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Fundamentals > Oxygenation > Flashcards

Oxygenation Flashcards

1
Q

When is atelectasis most common?

A

most commonly observed in the setting of thoracic or abdominal surgery

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2
Q

What is the amount of air that can be expelled from the lungs in 1 second during forced expiration?

A

forced vital capacity

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3
Q

What is maximum amount of air that is expelled after maximal inspiration?

A

vital capacity

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4
Q

What valves close during systole

A

mitral and tricuspid

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5
Q

What valves open during systole

A

aortic and pulmonic

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6
Q

when the mitral and tricuspid valves open and blood flows to the ventricles, the aorta, and the pulmonary artery, what sound is it?

A

S1

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7
Q

what sound is heard when pressure in the ventricles decreases as they empty, the aortic and pulmonic valves close,

A

S2

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8
Q

what is a normal adult’s CO?

A

4 to 6 L/min.

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9
Q

Factors that affect stroke volume (3)

A

preload
afterload, contractility

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10
Q

The _____the ventricle stretches with the end-diastolic volume, the ____the contraction and the ___the stroke volume are

A

more stronger greater

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11
Q

What is the order of electrical conduction of the heart?

A

SA node
(AV) node
bundle of His
right and left bundle branches
Purkinje fibers

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12
Q

What are cardiopulmonary risk factors? (5)

A

diet, exercise, smoking,, environmental factors and stress

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13
Q

What are two diets to lower BP?

A

DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet and the Mediterranean diet

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14
Q

How much should you exercise to improve blood circulation and strengthen the heart?

A

30 to 60 minutes

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15
Q

During the health history, the nurse should ask what questions about smoking? (3)

A

the nurse should ask if the client smokes
if so, how many packs per day
how many years they have been smoking.

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16
Q

What kind of environmental factors can affect cardiopulmonary function?

A

air particles such as coal dust, gold dust, grain, construction dust, and chemical vapors emitted by cleaning agents and gas fumes.

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17
Q

client’s social history should include information about what?

A

alcohol or tobacco use
employment history
home environment
any recent travel history

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18
Q

When is the ideal time to weigh a patient?

A

The client should be weighed in the morning after urinating

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19
Q

Any excessive weight gain over a short span of time could indicate what?

A

heart failure

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20
Q

What are signs of COPD?

A

clubbing, and edema

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21
Q

What things should be observed for cardiopulmonary

A

clubbing
JVD
edema
tripod

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22
Q

How much should you recline a patient to check for JVD?

A

30-45 degrees

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23
Q

What should you palpate the thorax for? (7)

A

carotid and apical pulses
tenderness
respiratory excursion
tactile fremitus
edema
skin turgor, temperature
cap refil

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24
Q

What is the vibration felt in the chest wall during palpation while the client is speaking

A

Tactile fremitus

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25
Q

What can decrease tactile fremitus?

A

pleural effusion

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26
Q

What are the grades for edema?

A

2mm=1+
4mm
6mm
8mm

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27
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

A buildup of fluid in the pleural space.

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28
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

Air in the pleural space causing the lung to completely or partially collapse.

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29
Q

What areas should be palpated for rate and quality?

A

Palpate the radial
brachial
femoral
popliteal
dorsalis pedis
posterior tibialis pulses

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30
Q

When will the lung field sound dull?

A

normally resonant, but dull if areas of excess fluid are present, such as a pleural effusion

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31
Q

what causes fluid filling the air sacs; they sound like popping and crackling. Clients with pneumonia or an infection may have crackles.

A

Crackles

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32
Q

what is a musical noise that is heard on exhalation.

A

Wheezing ior a whistling

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33
Q

what sound may be heard in clients with asthma and COPD.

A

Wheezing is a whistling and rhonchi

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34
Q

what sounds much like wheezing but is caused by constriction in the upper airways and is heard on inhalation.

A

stridor

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35
Q

what type of breathing is a medical emergency

A

stridor

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36
Q

What heart sound is often benign, but in adults it can be an indication of heart failure.

A

S3 gallop

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37
Q

What heart sound can indicate aortic stenosis, hypertension, or a history of myocardial infarction?

A

S4 gallop

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38
Q

If you locate a heart murmur, what should you note?

A

location, quality, intensity, and pitch

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39
Q

__occurs when there is a decreased amount of oxygen in the blood and can lead to ___

A

Hypoxemia, hypoxia

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40
Q

Manifestations of hypoxemia and hypoxia include (5)

A

confusion, irritability, and restlessness
tachycardia, hypertension

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41
Q

Why is an intercostal retraction an emergency?

A

pressure inside the chest is reduced and can indicate an airway blockage

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42
Q

Alkalosis may cause (6)

A

weakness
dizziness
headache, anxiety
increased heart rate
difficulty breathing
numbness and tingling in the fingers.

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43
Q

Causes of hypoventilation include:(4)

A

Neuromuscular disorders such as muscular dystrophy and Guillain-Barré syndrome
Medications such as barbiturates, narcotics, and benzodiazepines
Neurologic disorders
Trauma

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44
Q

s/s of hypoventilation

A

anxiety
dyspnea with exertion
confusion
disturbed sleep patterns, weakness
an impaired cough.

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45
Q

what conditions may cause hypoxia (5)

A

Smoke inhalation
High altitudes
Lung diseases such as COPD, pneumonia, and asthma
Medications that decrease the respiratory rate
Anemia

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46
Q

xamples of contractility disorders include

A

heart failure, valvular diseases, and arrythmias; examples of perfusion include hypertension, myocardial infarction, and CAD.

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47
Q

What are s/s of bradycardia?

A

lightheadedness, fatigue, chest pain, confusion, fainting (syncope), shortness of breath, and tiring easily with physical activity

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48
Q

What are causes of bradycardia?

A

age-related damage to the heart tissue, damage caused by heart attack or heart disease, and certain medications,

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49
Q

What are s/s of tachycardia?

A

lightheadedness, fatigue, chest pain, heart palpitations, syncope, SOB

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50
Q

What are some lifestyle changes for tachycardia?

A

drinking less caffeine, reducing the amount of alcohol consumed

51
Q

How is atrial fibrillation caused?

A

triggered by signals coming from outside of the SA node.

52
Q

Why does a- fib cause blood clots?

A

AV node becomes overwhelmed, start to quiver, and blood pools in the atria

53
Q

When does Ventricular dysrhythmias occur?

A

electrical impulses begin in the ventricle instead of the atria

54
Q

what-sided heart failure include hypoxia, crackles in the lungs, and shortness of breath.

A

left-sided

55
Q

dema commonly occurs where

A

lower extremities, genitals, organs, and abdomen

56
Q

Three factors contribute to tissue perfusion

A

preload, contractility, and afterload

57
Q

s/s of angina

A

pain that radiates to the arms, neck area, jaw, shoulder, or back.
Sweating (diaphoresis)
dizziness,
fatigue,
SOB

58
Q

What is the difference between angina and MI pain?

A

nitro and rest can relieve angina

59
Q

Advantage of Nasal cannula

A

safe, simple, and inexpensive
comfortable

60
Q

NC concentration

A

concentrations of 1 to 6 L/min (24% to 44% of oxygen)

61
Q

disadvantage of Nasal cannula

A

dermatitis
dry mucous/headaches for flow rat 4L+
less accurate in terms of what percentage of O2

62
Q

Simple face mask advantages

A

Inexpensive
Can be used on mouth breathers

63
Q

What condition is a simple face mask not recommended for a respiratory reason?

A

co2 retension
those with nausea and vomiting

64
Q

Partial and nonrebreather masks should be used for?

A

Short term use with clients having acute illness and trauma

65
Q

flow rate for partial and NRB

A

(60% to 75%; 80% to 95%) at flow rates of 10 to 15 L/min

66
Q

What are some considerations for partial and nonrebreather masks?

A

Not to be used with humidification.
good seal needed
risk of atelactasis and oxygen toxicity
bag inflated 1/3 for setup

67
Q

Venturi mask disadvantages

A

noisy
claustrophobic
interferes with eating, drinking, and talking

68
Q

Simple face mask O2 flow

A

5 to 8 L/min (40% to 60% oxygen concentration)

69
Q

NRB is not recommended to who?

A

COPD or respiratory failure for long-term use due to a risk of oxygen toxicity.

70
Q

Venturi mask flow rates

A

flow rates in the range of 4 to 10 L/min (24% to 50%).

71
Q

What patients should have a CPAP?

A

OSA, premature infants, and clients with cardiopulmonary diseases such as stroke, hypertension, and CAD.

72
Q

OSA s/s

A

morning headache, extreme daytime drowsiness, loud snoring, and restlessness.

73
Q

OSA can be associated with

A

heart failure, hypertension, injury, atrial fibrillation, and other arrhythmias

74
Q

How is bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) is different from CPAP?

A

pressures are higher when inhaling and lower when exhaling, whereas CPAP delivers a single pressure.

75
Q

Who should use BiPAP?

A

cients whose airway collapses while they are sleeping,
clients with COPD, heart failure, and sleep apnea

76
Q

Oxygen toxicity s/s

A

twitching of the hand muscles
prolonged exposure can lead to nausea
generalized convulsions
dysphoria
tinnitus

77
Q

chronic oxygen toxicity s/s

A

atelectasis
coughing
dyspnea
pleuritic chest pain
heaviness substernally. However, once oxygen is discontinued, symptoms lessen within 4 hours

78
Q

how to avoid oxygen toxicity

A

stress, cold, and increased carbon dioxide in the blood

79
Q

Any heat source should be kept how many feet away from the oxygen system,

A

five feet

80
Q

Oxygen concentrators should be kept how far away from curtains or walls.

A

several inches

81
Q

Oxygen tubing should not be longer than how many feet to avoid tripping.

A

50

82
Q

how many psi for oxygen tank?

A

2K

83
Q

how much sputum is needed for sample?

A

1-2 tspn or 2-10 mL

84
Q

What should you document when collecting sputum?

A

document the time the sample was collected and transport i

85
Q

chest physiotherapy (CPT) consists of percussion of the what?

A

chest, vibration, and postural drainage

86
Q

how many times would chest physiotherapy be done a day?

A

no more than four

87
Q

Percussion is not done over what areas?

A

the ribs, the sides of the chest, or the lower back, breastbone, lower back and spine

88
Q

When is an IS used?

A

device is utilized postoperatively to restore functioning of the lungs following a surgical procedure.

89
Q

how often should an IS be used?

A

10 repetitions per hour with each breath held for 3 to 5 seconds

90
Q

Purse-Lipped Breathing can be used for what situations?

A

stressful situations, during exercise, and during labor-intensive activities

91
Q

What type of breathing is beneficial for those with emphysema, COPD, and pulmonary fibrosis

A

stressful situations, during exercise, and during labor-intensive activities

92
Q

How should a purse-lip breathing

A

breathe in two and exhale 4

93
Q

Coughing and Deep Breathing can aim to

A

expand lung and clearing secretios

94
Q

When is Coughing and Deep Breathing tecnhique used?

A

lear the lungs of mucus and pus, and to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia

95
Q

When is Coughing and Deep Breathing tecnhique used?

A

lear the lungs of mucus and pus, and to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia

96
Q

Coughing and Deep Breathing should be done how often?

A

five times a day every 1-2 hours

97
Q

Huff Coughing is not as strong as what?

A

regular coughing because it it just breathing out air forcefully

98
Q

What type of technique should be used for tracheal suctioning?

A

sterile

99
Q

How should the tracheostomy client be suctioned?

A

sterile and suction while going up for 10 to 15

100
Q

What shoudl nurses look out for with a chest drainage system

A

vital signs, breath sounds, oxygenation, and respiratory effort
ensure they are functioning appropriately.
site for edness, swelling, pain, and signs of subcutaneous emphysema

101
Q

nurse is teaching a client how to perform the purse-lipped breathing technique. What is the correct order of steps in purse-lipped breathing?

A

Purse-lipped breathing is performed by relaxing the neck and shoulders. The client takes a deep breath, inhaling through the nostrils slowly; purses the lips; and exhales through the mouth slowly. This helps ease the struggle of breathing.

102
Q

What should be assessed when documenting drainage chamber?

A

amount, color, and consistency of drainage

103
Q

What type of water is used to clean a tracheostomysite?

A

Sterile water or 0.9% sodium chloride

104
Q

How long should you hyperoxygenate a patient for?

A

Hyperoxygenate the client using 100% oxygen for at least 30 seconds or by having the client take five to six deep breaths.

105
Q

What is the amount of additional air that can be inspired after a regular inspiration.

A

inspiratory reserve

106
Q

What waist circumference increases the risk for heart disease?

A

102 cm (40 in) or greater for men and 89 cm (35 in) or greater for women

107
Q

At what level should a chest tube drainage system be at?

A

below the client’s chest to reduce the risk of drainage flowing back into the client’s pleural space.

108
Q

Why should you not clamp chest tube tubin for a drain?

A

The nurse should not clamp the chest tube tubing because this can cause a tension pneumothorax.

109
Q

The nurse should identify that continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates what?

A

that there is an air leak in the chest tube system.

110
Q

pneumonia s/s

A

tachypnea
increased temp

111
Q

What allows the lungs to stetch?

A

surfactant

112
Q

hypoxia is caused by what?

A

low anemia
pulmonary disease
hypoxemia

113
Q

Why is it more difficult for older people to breathe?

A

lungs get stiffer and less elastic
muscles are weaker
expiration and inspiration is decreased
alveoli is stiffer

114
Q

early signs of hypoxia

A

Restlessness
Anxiety
Tachycardia/tachypnea

115
Q

late signs of hypoxia

A

Bradycardia
Extreme restlessness
Dyspnea

116
Q

How to facilitate oxygen

A

postition
maintain fluid intake
provide humidified air
chest physiotherapy (except osteoporosis

117
Q

what are benefits of the incentive spirometer?

A

fully exapnds lungs, prevents atelectasis and infections like pneumonia

118
Q

What do many antitussives contain?

A

codeine, which causes respiratory distress

119
Q

What drugs reduce inflammation of the airways?

A

corticosteroids?

120
Q

What drugs opens the airways?

A

bronchodilators

121
Q

What does smoking do to the lungs?

A

increases airway resistance
reduces ciliary action
increases mucus
thickens alveolar membrane
causes bronchial wall thickening and loss of elasticity
reduces circulation be narrowing blood vessels-MAJOR vasoconstrictor

122
Q

Where would you hear bronchial sounds and what does it sound like?

A

loud, high-pitched, hollow quality, expiration longer than inspiration over trachea

123
Q

What are bronchovesicular sounds and where are they heard?

A

medium pitch, blowing sounds and intensity with equal inspiration and expiration times over the larger airways

124
Q

What are the vescicular sounds?

A

soft low-pitched over perpheral areas of lungs

Fundamentals (15 decks)

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