Week 3 A Flashcards
1
Q
What refers to a condition in which the body is in a decreased state of activity, with the consequent feeling of being refreshed?
A
rest
2
Q
what is a state of rest accompanied by altered consciousness and relative inactivity?
A
Sleep
3
Q
What is a time of mental activity and energy expenditure.?
A
wakefulness
4
Q
What is delta sleep state?
A
Stage III
5
Q
what body funcitons are depressed when sleeping
A
pulse
RR
BP
metabolic rate
muscle tone in skeletal
deep tendon reflexes
6
Q
What body function is not depressed when sleeping
A
body temp- it increases
7
Q
In which stage of NREM sleep does the person fall into a stage of sleep but can be aroused with relative ease?
A
II
8
Q
Barbiturates, amphetamines, and antidepressants decrease or increase REM sleep?
A
decrease
9
Q
What do barbiturates, amphetamines, and antidepressants do to the body
A
CNS depressant
10
Q
What are illnesses associated with sleep disturbances
A
Gastroesophageal reflux
Coronary artery diseases
Epilepsy
Liver failure and encephalitis
Hypothyroidism
End-stage renal disease
11
Q
What are ICSD Classification of Sleep Disorders?
A
Insomnia
Sleep-related breathing disorders
Central disorders of hypersomnolence
Circadian rhythm sleep–wake disorders
Parasomnias
Sleep-related movement disorders
Other sleep disorders
12
Q
What percent of US adults complain of insomnia?
A
30 to 35%
13
Q
What are the factors that interfere with sleep?
A
14
Q
What are the two types of sleep apnea?
A
Central Sleep apnea
occluded airway
15
Q
What type of apnea is affected by the CNS?
A
16
Q
What are the five predominantly obstructive respiratory events in OSA
A
17
Q
what is Hypersomnolence?
A
Excessive daytime sleepiness 
18
Q
what are Characteristics of Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorders?
A
19
Q
What is Somnambulism?
A
sleepwalking
20
Q
What is Willis Ekbom disease?
A
restless leg syndrome
21
Q
What are two pharmocological therapeutics?
A
22
Q
What are safety risks for patients on sedadtives?
A
dizziness
airway
23
Q
What are some nonpharmocologic therapeutics for dyssomnia?
A
CBT,
relaxation measures
24
Q
What are some characteristics to assess in sleep?
A
restlessness
sleep postures
activiites
snoring
jerking
25
What are screening tools ot assess sleep disturbances?
The Epworth Sleepiness Scale
The Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index (PSQI)
Sleep Disturbance Questionnaire
26
What are some foods that may be appropriate for helping someone fall asleep
Carbohydrates
27
First thing to do before moving a patient is to determine what?
ask if they are able to assist
28
What is a type of isotonic exercise?
swimming
walking
jogging
running
29
What is an example of isometric exercises?
holding a yoga pose?
30
What is an example of isokinetic exercise?
weightlifting, knee exercises for rehab facilities
31
What are some positive effects of exercise on Cardiovascular system?
increased heart efficiency
lowered resting HR and BP
increased blood flow and oxygenation of the body parts
32
What are some benefits of exercise to the cardiovascular system?
increased heart efficiency
blood flow
venous return
circulating fibrinolysin
33
what are some effects of immobility on the cardiovascular system?
increased cardiac workload
increased risk for orthostatic hypotension
increased risk for blood clots
34
what are positive effects of exercise on the respiratory system?
increased depth of respiration
increased RR
increased gas exchange
increased rate of CO2 excretion
35
What are the effects of immobility on the respiratory system?
decreased respiratory depth
decreased RR
pooling of secretions (infection)
impaired gas exchange
36
What are the effects of exercise on the GI system?
increased appetite
increased intestinal tone
Control weight
37
what are some effects of imobility on the GI system?
Decreased peristalsis
Decreased fluid intake
Constipation increasing the risk for poop inpaction
38
What are the effects of exercise on the Urinary system?
Improved blood flow to the kidneys
Allows kidney to maintain body fluid balance, an acid-base balance, more efficiently
Excrete body wastes
39
What are the effects of immobility on the Urinary system?
Urinary stasis
Renal calculi
Decreased fluid
40
What are some psychosocial benefits of exercise?
Increased energy, vitality, and general well-being
Improved sleep
Improved self-concept
Increased positive health behaviors
41
What are the effects of immobility on the musculoskeletal stem
Decreased endurance, strength, and mass
Impaired balance, and stability
Contracture
Foot drop
Altered joint mobility
42
What are proper body mechanics to lift?
wide base support
knees flexed
back straight
get close to the object or patient
43
why is sensory overload a factor in healthcare?
It can manifest as racing thoughts, anxiousness, and restlessness
44
What is xerostomia?
reduced salivation or dry mouth
45
What can nurses do to prevent xerostomia?
hard cany
hyddration
oral care
46
What are some safety features for nurses when caring for sensory perception deficit patients?
call light accessibility
orient clients
cleaer path
place bed in lowest position
47
What are some actions for cients who have hearing loss?
sleep slowly
sit and face the cient
try lowering vocl pitch, tone and increasing volume
writedown what clients do not understand
don't shout
minimize background noise
48
What are some actions for cients who have vision loss?
before leaving, inform clients of your departure
make a radio, television, CD player are available
call clients by name before approaching to avoid starling them
approse client's clothing and suggest if soiled or torn
49
What are some actions for cients who have aphasia?
speak clearly and slowly using short simple sentences
never shout
check for compression
reinforce with nonverbal gestures
allow plenty of time for clients to respond
50
what are the ways to reduce hazards for visually impaired patients?
51
what are the ways to reduce hazards for auditorily impaired patients?
52
what are the ways to reduce hazards for olfactory impaired patients?
53
what are the ways to reduce hazards for gustatory impaired patients?
54
what are the ways to reduce hazards for tactile impaired patients?
55
What is the principle where human development falls a head to toe progression?
Cephalocaudal principle
56
What principle is where human development progresses from the center to the outward direction?
Proximadorsal principal
57
What is a principle where the spine develop first followed by extremities than fingers and toes
Proximodorsal principal
58
What is the universal principle where humans develop in an orderly fashion from simple to complex?
Simple to complex universal principle
59
What principle of human growth and development is where infants accomplish how to control before they are able to crawl
Simple to complex
60
What is the human growth and development principle where human growth is a continuous process characterized by periods of growth, spurts and periods of slow and steady growth?
Continuous process principal
61
What is the principle where human development occurs from large muscle movements to more refined muscle movements?
General to specific
62
What is the universal principle of human development that makes development very from individual to individual?
Individualized rates
63
What marks the beginning of prenatal development?
Conception
64
What are the three periods of prenatal development?
Zygote, embryo, and fetus 
65
How long does the zygote period last?
About two weeks
66
When is the zygote considered an embryo?
When it implants itself into the uterine wall 
67
What marks the end of the cycle. And the beginning of the embryonic period.
Implantation and differentiation of cells 
68
During what period of pregnancy is the embryonic period?
Third week after conception to the eighth week
69
What developmental period is characterized by three cell layers forming?
The embryonic period
70
During what stage of development do body structures and internal organs develop?
The embryonic period
71
What does the outer layer of the embryonic period become?
Hair, outer layers of the skin, and the nervous system 
72
What is the outer layer of the embryonic period called?
Ectoderm layer
73
What does the mesoderm become?
Muscles, bone and circulatory system
74
What does the endoderm of the embryonic period become?
Lungs and digestive system
75
What time. Of pregnancy does the fetal period last?
It’s on the ninth week to birth 
76
At what point of the fetal period do most bodily systems function well? And what is this stage called?
Between 22 and 28 weeks; the age of viability
77
What happens if the mother does not consume enough folic acid during pregnancy?
The fetus may develop spina bifida where the neural tube does not close properly during the first month of pregnancy
78
What are some conditions of late pregnancy?
Difficulty breathing
Easily tired
feel physically uncomfortable
79
How soon after birth, is the newborn assessed?
About 1 and 5 minutes after birth
80
What does APGAR. mean?
appearance or skin color
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration 
81
What can influence Apgar scores?
Gestational age
Birthweight
Maternal medication or anesthesia used
Congenital abnormalities 
82
What should the pulse of a newborn be to get two points on the Apgar scale?
At least 100
83
What is the Moro reflex in an infant?
When startled extremities are pulled inwards towards the body
84
What reflex is being tested if a newborn line supine has their head turned to the side? And what is expected to happen?
Tonic neck; the arm and leg on that side will extend
85
What is the simulation when the sole of the foot is stroked and what will happen?
The toes will fan outward, and the foot turns inward. This is called the Babinski reflex. 
86
What will happen if a newborn is held upright with the feet touching the surface?
They will move their feet as if to walk 
87
What is measured right after birth?
Height and weight
Head circumference
Vital signs
88
What is normal for a newborn’s temperature?
A lower than normal temperature as the newborn adjusts to life outside the uterus 
89
What are three ways to prevent heat loss of a newborn
Cover with a light blanket
Putting the newborn on the mother skin
Covering the neonate head
90
How should a newborns respiratory rate be measured in what is the typical range?
It must be counted for a full minute; usually between 30 and 60 breaths per minute
91
How should an apical pulse of a newborn be taken in? What is the typical range?
It should be taken for a full minute; they typically ranges from 110 to 160 bpm
92
What is the average newborns blood pressure range?
60 to 80 mm per mercury for systolic
40 to 50 millimeters per mercury for diastolic
93
How long does infancy span?
Two days to toddler hood 
94
How long do infants or newborns sleep for?
About 20 hours and then 12 hours per day at the end of their first year
95
What can infants do during their first two months?
Hold their head erect and stueady
Cool
96
At what age can infants roll from side to side, left their head, while lying prone and sit with support?
End of their fourth month
97
At what age can infants pick up objects, and transfer the objects from hand to hand for themselves, up to an upright position, and enjoyable vocal play
Six months
98
When do deciduous teeth begin to emerge?
At age 6 months
99
By their first birthday, how heavy should an infant be?
Three times their initial birth weight
100
What kind of vaccines are given in the first two years of life?
Syria measles, mumps, rubella, polio tetanus, and pertussis
101
When does object permanence kick in?
Around nine months and fully develops during toddler hood
102
What is associative play a characteristic of
Preschool age, children, who interact with each other in a similar activity
103
What kind of play do older preschoolers engage in usually?
Cooperative play with the rules
104
What hormone triggers puberty?
Gonadotropin releasing hormone
105
What hormone stimulates the development of eggs and sperm?
follicle-stimulating hormone
106
What hormone causes testosterone and estrogen secretion?
Luteinizing hormone
107
What is climacteric in women?
Menopause and heart palpitations
108
What physiological change in older adults make that more susceptible to cardiac and respiratory disorders?
A loss of elasticity in the blood vessels and lung tissue
109
According to Erikson, what is the first stage of psychosocial development?
Trust versus mistrust
Infancy
110
According to Erikson, what is the second stage of psychosocial development? 
Autonomy versus shame, and doubt during toddler hood 
111
According to Erikson, what is the third stage of psychosocial development and when is it? 
Initiative versus guilt which occurs during preschool age
112
According to Erikson at what stage does a child develop self-confidence productivity, and a sense of self accomplishment? 
During childhood
Industry versus inferiority
113
According to Erikson, what psychosocial stage is important for identity formation, and exploration to achieve a sense of identity and purpose?
Identity versus role confusion during adolescence
114
During what stage does an individual begin to form, intimate, committed relationships with one another?
Intimacy versus isolation in early adulthood
115
During what stage does a person usually undertake activities that cause and benefit others, such as raising a family mentoring, coaching and becoming more community involved?
In middle adulthood, where generativity versus stagnation is important
116
What is the last stage of Ericksons psychosocial development model
Integrity versus despair
117
According to Erikson, at what stage does one achieve a sense of identity and determine a place in society ?
During adolescence
118
What are the four stages of Piaget‘s theory of cognitive development?
Sensorimotor
Preoperational
Concrete operational
Formal operational
119
According to Piaget, how do infants explore the world through direct, sensory and motor contact?
Sensorimotor stage
120
At what stage does object permanence and separation anxiety emerge?
Sensory motor from 0 to 2 years
121
According to Piaget, when does someone express themselves through language and symbolic gestures but cannot reason logically yet?
Preoperational stage from 2 to 6 years
122
According to Piaget, when does someone understand the concept of reversibility and speciality, and can classify socialize and apply rules?
Concrete operational from 6 to 12 years old
123
At what stage according to Piaget, can people refine their thinking, and reasoning skills to achieve cognitive maturity
Formal operational
124
What is a critique to Piaget’s theory?
He used his own children as participants, as well as other children of well educated professionals of high socioeconomic status
125
According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development at what stage does preconventional reasoning happen?
4 to 10 years old
126
What kind of level of moral development according to Kohlberg is when rules are obeyed to avoid punishment, and rules are played or a personal gain
Preconventional reasoning
127
According to Kohlberg, when are rules of paid for acceptance and approval, and also to maintain social order
ConventionAl reasoning and 10 to 13 years to adulthood
128
According to Colbert, when are people in the social contract and universal ethical principles stage
Adolescence to adulthood
129
According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, if a rules are challenged if they impinge on the rights of others, what level is this?
Post conventional reasoning
130
What is the most prevalent cause of genetic disorders?
Down syndrome 
131
What are some health concerns with down syndrome?
Congenital heart defect
Gastrointestinal anomalies
Wake, neuromuscular tone
Audio visual impairment
Early onset, Alzheimer’s disease
132
What is the second most common type of birth defect?
Spina bifida
133
What kind of medication‘s are associated with higher risk of giving birth to babies with congenital defects?
Epilepsy and bipolar disorder medication’s 
134
What are the range of disabilities of spina bifida? 
No symptoms to mild to severe with uses of crutches, braces and wheelchairs
135
What are some symptoms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder? 
Low birthweight
misshapen face, small head
thin upper lip
short nose and widely spaced eyes sometimes hyper active behavior
attention and many memory problems, learning disabilities and speech and language, delays poor judgment skills in a variety of health problems 
136
Why is fetal alcohol syndrome? Hard to diagnose
The mothers may not be forthcoming with their alcohol
Sometimes the diagnosis looks like other conditions 
137
What is failure to thrive?
They have height and weight measures that typically Fabi long is the third or 5th percentile is Laura Baker of growth and development related to nutritional needs that are unmet 
138
What are infants with a ftt prone to?
Gastroesophageal reflux
Celiac disease
Unwillingness to eat food
Absorption problems
Difficulty swallowing
139
What kinds of behaviors to people with FTT present?
Easily fatigued
Irritable
Black age appropriate social responses
Excepted delayed physical skills and motor development
140
What is the leading cause of death for children and all age groups?
Motor vehicle accidents
141
What is the concept of reversibility?
The idea that some objects can be changed and can change back into another form 
142
At what age what a child, attribute feelings and motives to an object?
2 to 6 years
143
When can the ends make initial assessments and data collection on clients?
When the patient is deemed stable, but the RN must determine if further physical assessment data is needed 
144
What is the four step process that practical nurses used to assess a patient?
One data collection
Two planning
Three implementation
Four evaluation
145
What step in the nurse process can the PN do the same as the RN?
They can do the same planning, but they must assist and collaborate with the RN not assuming full responsibility for planning
146
What are tasks that cannot be delegated to an AP?
Wound care of a new wound
Assessment a respiratory system
Assessment of urine
Administration of eyedrops
147
What is at the bottom of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
Physiological needs such as air water food housing
148
What kind of need is a safety need?
Secure environment to live work and play 
149
What are the deficiency needs of Maslow’s hierarchy?
The first four or bottom for physiological, safety, love and esteem needs
150
What is the third level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
You need to give and receive love 
151
What is the second to highest level on Maslow hierarchy of needs?
Need to have a high self image 
152
What is a growth need on Maslow’s hierarchy?
The very top, which is self actualization, or a need for achievement and mastery 
153
Which level on Maslow’s hierarchy is the struggle to maintain homeostasis?
Physiological needs 
154
What is the least restrictive least invasive priority setting ring work?
Using intervention priorities, based on what is least restrictive and invasive 
155
And what priority framework should you check for abdominal distention, hives, or edema?
Exposure
156
What is the safety and risk reduction?
Priority is given to whatever finding possessed the greatest or immediate risk to the clients, physical or psychological well-being
157
What is it called when there is a mass casualty incident and the framework is based on doing the most good for the maximum number of clients at a time when healthcare resources are limited?
Survival potential
158
What does the E stand for in exposure?
To uncover the client from head to toe while maintaining privacy and body temperature to uncover any unexpected findings, such as presence of internal or external bleeding, rashes or a edema 
159
What are the benefits to educating clients?
Decrease anxiety
Ownership
More knowledgeable and empowered
Less pain and fewer unpleasant hospital experiences
160
What are the components of cognitive domain?
Knowledge
Comprehension
Application
Analysis or the breakdown of information to understand the structure
Synthesis or putting the elements together
Evaluation 
161
What are the domains of learning?
Affective
Psychomotor
Cognitive
162
What are the five components of psycho motor domain learning?
Guided response, an imitation
Mechanism or manipulation
Complex or precision
Adaptation or articulation
Origination or naturalization 
163
Which domain of learning is based on educational instruction to provide information that affects the clients feelings and apply it to their situation?
Affective domain 
164
What are the six fundamental principles of learning according to Knowles?
Relevance
Self-directed
Life experience
Readiness
Tasks centered
Motivation 
165
Which fundamental principle of learning, according to Knowles, is where the client takes part in their learning, and have control over making informed decisions?
Self-directed principle 
166
Which fundamental principle of learning, according to Knowles is when the adult needs to be problem centered, and the education is more effective when a relates to adult life experiences
Task centered, principal
167
 Internal motivation is vital because it increases what?
Self-esteem
168
What are factors that promote learning?
Received benefit
Enhanced health literacy
Nonjudgmental support
Quiet low stimulus environment
Repetition
169
What are some factors that hinder learning?
Fear, anxiety, and depression
Lack of motivation
Environmental distractions
Psycho motor deficits
Physical discomfort
Timing
170
How ar which domains of learning has a dialogue of personal topics, expression of feelings and support 
Affective domain
Receiving and agreeing
Responding to agreement
Valuing the volume information to the client
Organization
Characterization or having pursued values
171
What are some positive outcomes when clients learn effectively?
Better able to manage their care
Empowers them to make informed decisions
Increased adherence to interventions
Reduction of hospital admissions
172
What happens during the assessment portion of the teaching process?
The nurse gathers data regarding the clients needs such as motivation, health literacy, learning environment, and support system
173
Which of the nursing process or the teaching process is RN only?
Analysis
174
Which part of the teaching process develops a teaching plan that meets the clients learning needs?
Planning
175
Which part of the teaching process does the nurse include verbal discussion demonstration teach back printed materials, videos, and computer based learning
Implementation
176
At what point in the teaching process would the nurse determine if they need to form a new learning goal?
Evaluation
177
How does documentation help a hospital?
Ensures that the facility is being reimbursed for services to maintain or increase staffing and services
178
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Ask client to identify specific smells, such as coffee or peppermint, testing each nostril separately.
Olfactory I
179
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Test visual acuity using Snellen chart or by having client read printed material.
Optic II
180
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check extraocular movements by assessing the 6 directions of gaze.
Oculomotor III
181
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check pupillary reaction to light and accommodation.
Oculomotor III
182
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess the six directions of gaze
Troclear IV
183
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess corneal reflex.
Trigeminal V
184
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Palpate the masseter muscles at the temple while client clenches jaw.
Trigeminal V
185
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check sensation by lightly touching over the face with a cotton ball.
Trigeminal V
186
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess the 6 directions of gaze.
Abducents VI
187
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Monitor for symmetry of the face when the client smiles and raises/lowers eyebrows.
Facial VII
188
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check the perception of sweet and salty tastes on the front of the tongue.
Facial VII
189
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Whisper a word 2 to 3 cm away from one ear while client occludes the other ear. Check both ears.
Vestibulocochlear (Auditory) VIII
190
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Observe the client’s balance as they walk.
Vestibulocochlear (Auditory) VIII
191
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Check perception of sweet and sour tastes on the back of the tongue.
Glossopharyngeal IX
192
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Use a tongue blade to check the gag reflex.
Glossopharyngeal IX
193
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess the ability to swallow.
Glossopharyngeal IX
194
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Have client say “ah” and observe palate and pharynx for movement.
Vagus X
195
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Listen for hoarseness of voice.
Vagus X
196
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess pulse, bowel sounds.
Vagus X
197
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Observe ability to turn head side to side.
Accessory XI
198
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Monitor client’s ability to shrug shoulders against resistance from examiner’s hands.
Accessory XI
199
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Ask client to stick tongue out, observe if midline;
Hypoglossal XII
200
What nerve and nerve numbers allow this?
Assess ability to move tongue side to side.
Hypoglossal XII
201
What senses are affected by an upper respiratory infection?
smell and taste
202
What senses are affected by poor nutrition?
smell, taste and touch
203
What senses are affected by hypertension?
touch and vision
204
What senses are affected by high cholesterol?
touch and vision
205
What senses can be affected by diabetes Mellitus?
hearing, smell, taste, touch, and vision
206
What three cranial, nerves control, the eyes and vision?
Ocular motor (iii)
Trochlear (IV)
Abducens (VI)
207
What is another word for farsightedness?
Hyperopia
208
What is the condition where blood leaks from the blood vessels in the retina
Diabetic retinopathy
209
What is the most common cause of impaired vision, and blindness during adulthood?
Diabetic retinopathy
210
By age 75 how many Americans have cataracts?
50%
211
How often should a diabetic have an annual eye exam?
Every year
212
What are some ways diabetics can slow down, diabetic retinopathy progression?
Control glue close levels
Blood pressure
Cholesterol levels
213
What condition starts with the loss of peripheral vision and buildup of fluid?
Glaucoma
214
What are some emergent manifestations that require immediate treatment of glaucoma?
Eye pain
Severe headache
Blurred vision 
215
In the US, what is the number one cause of vision loss and buenas for people over 65 years of age?
Macular degeneration
216
How often should children who have no vision, problems or history of vision problems in their family have their vision assessed?
Every two years after there first grade exam
217
What tool can measure Intraocular pressure?
tonometry
218
What tools are used to measure for assess for glaucoma?
tonometry
Gonioscopy
219
What tool allows visualization of the anterior portion of the eye?
Slit lamp examination 
220
How far away should someone stand to assess with a Snellen chart?
20 feet or 6 m
221
How far away should a client hold a chart for a Rosenbaum test?
14 inches or 36 cm
222
What are some ways that a nurse should educate a client for healthy eyecare?
Wash hands before and after instilling eye medication
Quit smoking
Limit, alcohol intake
Keep blood pressure blood glucose in cholesterol under control
Eat foods, rich in antioxidants
223
What kind of drugs will dilate the pupil?
Anticholinergics, such as atropine ophthalmology solution
224
What kind of hearing loss affects the inner ear, auditory nerve, or hearing center of the brain?
Sensorineural
225
What kind of hearing loss affects the middle ear to block sound waves before they reach the cochlea of the inner ear?
Conductive hearing loss
226
What structures of the year are considered the middle ear or a tympanic cavity?
Eustachian tube, ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes)
227
What structure separates the inner and outer ear sections?
Tim panic membrane, or the eardrum
228
What three structures consists of the inner ear? Horrible grammar
Cochlea, the vestibule, semicircular canals
229
What can cause conductive hearing loss?
History of middle ear infections
Older age (otosclerosis)
230
What are some causes of tinnitus?
Age related hearing loss
Ear injury
Cerumen blockage
Circulatory system problem
231
What are some causes of sensorineural hearing loss?
Prolonged exposure to loud noises
Ototoxic medication
Infectious process
Older age (presbycusis: decreased ability to hear high-pitched sounds)
232
What is the most prevalent type of hearing loss?
SNHL
233
What are some congenital infections that can cause SNHL?
Down syndrome
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex
Syphilis
234
What are some non-genetic or infection related causes of hearing loss in infants?
Preterm birth
Low birthweight
Neonatal sepsis
Hyperbilirubinemia
Low Apgar score 
235
If someone has SNHL problems that affect a nerve, which nerve?
Vestibulocochlear VIII
236
What are some SNHL causes?
HD
Trauma
DM
Meningitis
Measles
Tumors
237
What is age related hearing loss called?
Presbycusis
238
How often is presbycusis?
Occurs in half of adults over 75 years of age
239
What are some effects of ototoxicity of SNHL?
Tinnitus
Dizziness
Impaired balance
240
What is the inflammation or the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear?
Otitis media
241
Otosclerosis is more common in what population?
Women
242
What kind of hearing loss is tinnitus?
Sensorineural hearing loss
243
What is the range for a severe hearing loss?
When a client can only hear sounds above 70 to 89 dB
244
What range is considered a profound deafness?
If a client can only hear sounds above 90 dB
245
When would a person have trouble hearing sounds of a conversation without the use of a hearing aid
Client needs hearing aids and unable to detect sounds between 41 and 68 dB or lower
246
If a client has been on ototoxic medications for more than five days, what should the nurse do?
Check the hearing of clients for reduced renal function
247
What should a nurse do to communicate better with a hard of hearing patient?
Get the clients attention before speaking
Sit or stand facing the clients and they will that room
Speak clearly, and slowly without showing
Arrange for communication assistance, such as sign language, interpreter, phone amplifiers, and a teletypewriter
248
What should you do if a hearing aid is not in use for an extended period of time?
Turn it off and remove the battery
249
What cranial nerves control speech?
V
X
XI
XII
(Phrenic and intercostal)
250
What is the disorder that affects a clients ability to articulate and understand speech, and written language?
Aphasia 
251
What ar the causes of aphasia?
CVA
Degenerative neurological disorders
Dementia
Brain injury 
252
What is Brocas’ aphasia aka?
Expressive aphasia
253
What kind of speech is characteristic of expressive aphasia?
They can speak in short phrases
254
Wha is fluent aphasia aka?
Comprehensive aphasia or Wernicke’s aphasia
255
Clients who have comprehensive aphasia usually have damage to what part of the brain?
Temporel lobe
256
What type of speech is characteristic of comprehensive aphasia?
Bein able to understand
257
Global aphasia causes what?
Language comprehension impairment and may be unable to form words or sentences
258
What kind of aphasia is when people can understand, but unable to speak the words they want to say?
Broca’s aphasia
259
What is the most developed sensory system at birth?
Touch
260
Hug, wearing clothing, and feeling wind causes pain in what condition?
Tactile defensiveness
261
What are manifestations of neuropathy?
Weakness
Numbness
Burning feeling
Tingling pain
And ability to detect temperature
Hyporeflexia
262
How to touch disorders manifest in children?
Behavioral difficulties
Avoid bonding behaviors with parents and caregivers
Requiring constant stimulation from touching people and objects
263
What is it called when there is a persistent foul taste when the mouth is empty?
Phantom, taste, perception
264
What is the most common taste disorder?
Phantom, taste, perception
265
What is the decreased ability to taste?
Hypogeusia
266
What is the inability to taste anything at all called?
Ageusia
267
What is the experience of a persistent, salty, rancid or metallic taste?
Dysgeusia
268
What are some causes of taste disorders?
Upper respiratory tract,
Leslie infections, head injuries
Dental caries
some medication’s
Dentures
269
What causes a decrease in taste for people over 60?
Decrease salivary production
270
What disorder causes previously pleasant smells to become unpleasant?
Parosmia
271
Olfactory disorders affect more men or women?
Men
272
What are some disorders that contribute to olfactory disorders?
Parkinson’s
Alzheimer’s
273
NSAIDS can affect what senses?
Hearing and taste
274
Antibiotics can affect what senses?
Hearing
Olfactory
Taste
275
Look diuretics can affect what sense?
Hearing
276
Antihypertensives can affect what sense?
Taste
277
Psychotropics can affect what sense?
Taste
278
Antihistamines can affect what senses?
Hearing
Vision
Olfactory
Gustatory
279
Aspirin affects what sense?
Hearing
280
What are some age considerations for hearing?
Lose ability to hear high-frequency sounds
Cerumen impaction
Tinnitus
281
What are some age considerations for the eyes?
Less sensitive corneas
Smaller peoples, and less reactive to light
Decrease in visual acuity
Less flexibility and extra ocular muscles weekend
Difficulty differentiating colors
If you were tears so painful and prone to infection and corneal scarring
282
What are some medication that alter taste?
NSAIDs
Antihypertensives
Anti-histamines
Psychotropics 
283
Which dis reversible? Delirium or dementia?
Delirium
284
How is diabetic retinopathy diagnosed?
Fluorescein angiography
285
What test can be performed to detect macular degeneration?
Ambler grid to see if lines are wavy or missing
286
WhWhat are some clues in the the eye of someone with macular degeneration?
Druses, or small, yellowish deposits of proteins and lipids under the retina
287
What are some test that determine how effectively vibrations are transmitted through the ossicles?
Bone oscillator test
288
What test monitors the brains’ response to sound by measuring the sound of clicking noises with electrodes?
Auditory brain stem response
289
What are the hearing test most frequently used?
ABR and OAE
290
What kind of test is performed to determine any damage to the nerves leading to muscles using needles?
electormyography
291
How should a nurse care for someone with mild to moderate impairment?
Confirm the client has access to all required corrective equipment
I ensure adequate lighting
Provide large, print reading materials
Faced a client when speaking
292
How should a nurse care for someone who is moderately to severely visually impaired or blind?
Announce presents before entering room
Instruct the client on location of items around the room, including call light
Encourage client to request assistance when ambulating
Keep environment, free of clutter
Offer any braille material
Open packages if needed
Explain what is on their meal tray
293
What does the prefix “presby” mean?
Aging
294
What are indications of possible hearing loss?
Asks for questions to be repeated
Withdraws from social activities
Describe sounds as being muffled 
295
What are the top two common changes associated with aging?
Vision and hearing loss
296
What are three tastes that can decrease with age?
Sour
Bitter
Salty
297
What are some potential causes of conductive hearing loss?
Trauma to the outer ear
Inflammation
Cerumen build up
Otitis media
298
What is a sequential compression device used for?
to improve blood flow in the legs
299
The more well-developed the muscle, the what the rate of atrophy?
Faster
300
How long does it take to see changes to the structure and function of tendons, ligaments, and cartilage?
Four days
301
What is it called when the fixations at the joint occur as a result of changes to muscle and connective tissue?
Joint contractures
302
What happens in a joint contracture so that the arm for joint twists in a odd way?
The flexor muscles are naturally stronger than extensor muscles and atrophy leads to an imbalance between the opposing muscles
303
What is it called when you only have a limited ability to pull the toes up towards the head also called dorsiflexion?
Foot drop
304
What causes foot drop?
Nerve entrapment in short any of the calf muscles in Achilles tendon in the lower leg
305
What are some negative effects of prolonged and mobility on the cardiovascular system?
Orthostatic hypotension
Les fluid volume in the circulatory system
Status of blood in the legs
Diminished autonomic response
Decreased cardiac output
Increased oxygenation requirement
Increased risk of thrombus
Blood thickening
Diuresis
Potential, dehydration
306
How does bedrest change blood composition?
Since it is easier for blood to return to the head, blood thickens in order to make it more difficult which results in diuresis and potential dehydration
307
What is it called when there is lowered demand results in atrophy of the heart muscle?
Cardiac deconditioning
308
Being in a supine positions reduces what?
Amount of air exchanged
309
What is the partial or complete collapse of the lung and how is it caused?
Atelectasisa is caused by shallow breathing
310
What are some negative effects of immobility?
Pneumonia
Decreased cough response
Stasis of secretions and decreased and weak ended respiratory muscles
311
How does bedrest lead to malnutrition?
lowered muscle activity can result in a lowered absorption of protein leading to a lower level of protein in the blood
312
What medication further slows gastrointestinal motility?
Opioid medications
313
What happens to stool if the transit time is prolonged in the intestinal tract?
Water absorption increases and results in a dryer, harder stool
314
How does immobility affect the genitourinary system?
Urinary
Change in calcium metabolic some with hypercalcemia resulting in renal calculi
Decreased fluid intake and increased use of indwelling urinary catheter’s resulting in UTIs
315
How does immobility affect the gastrointestinal system?
Decreased peristalsi
Decreased fluid intake
Lowered protein
Constipation
Gastro esophageal reflux
316
What are some psychological effects on decreased mobility?
Loss of privacy
Impaction of self-concept and self-estee
Feelings of frustration, anxiety, and depression
Social, isolation
317
What are some negative effects of immobility on the integumentary system?
Increase pressure on the skin
Decreased circulation to tissue, causing ischemia and pressure injury
Damage or necrosis of the skin
318
What is an assessment for disuse osteoporosis?
Monitor for increased pain levels, especially in vertebral areas
319
What are some interventions for disuse osteoporosis?
Notify provider if fracture is
Emulate client with assistance
Monitor for increased pain
Perform hourly rounding
320
What are some assessments for sarcopenia?
Observe for dimensioning muscle mass, strength and coordination
Monitor client for weakness and unsteadiness
Assess for fatigue during an activity
321
What are some interventions for joint contractures?
Encourage ADLs to promote flexion and extension
Ensure each joint is moved, at least once every eight hours
Use splints to support and stretch contractor joints
Inspect clients body position and posture for proper body alignment every two hours 
322
What are some interventions for DVT? (5)
Antiembolism stockings
Perform lower leg exercises
Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration and risk of clot
Ambulate frequently
Administer anticoagulants
323
What are some assessments to look out for when a client may have DVT?
Assess for equal cap refill
Observe clients in the presence of unilateral edema
324
What are some interventions for atelactasis?
Encourage use of incentive spirometer
Encourage deep breathing and cough exercises
Monitor oxygen saturation levels, and prescribe any extra
Elevate had to low-Fowlers or 30 to 45°
Turn and reposition every two hours
325
What are some interventions for constipation?
Encourage fluid intake
Encourage consumption of high fiber foods
Increase mobility
326
What are some assessments for constipation?
Auscultate bowel for evaluation
Palpate for distention or discomfort
Assess for nausea, vomiting, or pain
327
What are some interventions for Gastroesophageal reflux
Elevate head of bed after meals to promote collection of gastric secretions
328
What are some interventions for urinary retention
Encourage fluid intake
Upright position when peeing
329
How to take care of pressure injury
Use pillows and cushions
Use chairs and other mattresses
Ensure adequate calories
Move patients every two hours
330
Wha does the Borg Rating of Pervieved Exertion work?
Subjective scale enabling clients to gauge their level of exertion during activity. Lowest is a six and highest is 20 (maximal effort
331
What should be included in a mobility assessment?
Normal mobility status
Ability to sit, stand and walk
Use or need or assistance
Degree of mobility and immobility
Condition of skin
Presence of any manifestations
332
What sis the MAT?
Objectively determine’s a client
333
If a person is a level one, what kind of equipment is needed?
Mechanical life and sideboard
334
At what MAT does it require a gait belt and ambulating assistance devices?
Levels three with minimal assist
335
What does aging due to posture?
Bone loss and degeneration of vertebral discs lead to stooped position and unsteady ambulation
336
What level is a a person who can sit at the side of the bed and extend their legs?
Moderate assist - level two
337
How should the top of a cane be positioned?
It should be level with the inside of the wrist when the client’s arms are relaxed
338
How bent the clients elbow be when using a cane?
About 15 to 30°
339
What kind of clients should use walkers?
Those with balance or weakness difficulties
340
Which foot should step first when using a walker?
The weaker foot
341
What areas should be assessed in order to fit crutches?
Axilla should be 1-2 inches above crutch pads
Hand grips should be at level of client’s hips
Elbows should be 15 to 30° bent when holding the hand grips 
342
What are the two p’s when positioning the body or body part in a certain way?
Promotion: safety dignity, comfort, privacy, participation, and frequent position changes
Prevention: strain, injury, and skin breakdown
343
What is the difference between a swing through and a swing to gait?
A swing through gate is when the feet move beyond the crutches
344
What is a two- point gait?
The crutch and opposite foot will move together and then the other foot and other crutch will move together
345
How does someone go up and down stairs with crutches?
Good up and bad down
346
What is an advantage of lying and prone position? (2)
Laos refill extension of hip and knee joints to prevent contractures
Promotes drainage of secretions
347
What is the advantage of the supine or dorsal recumbent position?
Enable visualization of the client for examination
348
What is the advantage for a lateral position?
Remote, spinal alignment and
reduces pressure on sacrum and heels
349
What is an advantage of Fowlers position?
Promotes long expansion
350
What degrees are semi-Fowlers?
45 to 60°
351
What degree is a semi fowler position?
30 to 45°
352
What is a high Fowler position?
Head of the bed is elevated 60 to 90°
353
What is an advantage of lateral semi prone recumbent?
Reduces pressure on the sacrum and hips
Promote drainage of secretion
354
What is an advantage of Trendelenburg position? (2)
Promote
Promotes drainage of the lower lobes of the lungs
355
In a maximum assistance stage, what can a patient do?
Nothing
356
When is a sit to stand mechanical lift used?
When a patient has surgical or trauma pain, and cannot lift the body upright without assistance
357
When should you not use a mechanical lift for a patient?
When they are uncooperative, and not calm
358
When should a pivot disk be used?
When the patient can stand, but has difficulty moving their feet
359
What are some types of ROM exercises?
Ankle pumps
Foot circles
Knee flexion
360
What happens if you don’t size the antiembolism stockings appropriately?
It can cause reverse pressure gradient, and increase the risk of DVT
361
How high should antiembolism stockings go?
Up to two inches below the back of the knee or 2 inches below the butt for thigh highs
362
How often should an intermittent pneumatic compression device be removed?
Every eight hours
363
What should you not do to reduce compression of leg veins?
Crossed legs
Sit for long periods of time
Wear restrictive clothing on lower extremities
Massage legs
Put pillows behind knees
364
How long should you wait until placing a heat source on a traumatic injury?
At least 24 hours
365
What position should you place a patient to promote postural drainage?
Prone
366
What position should you place a postop patient to prevent atelectasis?
Fowlers
367
What are the benefits of exercise on the musculoskeletal system?
Increased joint mobility
Strength
Reduced bone loss
Increase coordination
Prevention of osteoporosis, especially during chemo
368
What are positive affects of exercise on the metabolic process?
metabolic rate increases up to 20 times a persons normal rate
Increased triglyceride breakdown
Increased gastric motility
Increased production of body heat (wards off infection)
369
What are some general risks to exercise?
Cardiac event
Orthopedic discomfort and disability
Other health problems, such as asthma, and internal factors
370
What position is useful for chest expansion in people with COPD?
Orthopneic
371
zolpidem side effects
Nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics, such as zolpidem, can cause memory loss, gastric discomfort, and hallucinations. Zolpidem-
ZoLow BP-Pain in belly- Imagining-DEhydration-Memory loss
372
Diphenhydramine side effects
Diphenhydramine can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, tinnitus, and urinary retention. Hypotension
DoubleImage-PeeHolding-enhyd-Ringing-Arid-Mouth-ine
373
Tongue movements include cranial nerves:
IX, X, XII
