterm birth
Low birthweight
Neonatal sepsis
Hyperbilirubinemia
Low Apgar score 

235
Q

If someone has SNHL problems that affect a nerve, which nerve?

A

Vestibulocochlear VIII

236
Q

What are some SNHL causes?

A

HD
Trauma
DM
Meningitis
Measles
Tumors

237
Q

What is age related hearing loss called?

A

Presbycusis

238
Q

How often is presbycusis?

A

Occurs in half of adults over 75 years of age

239
Q

What are some effects of ototoxicity of SNHL?

A

Tinnitus
Dizziness
Impaired balance

240
Q

What is the inflammation or the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear?

A

Otitis media

241
Q

Otosclerosis is more common in what population?

A

Women

242
Q

What kind of hearing loss is tinnitus?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

243
Q

What is the range for a severe hearing loss?

A

When a client can only hear sounds above 70 to 89 dB

244
Q

What range is considered a profound deafness?

A

If a client can only hear sounds above 90 dB

245
Q

When would a person have trouble hearing sounds of a conversation without the use of a hearing aid

A

Client needs hearing aids and unable to detect sounds between 41 and 68 dB or lower

246
Q

If a client has been on ototoxic medications for more than five days, what should the nurse do?

A

Check the hearing of clients for reduced renal function

247
Q

What should a nurse do to communicate better with a hard of hearing patient?

A

Get the clients attention before speaking
Sit or stand facing the clients and they will that room
Speak clearly, and slowly without showing
Arrange for communication assistance, such as sign language, interpreter, phone amplifiers, and a teletypewriter

248
Q

What should you do if a hearing aid is not in use for an extended period of time?

A

Turn it off and remove the battery

249
Q

What cranial nerves control speech?

A

V
X
XI
XII
(Phrenic and intercostal)

250
Q

What is the disorder that affects a clients ability to articulate and understand speech, and written language?

A

Aphasia 

251
Q

What ar the causes of aphasia?

A

CVA
Degenerative neurological disorders
Dementia
Brain injury 

252
Q

What is Brocas’ aphasia aka?

A

Expressive aphasia

253
Q

What kind of speech is characteristic of expressive aphasia?

A

They can speak in short phrases

254
Q

Wha is fluent aphasia aka?

A

Comprehensive aphasia or Wernicke’s aphasia

255
Q

Clients who have comprehensive aphasia usually have damage to what part of the brain?

A

Temporel lobe

256
Q

What type of speech is characteristic of comprehensive aphasia?

A

Bein able to understand

257
Q

Global aphasia causes what?

A

Language comprehension impairment and may be unable to form words or sentences

258
Q

What kind of aphasia is when people can understand, but unable to speak the words they want to say?

A

Broca’s aphasia

259
Q

What is the most developed sensory system at birth?

A

Touch

260
Q

Hug, wearing clothing, and feeling wind causes pain in what condition?

A

Tactile defensiveness

261
Q

What are manifestations of neuropathy?

A

Weakness
Numbness
Burning feeling
Tingling pain
And ability to detect temperature
Hyporeflexia

262
Q

How to touch disorders manifest in children?

A

Behavioral difficulties
Avoid bonding behaviors with parents and caregivers
Requiring constant stimulation from touching people and objects

263
Q

What is it called when there is a persistent foul taste when the mouth is empty?

A

Phantom, taste, perception

264
Q

What is the most common taste disorder?

A

Phantom, taste, perception

265
Q

What is the decreased ability to taste?

A

Hypogeusia

266
Q

What is the inability to taste anything at all called?

A

Ageusia

267
Q

What is the experience of a persistent, salty, rancid or metallic taste?

A

Dysgeusia

268
Q

What are some causes of taste disorders?

A

Upper respiratory tract,
Leslie infections, head injuries
Dental caries
some medication’s
Dentures

269
Q

What causes a decrease in taste for people over 60?

A

Decrease salivary production

270
Q

What disorder causes previously pleasant smells to become unpleasant?

A

Parosmia

271
Q

Olfactory disorders affect more men or women?

A

Men

272
Q

What are some disorders that contribute to olfactory disorders?

A

Parkinson’s
Alzheimer’s

273
Q

NSAIDS can affect what senses?

A

Hearing and taste

274
Q

Antibiotics can affect what senses?

A

Hearing
Olfactory
Taste

275
Q

Look diuretics can affect what sense?

A

Hearing

276
Q

Antihypertensives can affect what sense?

A

Taste

277
Q

Psychotropics can affect what sense?

A

Taste

278
Q

Antihistamines can affect what senses?

A

Hearing
Vision
Olfactory
Gustatory

279
Q

Aspirin affects what sense?

A

Hearing

280
Q

What are some age considerations for hearing?

A

Lose ability to hear high-frequency sounds
Cerumen impaction
Tinnitus

281
Q

What are some age considerations for the eyes?

A

Less sensitive corneas
Smaller peoples, and less reactive to light
Decrease in visual acuity
Less flexibility and extra ocular muscles weekend
Difficulty differentiating colors
If you were tears so painful and prone to infection and corneal scarring

282
Q

What are some medication that alter taste?

A

NSAIDs
Antihypertensives
Anti-histamines
Psychotropics 

283
Q

Which dis reversible? Delirium or dementia?

A

Delirium

284
Q

How is diabetic retinopathy diagnosed?

A

Fluorescein angiography

285
Q

What test can be performed to detect macular degeneration?

A

Ambler grid to see if lines are wavy or missing

286
Q

WhWhat are some clues in the the eye of someone with macular degeneration?

A

Druses, or small, yellowish deposits of proteins and lipids under the retina

287
Q

What are some test that determine how effectively vibrations are transmitted through the ossicles?

A

Bone oscillator test

288
Q

What test monitors the brains’ response to sound by measuring the sound of clicking noises with electrodes?

A

Auditory brain stem response

289
Q

What are the hearing test most frequently used?

A

ABR and OAE

290
Q

What kind of test is performed to determine any damage to the nerves leading to muscles using needles?

A

electormyography

291
Q

How should a nurse care for someone with mild to moderate impairment?

A

Confirm the client has access to all required corrective equipment
I ensure adequate lighting
Provide large, print reading materials
Faced a client when speaking

292
Q

How should a nurse care for someone who is moderately to severely visually impaired or blind?

A

Announce presents before entering room
Instruct the client on location of items around the room, including call light
Encourage client to request assistance when ambulating
Keep environment, free of clutter
Offer any braille material
Open packages if needed
Explain what is on their meal tray

293
Q

What does the prefix “presby” mean?

A

Aging

294
Q

What are indications of possible hearing loss?

A

Asks for questions to be repeated
Withdraws from social activities
Describe sounds as being muffled 

295
Q

What are the top two common changes associated with aging?

A

Vision and hearing loss

296
Q

What are three tastes that can decrease with age?

A

Sour
Bitter
Salty

297
Q

What are some potential causes of conductive hearing loss?

A

Trauma to the outer ear
Inflammation
Cerumen build up
Otitis media

298
Q

What is a sequential compression device used for?

A

to improve blood flow in the legs

299
Q

The more well-developed the muscle, the what the rate of atrophy?

A

Faster

300
Q

How long does it take to see changes to the structure and function of tendons, ligaments, and cartilage?

A

Four days

301
Q

What is it called when the fixations at the joint occur as a result of changes to muscle and connective tissue?

A

Joint contractures

302
Q

What happens in a joint contracture so that the arm for joint twists in a odd way?

A

The flexor muscles are naturally stronger than extensor muscles and atrophy leads to an imbalance between the opposing muscles

303
Q

What is it called when you only have a limited ability to pull the toes up towards the head also called dorsiflexion?

A

Foot drop

304
Q

What causes foot drop?

A

Nerve entrapment in short any of the calf muscles in Achilles tendon in the lower leg

305
Q

What are some negative effects of prolonged and mobility on the cardiovascular system?

A

Orthostatic hypotension
Les fluid volume in the circulatory system
Status of blood in the legs
Diminished autonomic response
Decreased cardiac output
Increased oxygenation requirement
Increased risk of thrombus
Blood thickening
Diuresis
Potential, dehydration

306
Q

How does bedrest change blood composition?

A

Since it is easier for blood to return to the head, blood thickens in order to make it more difficult which results in diuresis and potential dehydration

307
Q

What is it called when there is lowered demand results in atrophy of the heart muscle?

A

Cardiac deconditioning

308
Q

Being in a supine positions reduces what?

A

Amount of air exchanged

309
Q

What is the partial or complete collapse of the lung and how is it caused?

A

Atelectasisa is caused by shallow breathing

310
Q

What are some negative effects of immobility?

A

Pneumonia
Decreased cough response
Stasis of secretions and decreased and weak ended respiratory muscles

311
Q

How does bedrest lead to malnutrition?

A

lowered muscle activity can result in a lowered absorption of protein leading to a lower level of protein in the blood

312
Q

What medication further slows gastrointestinal motility?

A

Opioid medications

313
Q

What happens to stool if the transit time is prolonged in the intestinal tract?

A

Water absorption increases and results in a dryer, harder stool

314
Q

How does immobility affect the genitourinary system?

A

Urinary
Change in calcium metabolic some with hypercalcemia resulting in renal calculi
Decreased fluid intake and increased use of indwelling urinary catheter’s resulting in UTIs

315
Q

How does immobility affect the gastrointestinal system?

A

Decreased peristalsi
Decreased fluid intake
Lowered protein
Constipation
Gastro esophageal reflux

316
Q

What are some psychological effects on decreased mobility?

A

Loss of privacy
Impaction of self-concept and self-estee
Feelings of frustration, anxiety, and depression
Social, isolation

317
Q

What are some negative effects of immobility on the integumentary system?

A

Increase pressure on the skin
Decreased circulation to tissue, causing ischemia and pressure injury
Damage or necrosis of the skin

318
Q

What is an assessment for disuse osteoporosis?

A

Monitor for increased pain levels, especially in vertebral areas

319
Q

What are some interventions for disuse osteoporosis?

A

Notify provider if fracture is
Emulate client with assistance
Monitor for increased pain
Perform hourly rounding

320
Q

What are some assessments for sarcopenia?

A

Observe for dimensioning muscle mass, strength and coordination
Monitor client for weakness and unsteadiness
Assess for fatigue during an activity

321
Q

What are some interventions for joint contractures?

A

Encourage ADLs to promote flexion and extension
Ensure each joint is moved, at least once every eight hours
Use splints to support and stretch contractor joints
Inspect clients body position and posture for proper body alignment every two hours 

322
Q

What are some interventions for DVT? (5)

A

Antiembolism stockings
Perform lower leg exercises
Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration and risk of clot
Ambulate frequently
Administer anticoagulants

323
Q

What are some assessments to look out for when a client may have DVT?

A

Assess for equal cap refill
Observe clients in the presence of unilateral edema

324
Q

What are some interventions for atelactasis?

A

Encourage use of incentive spirometer
Encourage deep breathing and cough exercises
Monitor oxygen saturation levels, and prescribe any extra
Elevate had to low-Fowlers or 30 to 45°
Turn and reposition every two hours

325
Q

What are some interventions for constipation?

A

Encourage fluid intake
Encourage consumption of high fiber foods
Increase mobility

326
Q

What are some assessments for constipation?

A

Auscultate bowel for evaluation
Palpate for distention or discomfort
Assess for nausea, vomiting, or pain

327
Q

What are some interventions for Gastroesophageal reflux

A

Elevate head of bed after meals to promote collection of gastric secretions

328
Q

What are some interventions for urinary retention

A

Encourage fluid intake
Upright position when peeing

329
Q

How to take care of pressure injury

A

Use pillows and cushions
Use chairs and other mattresses
Ensure adequate calories
Move patients every two hours

330
Q

Wha does the Borg Rating of Pervieved Exertion work?

A

Subjective scale enabling clients to gauge their level of exertion during activity. Lowest is a six and highest is 20 (maximal effort

331
Q

What should be included in a mobility assessment?

A

Normal mobility status
Ability to sit, stand and walk
Use or need or assistance
Degree of mobility and immobility
Condition of skin
Presence of any manifestations

332
Q

What sis the MAT?

A

Objectively determine’s a client

333
Q

If a person is a level one, what kind of equipment is needed?

A

Mechanical life and sideboard

334
Q

At what MAT does it require a gait belt and ambulating assistance devices?

A

Levels three with minimal assist

335
Q

What does aging due to posture?

A

Bone loss and degeneration of vertebral discs lead to stooped position and unsteady ambulation

336
Q

What level is a a person who can sit at the side of the bed and extend their legs?

A

Moderate assist - level two

337
Q

How should the top of a cane be positioned?

A

It should be level with the inside of the wrist when the client’s arms are relaxed

338
Q

How bent the clients elbow be when using a cane?

A

About 15 to 30°

339
Q

What kind of clients should use walkers?

A

Those with balance or weakness difficulties

340
Q

Which foot should step first when using a walker?

A

The weaker foot

341
Q

What areas should be assessed in order to fit crutches?

A

Axilla should be 1-2 inches above crutch pads
Hand grips should be at level of client’s hips
Elbows should be 15 to 30° bent when holding the hand grips 

342
Q

What are the two p’s when positioning the body or body part in a certain way?

A

Promotion: safety dignity, comfort, privacy, participation, and frequent position changes
Prevention: strain, injury, and skin breakdown

343
Q

What is the difference between a swing through and a swing to gait?

A

A swing through gate is when the feet move beyond the crutches

344
Q

What is a two- point gait?

A

The crutch and opposite foot will move together and then the other foot and other crutch will move together

345
Q

How does someone go up and down stairs with crutches?

A

Good up and bad down

346
Q

What is an advantage of lying and prone position? (2)

A

Laos refill extension of hip and knee joints to prevent contractures
Promotes drainage of secretions

347
Q

What is the advantage of the supine or dorsal recumbent position?

A

Enable visualization of the client for examination

348
Q

What is the advantage for a lateral position?

A

Remote, spinal alignment and
reduces pressure on sacrum and heels

349
Q

What is an advantage of Fowlers position?

A

Promotes long expansion

350
Q

What degrees are semi-Fowlers?

A

45 to 60°

351
Q

What degree is a semi fowler position?

A

30 to 45°

352
Q

What is a high Fowler position?

A

Head of the bed is elevated 60 to 90°

353
Q

What is an advantage of lateral semi prone recumbent?

A

Reduces pressure on the sacrum and hips
Promote drainage of secretion

354
Q

What is an advantage of Trendelenburg position? (2)

A

Promote
Promotes drainage of the lower lobes of the lungs

355
Q

In a maximum assistance stage, what can a patient do?

A

Nothing

356
Q

When is a sit to stand mechanical lift used?

A

When a patient has surgical or trauma pain, and cannot lift the body upright without assistance

357
Q

When should you not use a mechanical lift for a patient?

A

When they are uncooperative, and not calm

358
Q

When should a pivot disk be used?

A

When the patient can stand, but has difficulty moving their feet

359
Q

What are some types of ROM exercises?

A

Ankle pumps
Foot circles
Knee flexion

360
Q

What happens if you don’t size the antiembolism stockings appropriately?

A

It can cause reverse pressure gradient, and increase the risk of DVT

361
Q

How high should antiembolism stockings go?

A

Up to two inches below the back of the knee or 2 inches below the butt for thigh highs

362
Q

How often should an intermittent pneumatic compression device be removed?

A

Every eight hours

363
Q

What should you not do to reduce compression of leg veins?

A

Crossed legs
Sit for long periods of time
Wear restrictive clothing on lower extremities
Massage legs
Put pillows behind knees

364
Q

How long should you wait until placing a heat source on a traumatic injury?

A

At least 24 hours

365
Q

What position should you place a patient to promote postural drainage?

A

Prone

366
Q

What position should you place a postop patient to prevent atelectasis?

A

Fowlers

367
Q

What are the benefits of exercise on the musculoskeletal system?

A

Increased joint mobility
Strength
Reduced bone loss
Increase coordination
Prevention of osteoporosis, especially during chemo

368
Q

What are positive affects of exercise on the metabolic process?

A

metabolic rate increases up to 20 times a persons normal rate
Increased triglyceride breakdown
Increased gastric motility
Increased production of body heat (wards off infection)

369
Q

What are some general risks to exercise?

A

Cardiac event
Orthopedic discomfort and disability
Other health problems, such as asthma, and internal factors

370
Q

What position is useful for chest expansion in people with COPD?

A

Orthopneic

371
Q

zolpidem side effects

A

Nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics, such as zolpidem, can cause memory loss, gastric discomfort, and hallucinations. Zolpidem-
ZoLow BP-Pain in belly- Imagining-DEhydration-Memory loss

372
Q

Diphenhydramine side effects

A

Diphenhydramine can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, tinnitus, and urinary retention. Hypotension
DoubleImage-PeeHolding-enhyd-Ringing-Arid-Mouth-ine

373
Q

Tongue movements include cranial nerves:

A

IX, X, XII

Fundamentals (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions